Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2009

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2009 Total Questions - 225

1) The quantities RC and \[\left( \frac{L}{R} \right)\] ( where R, L and C stand for resistance, inductance and capacitance respectively) have the dimensions of

A)

force

B)

linear momentum

C)

linear velocity

D)

time

View Answer
2) The correct vector relation between linear velocity \[\vec{v}\] and angular velocity\[\vec{\omega }\]in rigid body dynamics is ( where \[\vec{r}\] is the postion vector)

A)

\[\vec{\omega }=\vec{v}\times \vec{r}\]

B)

\[\vec{v}=\vec{r}/\vec{\omega }\]

C)

\[\vec{v}=\vec{\omega }\times \vec{r}\]

D)

\[\vec{r}=\vec{v}\times \vec{\omega }\]

View Answer
3) Which of the following cannot be speed-time graph?

A)

B)



C)



D)



View Answer
4) Magnitudes of four pairs of displacement vectors are given. Which pair of displacement vectors, under vector addition, fails to give a resultant vector of magnitude 3 cm?

A)

2 cm, 7 cm

B)

1 cm, 4 cm

C)

2 cm, 3 cm

D)

2 cm, 4 cm

View Answer
5) The maximum range of a projectile is 100 m. The maximum height reached by it is

A)

100 m

B)

25 m

C)

200 m

D)

75 m

View Answer
6) The working principle of rocket propulsion is conservation of

A)

angular momentum

B)

mass

C)

linear momentum

D)

kinetic energy

View Answer
7) In inelastic collision

A)

momentum, kinetic energy and total energy are conserved

B)

momentum, kinetic energy and total energy are not conserved

C)

momentum, and kinetic energy are conserved but total energy is not conserved

D)

total energy and momentum are conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved

View Answer
8) A cricket ball of mass 0.5 kg strikes a cricket bat normally with a velocity of 20 ms 1 and rebounds with velocity of 10 ms-1. The impulse of the force exerted by the ball on the bat is

A)

15 Ns

B)

25 Ns

C)

30 Ns

D)

10 Ns

View Answer
9) Assuming earth to be an inertial frame, an example for inertial frame observer is

A)

a driver in a train which is slowing down to stop

B)

a person in a car moving with uniform velocity

C)

a girl revolving in a merry-go-round

D)

a passenger in an aircraft which is taking off

View Answer
10) If the force acting on a body is inversely proportional to its speed, then its kinetic energy is

A)

linearly related to time

B)

inversely proportional to time

C)

inversely proportional to the square of time

D)

a constant

View Answer
11) A body, possessing kineric energy T, moving on a rough horizontal surface, is stopped in a distance y. The frictional force exerted on the body is

A)

Ty

B)

\[\frac{\sqrt{T}}{y}\]

C)

\[\frac{T}{y}\]

D)

\[\frac{T}{\sqrt{y}}\]

View Answer
12) A particle is describing uniform circular motion. Its acceleration is

A)

along the radius of the circular path pointing towards the centre

B)

along the tangent to the circular path

C)

along the radius of the circular path pointing away from the centre

D)

zero

View Answer
13) \[{{I}_{1}},\]and \[{{I}_{2}}\]are the moments of inertia of two circular discs about their central axes perpendicular to their surfaces. Their angular frequencies of rotation are \[{{\omega }_{1}}\]and \[{{\omega }_{2}}\] respectively. If they are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation coinciding with each other, the angular frequency of the composite disc will be

A)

\[\frac{{{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}}{{{\omega }_{1}}+{{\omega }_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{I}_{2}}{{\omega }_{1}}-{{I}_{1}}{{\omega }_{2}}}{{{I}_{1}}-{{I}_{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{I}_{2}}{{\omega }_{1}}+{{I}_{1}}{{\omega }_{2}}}{{{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{I}_{1}}{{\omega }_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}{{\omega }_{2}}}{{{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
14) A child stands at one end of a boat moving with a speed v in still water. If the child starts running towards the other end of the boat with a speed u, the centre of mass of the system (boat and child) will move with a speed

A)

v - u

B)

v

C)

u

D)

v +u

View Answer
15) In planetary motion, the quantity that remains unchanged is

A)

radius of the orbit

B)

  speed along the orbit

C)

  total angular momentum

D)

  angular speed

View Answer
16) Work done in taking a mass from one point to another in a gravitational field depends on

A)

the end points only

B)

the path followed

C)

the velocity of the mass

D)

both the length of the path and the end points

View Answer
17) A body is projected up from the surface of the earth with a velocity equal to \[\frac{3}{4}\]of its escape velocity. If R be the radius of earth, the height it reaches is

A)

\[\frac{3R}{10}\]

B)

\[\frac{9R}{7}\]

C)

\[\frac{8R}{5}\]

D)

\[\frac{9R}{5}\]

View Answer
18) A satellite moving round the earth in circular orbit of radius r and speed v suddenly loses some of its energy. Then,

A)

r will increase and v will decrease

B)

both r and v will decrease

C)

both r and v will increase

D)

r will decrease and v will increase

View Answer
19) The stress required to double the length of wire of Youngs modulus Y is

A)

\[\frac{y}{2}\]

B)

2y

C)

Y

D)

4Y

View Answer
20)  Water flows through a pipe of varying cross-section. Then the ratio of the speeds of water at two points 1 and 2, where the radii of the pipe are \[{{r}_{1}}\]and \[{{r}_{2}}\]is

A)

\[\frac{r_{2}^{2}}{r_{1}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{r}_{2}}}{{{r}_{1}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{r_{1}^{2}}{r_{2}^{2}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{r}_{1}}}{{{r}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
21) A piece of ice, with a stone embedded inside it, is floating in water contained in a vessel. When the ice melts completely, the level of water in vessel

A)

remains unchanged

B)

rises

C)

falls

D)

falls in the beginning and rises to the same level later

View Answer
22) The excess pressure inside a cylindrical drop of liquid or a cylindrical bubble of radius R in a liquid of surface tension T is

A)

\[\frac{T}{4R}\]

B)

\[\frac{T}{R}\]

C)

\[\frac{2T}{R}\]

D)

\[\frac{4T}{R}\]

View Answer
23) Two small spheres of radii r and 4r fall through a viscous liquid with the same terminal velocity. The ratio between the viscous forces acting on them is

A)

1 : 2

B)

4 : 1

C)

1:16

D)

1 : 4

View Answer
24) A certain quantity of heat energy is given to a diatomic ideal gas which expands at constant pressure. The fraction of the heat energy that is converted into work is

A)

2/3

B)

2/7

C)

1/5

D)

1/7

View Answer
25) When the temperature of a gas is increased

A)

its molecular kinetic energy increases

B)

molecular potential energy decreases and molecular kinetic energy also decreases, total energy remaining constant

C)

molecular potential energy increases and molecular kinetic energy decreases; total energy remaining constant

D)

its molecular potential energy increases

View Answer
26) Two monoatomic ideal gases A and B occupying the same volume V, are at the same temperature T and pressure p. If they are mixed, the resultant mixture has volume V and temperature T. The pressure of the mixture is

A)

p

B)

\[\frac{p}{2}\]

C)

4p

D)

2p

View Answer
27) The requirement for heat conduction to take place in a solid is

A)

density gradient

B)

uniform density

C)

temperature gradient

D)

uniform temperature

View Answer
28) A Carnots engine working between \[27{}^\circ C\] and \[127{}^\circ C\] has a work output of 200 J/cycle. The energy supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle is

A)

400 J

B)

800 J

C)

600 J

D)

500 J

View Answer
29) A particle is executing linear simple harmonic motion. The fraction of the total energy that is potential, when its displacement is \[\frac{1}{4}\] of the amplitude is

A)

1/16

B)

1/8

C)

1/2

D)

¼

View Answer
30) The equation \[y\text{ }=\text{ }A\text{ }sin\text{ }k(vt-x)\]represents\[\left( k=\frac{2\pi }{\lambda } \right)\]

A)

a plane progressive wave travelling along negative x-direction

B)

a plane progressive wave travelling along positive X-direction

C)

a stationary wave

D)

a plane progressive wave travelling along positive K-direction

View Answer
31) The third overtone of an open organ pipe is in resonance with the second overtone of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the open pipe is 8 cm, then the length of closed pipe is

A)

10 cm

B)

8 cm

C)

12 cm

D)

5 cm

View Answer
32) When a wave undergoes refraction

A)

its frequency changes

B)

its amplitude changes

C)

its velocity changes

D)

both amplitude and frequency change

View Answer
33) A sound wave with frequency 256 Hz falls normally on a perfectly reflecting wall. The shortest distance from the wall at which the air particles will have maximum amplitude of vibrations is nearly ( velocity of sound in air is\[336\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\])

A)

32.8 cm

B)

50 cm

C)

65.8 cm

D)

25 cm

View Answer
34) When air medium in which two charges kept apart at a distance r is replaced by a dielectric medium of dielectric constant K, the force between the charges

A)

remains unchanged

B)

decreases K times

C)

increases K times

D)

increases K2 times

View Answer
35) The magnitude of electric field E required to balance an oil drop of mass m, carrying charge q is (g = acceleration due to gravity)

A)

\[\frac{q}{m}\]

B)

\[\frac{mg}{{{q}^{2}}}\]

C)

mgq

D)

\[\frac{mg}{q}\]

View Answer
36) Three charges -q, + Q and -q are placed in a straight line as shown. If the total potential energy of the system is zero, then the ratio \[\frac{q}{Q}\] is

A)

2

B)

5.5

C)

4

D)

1.5

View Answer
37) Electric flux emanating through a surface element \[d\vec{s}=5\hat{i}\] placed in an electric field \[\vec{E}=4\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\]is

A)

10 units

B)

20 units

C)

4 units

D)

16 units

View Answer
38) A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential of V volt. The battery is then disconnected and the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. The potential difference between the plates of the capacitor will

A)

increase

B)

decrease

C)

not change

D)

become zero

View Answer
39) Energy stored per unit volume of a parallel plate capacitor having plate area A and plate separation d when charged to a potential of V volts is (air space in between the plates)

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}{{C}^{2}}{{V}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{q}^{2}}}{4C}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{2}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\left( \frac{v}{d} \right)\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{2}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\left( \frac{{{v}^{2}}}{{{d}^{2}}} \right)\]

View Answer
40) The mutual electrostatic potential energy between two protons which are at a distance of \[9\times {{10}^{-15}}m,\,in{{\,}_{19}}{{\mathsf{U}}^{235}}\]nucleus is

A)

\[1.56\times {{10}^{-14}}J\]

B)

\[5.5\times {{10}^{-14}}J\]

C)

\[2.56\times {{10}^{-14}}J\]

D)

\[4.56\times {{10}^{-14}}J\]

View Answer
41) The SI units of electron mobility are

A)

\[{{m}^{2}}{{s}^{-1}}{{v}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[ms\,\,{{V}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[m{{s}^{-1}}V\]

D)

\[{{m}^{2}}{{s}^{-2}}{{V}^{-2}}\]

View Answer
42) A copper wire and a silicon wire are heated from room temperature to \[60{}^\circ C\]. Then

A)

resistance of both the wires decreases

B)

resistance of both the wires increases

C)

resistance of copper wire decreases and that of silicon wire increases

D)

resistance of copper wire increases and that of silicon wire decreases

View Answer
43) The tungsten filaments of two electric bulbs are of the same length. If one of them gives 25 W power and the other 60 W power, then

A)

both the filaments are of same thickness

B)

25 W bulb has thicker filament

C)

60 W bulb has thicker filament

D)

both the filaments have same cross-section area

View Answer
44) Heater coil A takes t1 second to boil certain quantity of water. Heater coil B takes \[{{t}_{2}}\]second to boil same quantity of water. If A and B are connected in series, the time taken to boil the same quantity of water by the combination is

A)

\[\sqrt{{{t}_{1}}{{t}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[{{t}_{1}}+{{t}_{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{2}({{t}_{1}}+{{t}_{2}})\]

D)

\[\frac{{{t}_{1}}{{t}_{2}}}{{{t}_{1}}+{{t}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
45) When the cold and hot junctions of a thermocouple are interchanged, the thermo emf

A)

changes sign

B)

remains the same

C)

becomes zero

D)

is doubled

View Answer
46) A charge q coulomb makes n revolutions in one second in a circular orbit of radius r. The magnetic field at the centre of the orbit in \[N{{A}^{-1}}{{m}^{-1}}\]is

A)

\[\frac{2\pi rn}{q}\times {{10}^{-7}}\]

B)

\[\left( \frac{2\pi q}{r} \right)\times {{10}^{-7}}\]

C)

\[\left( \frac{2\pi q}{nr} \right)\times {{10}^{-7}}\]

D)

\[\left( \frac{2\pi nq}{r} \right)\times {{10}^{-7}}\]

View Answer
47) In a moving coil galvanometer, to make the field radial

A)

coil is wound on wooden frame

B)

magnetic poles are cylindrically cut

C)

a horse-shoe magnet is used

D)

the number of windings in the coil is decreased

View Answer
48) An electron travelling with velocity\[\vec{v}\], enters a region of space in which electric and magnetic fields exist. Then the electron goes undeflected for all values of fields

A)

if both electric and magnetic fields are normal to\[\vec{v}\]

B)

if the magnetic field alone in normal to v

C)

if both electric and magnetic fields are parallel to \[\vec{v}\]

D)

if the electric field alone is normal to \[\vec{v}\]

View Answer
49) Magnetic field at the centre of a coil in the form of a square of side 2 cm carrying a current of 1.414 A is

A)

\[8\times {{10}^{-5}}T\]

B)

\[8\times {{10}^{-5}}T\]

C)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{-5}}T\]

D)

\[6\times {{10}^{-5}}T\]

View Answer
50) The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is

A)

zero

B)

low

C)

high

D)

infinity

View Answer
51) The relation connecting magnetic susceptibility \[{{X}_{m}}\]and relative permeability \[\mu \] is

A)

\[{{X}_{m}}={{\mu }_{r}}+1\]

B)

\[{{X}_{m}}={{\mu }_{r}}-1\]

C)

\[{{X}_{m}}=\frac{1}{{{\mu }_{r}}}\]

D)

\[{{X}_{m}}=3(1+{{\mu }_{r}})\]

View Answer
52) Whenever there is a relative motion between a coil and a magnet, the magnitude of induced emf set up in the coil does not depend upon the

A)

relative speed between the coil and magnet

B)

magnetic moment of the coil

C)

resistance of the coil

D)

number of turns in the coil

View Answer
53) A uniformly wound coil of self-inductance \[1.2\times {{10}^{-4}}H\] and resistance 3\[\Omega \] is broken up into two identical coils. These coils are then connected parallely across a 6V battery of negligible resistance. The time constant for the current in the circuit is (neglect mutual inductance)

A)

\[0.4\times {{10}^{-\text{ }4}}s\]

B)

\[0.2\times {{10}^{-\text{ }4}}s\]

C)

\[0.5\times {{10}^{-4}}s\]

D)

\[0.1\times {{10}^{-4}}s\]

View Answer
54) In AC circuit Ohms law is applicable for

A)

instantaneous values of current and voltage only

B)

rms values of current and voltage only

C)

peak values of current and voltage only

D)

all values of current and voltage

View Answer
55) The average power dissipated in a pure capacitance AC circuit is

A)

CV

B)

zero

C)

\[\frac{1}{C{{V}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{4}C{{V}^{2}}\]

View Answer
56) The instantaneous values of current and voltage in an AC circuit are given by \[I=6\sin \left( 100\pi t+\frac{\pi }{4} \right),\]\[V=5\sin \left( 100\pi t+\frac{\pi }{4} \right),then\]

A)

current leads the voltage by \[45{}^\circ \]

B)

voltage leads the current by \[90{}^\circ \]

C)

current leads the voltage by \[90{}^\circ \]

D)

voltage leads the current by \[45{}^\circ \]

View Answer
57) The velocity of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum can be changed by changing

A)

frequency

B)

amplitude

C)

wavelength

D)

None of these

View Answer
58) The relationship between phase difference \[\Delta \phi \] and the path difference \[\Delta x\]between two interfering waves is given by (\[\lambda \] = wavelength)

A)

\[\Delta x=\left( \frac{\lambda }{2\pi } \right)\Delta \phi \]

B)

\[\Delta x=\left( \frac{2\pi }{\lambda } \right)\Delta \phi \]

C)

\[\Delta \phi =\left( \frac{\lambda }{\pi } \right)\Delta x\]

D)

\[\Delta \phi =(2\pi )\Delta x\]

View Answer
59) In Youngs double slit experiment, the fringe width with light of wavelength 6000 \[_{A}^{0}\] is 3 mm. The fringe width, when the wavelength of light is changed to 4000 \[_{A}^{0}\]is

A)

3 mm

B)

1 mm

C)

2 mm

D)

4 mm

View Answer
60) If the width of the slit in single slit diffraction experiment is doubled, then the central maximum of diffraction pattern becomes

A)

broader and brighter

B)

sharper and brighter

C)

sharper and fainter

D)

broader and fainter

View Answer
61) Transverse nature of light was confirmed by the phenomenon of

A)

refraction of light

B)

diffraction of light

C)

dispersion of light

D)

polarization of light

View Answer
62) If a transparent parallel plate of uniform thickness t and refractive index \[\mu \] is interposed perpendicularly in the path of a light beam, the optical path is

A)

increased by\[(~\mu -\text{1})t\]

B)

decreased by \[\mu \,t\]

C)

decreased by \[(~\mu -1)t\]

D)

increased by \[~\mu \,t\]

View Answer
63) If the photoelectric work function for a metallic surface is 4.125 eV, the cut-off wavelength for photoelectric phenomenon for the surface is

A)

4500\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

B)

1700 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

C)

2800 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

D)

3000 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

View Answer
64) The masses of two particles having same kinetic energies are in the ratio 1 : 2. Then their de-Broglie wavelengths are in the ratio

A)

2 : 1

B)

1 : 2

C)

\[\sqrt{2}:1\]

D)

\[\sqrt{3}:1\]

View Answer
65) Balmer series of hydrogen atom lies in

A)

microwave region

B)

visible region

C)

ultraviolet region

D)

infrared region

View Answer
66) The shortest wavelength of X-rays coming from an X-ray tube depends on the

A)

voltage applied to the tube

B)

current in the tube

C)

atomic number of target element

D)

nature of gas in the tube

View Answer
67) The nuclear force

A)

is purely an electrostatic force

B)

obeys inverse square law of distance

C)

is equal in strength to gravitational force

D)

is short range force

View Answer
68) A radioactive isotope A with a half-life of \[1.25\times {{10}^{10}}yr\]decays into B which is stable. A sample of rock from a planet is found to contain both A and B present in the ratio 1:15. The age of the rock is (in years)

A)

\[9.6\times {{10}^{10}}\]

B)

\[4.2\times {{10}^{10}}\]

C)

\[5\times {{10}^{10}}\]

D)

\[~1.95\times {{10}^{10}}\]

View Answer
69) Enriched uranium is used in nuclear reactors because, it contains greater proportion of

A)

\[{{U}^{238}}\]

B)

\[{{U}^{235}}\]

C)

\[{{U}^{239}}\]

D)

\[{{U}^{233}}\]

View Answer
70) The weakest bond in solids is

A)

van der Waals

B)

metallic

C)

covalent

D)

ionic

View Answer
71) In a semiconducting material l/5th of the total current is carried by the holes and the remaining is carried by the electrons. The drift speed of electrons is twice that of holes at this temperature, the ratio between the number densities of electrons and holes is

A)

21/6

B)

5

C)

3/8

D)

2

View Answer
72) In a transistor, the base is

A)

a conductor with high conductivity

B)

an insulator

C)

an extrinsic semiconductor

D)

an intrinsic semiconductor

View Answer
73) The following figure represents

A)

OR gate

B)

NOT gate

C)

NOR gate

D)

AND gate

View Answer
74) In amplitude modulation, the bandwidth is

A)

twice the audio signal frequency

B)

thrice the audio signal frequency

C)

thrice the carrier wave frequency

D)

twice the carrier wave frequency

View Answer
75) In a typical optical fibre, the difference between the refractive indices of core material and cladding material is of the order of

A)

\[{{10}^{-5}}\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-6}}\]

C)

\[{{10}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[{{10}^{-3}}\]

View Answer
76) The   equivalent   mass   of   potassium permanganate in alkaline medium is its molar

A)

\[\frac{molar\,mass}{5}\]

B)

\[\frac{molar\,mass}{3}\]

C)

\[\frac{molar\,mass}{2}\]

D)

molar mass itself

View Answer
77) The number of molecules in 18 mg of water in terms of Avogadro number N is

A)

\[{{10}^{-3}}N\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-2}}N\]

C)

\[{{10}^{-1}}N\]

D)

\[10N\]

View Answer
78) If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m is 100 times its velocity then its value in terms of its mass (m) and Plancks constant (h) is

A)

\[\frac{1}{10}\sqrt{m/h}\]

B)

\[10\sqrt{h/m}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{10}\sqrt{h/m}\]

D)

\[10\sqrt{m/h}\]

View Answer
79) How much volume of oxygen at STP, in litre is required to burn 4 g of methane gas completely?

A)

11.2

B)

5.6

C)

2.8

D)

8

View Answer
80) The set of quantum numbers\[n=4,l=0\text{ }m=0\] and\[s=+\frac{1}{2}\]correspond to the most loosely bound, ground state electron of which one of the following atoms?

A)

Na

B)

\[Cl\]

C)

Cr

D)

\[Rb\]

View Answer
81) The\[\beta \]decay of a radioactive element results in the formation of its

A)

isotope

B)

isobar

C)

isodiaphere

D)

nuclear isomer

View Answer
82) In the radioactive, decay, \[_{y}{{X}^{z}}{{\xrightarrow[{}]{(-8\text{ }\alpha \text{ }and\text{ }6\beta )}}_{82}}P{{b}^{2.6}},X,y\]and z are

A)

U, 92 and 235

B)

Th, 90 and 232

C)

Pu, 94 and 238

D)

U, 92 and 238

View Answer
83) In which one of the following equilibria, the increase of pressure over the equilibrium will favour the backward reaction?

A)

Decomposition equilibrium of\[HI\]

B)

Formation equilibrium of\[S{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

Decomposition equilibrium of\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

Formation equilibrium of\[PC{{l}_{5}}\]

View Answer
84) Which one of the following is the correct quadratic form of the Ostwalds dilution law equation?

A)

\[{{\alpha }^{2}}C+\alpha K-K=0\]

B)

\[{{\alpha }^{2}}C-\alpha K-K=0\]

C)

\[{{\alpha }^{2}}C-\alpha K+K=0\]

D)

\[{{\alpha }^{2}}C+\alpha K+K=0\]

View Answer
85) Which one of the following aqueous solutions of salts has the lowest, pH value?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COONa\]

B)

\[NaCl\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{4}}OOCC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]

View Answer
86) The solubility product of a sparingly soluble metal hydroxide\[M{{(OH)}^{2}}\]at 298 K is\[5\times {{10}^{-16}}\] \[mo{{l}^{3}}d{{m}^{-9}}\]. The pH value of its aqueous and saturated solution is

A)

5

B)

9

C)

11.5

D)

2.5

View Answer
87) In the synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen gases, if\[6\times {{10}^{-2}}\]moles of hydrogen disappears in 10 min, the number of moles of ammonia formed in 3 min is

A)

\[1.8\times {{10}^{-2}}\]

B)

\[1.2\times {{10}^{-2}}\]

C)

\[4.0\times {{10}^{-2}}\]

D)

\[3.6\times {{10}^{-2}}\]

View Answer
88) In a reversible reaction, the enthalpy change and the activation energy in the forward direction are respectively\[-x\text{ }kJmo{{l}^{-1}}\] and y \[kJmo{{l}^{-1}}\]. Therefore, the energy of activation in the backward direction, in\[kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\], is

A)

\[(y-x)\]

B)

\[(x+y)\]

C)

\[(x-y)\]

D)

\[-(x+y)\]

View Answer
89) The rate constant for a first order reaction is\[6.909\text{ }mi{{n}^{-1}}\]. Therefore, the time required, in minute, for the participation of 75% of the initial reactant is

A)

2/3 log 2

B)

2/3 log 4

C)

3/2 log 2

D)

3/2 log 4

View Answer
90) A solution with negative deviation among the following is

A)

ethanol-acetone

B)

chlorobenzene-bromobenzene

C)

chloroform-acetone

D)

benzene-toluene

View Answer
91) At 300 K, two pure liquids A and B have vapour pressures respectively 150 mm Hg and 100 mm Hg. In an equimolar liquid mixture of A and B, the mole fraction of B in the vapour mixture at this temperature is

A)

0.6

B)

0.5

C)

0.8

D)

0.4

View Answer
92) The molar mass of the solute sodium hydroxide obtained from the measurement of the osmotic pressure of its aqueous solution at\[{{27}^{o}}C\]is\[25g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. Therefore, its ionization percentage in this solution is

A)

75

B)

60

C)

80

D)

70

View Answer
93) 25 g of a solute of molar mass\[250\text{ }g\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\] is dissolved in 10 mL of water to obtain a solution whose density is\[1.25\text{ }g{{(mL)}^{-1}}\]. The molarity and molality of the solution are respectively

A)

0.75 M and 1 m

B)

0.8 M and 1 m

C)

1M and 0.8 m

D)

1 M and 0.75 m (e) None of the above

View Answer
94) The standard enthalpies of formation of\[A(N{{H}_{3}}),B(C{{O}_{2}}),C(HI)\]and\[D(S{{O}_{2}})\]are respectively\[-46.19,-393.4,+24.94\] and\[-296.9\]\[kJmo{{l}^{-1}}\]. The increasing order of their stability is

A)

\[B<D<A<C\]

B)

\[C<A<D<B\]

C)

\[D<B<C<A\]

D)

\[A<C<D<B\]

View Answer
95) When 400 mL of 0.2 N solution of a weak acid is neutralised by a dilute aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide under standard conditions, 4.4 kJ amount of heat is liberated. Therefore, the standard enthalpy of neutralisation of this weak acid in,\[kJ\text{ }equi{{v}^{-1}},\]is

A)

\[-\,11\]

B)

\[-\,44\]

C)

\[-\,55\]

D)

\[-\,22\]

View Answer
96) The incorrect statement among the following is

A)

The entropy of the universe remains constant

B)

Heat can be completely converted into work only under specified conditions

C)

The absolute entropy of a perfect crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero

D)

The total energy of an isolated system remains constant

View Answer
97) Which one of the following is always not negative?

A)

Enthalpy of combustion

B)

Enthalpy of formation

C)

Enthalpy of neutralization

D)

Lattice enthalpy

View Answer
98) The oxidation numbers of the sulphur atoms in peroxomonosulphuric acid\[({{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{5}})\]and peroxodisulphuric   acid\[({{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{8}})\]are respectively

A)

+8 and +7

B)

+3 and +3

C)

+6 and+6

D)

+4 and+6

View Answer
99) In the electrolysis of aqueous solution of\[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]using copper electrodes, the process taking place at the anode is

A)

\[SO_{4}^{2-}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}S{{O}_{4}}+2{{e}^{-}}\]

B)

\[Cu\xrightarrow{{}}C{{u}^{+}}+{{e}^{-}}\]

C)

\[2O{{H}^{-}}\xrightarrow{{}}{{H}_{2}}O+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}+2{{e}^{-}}\]

D)

\[Cu\xrightarrow{{}}C{{u}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}}\]

View Answer
100) The correct expression in SI system relating the equivalent   conductance\[({{\Lambda }_{c}}),\]specific conductance\[(k)\]and equivalent concentration is (where C is the number of gram-equivalents of the electrolyte in one litre of the solution)

A)

\[{{\Lambda }_{c}}=\frac{k}{C}\]

B)

\[{{\Lambda }_{c}}=k\times \frac{1000}{c}\]

C)

\[{{\Lambda }_{c}}=k\times \frac{{{10}^{-3}}}{c}\]

D)

\[{{\Lambda }_{c}}=k\times \frac{{{10}^{6}}}{c}\]

View Answer
101) The standard reduction electrode potentials of the three electrodes P, Q and R are respectively\[-1.76\text{ }V,\text{ }0.34\text{ }V\]and 0.8 V, then

A)

metal Q will displace the cation of P from its aqueous solution and deposit the metal P

B)

both metals Q and R will displace the cation of P from its aqueous solution and deposit the metal P

C)

metal R will displace the cation of P from its aqueous solution and deposit the metal P

D)

metal P will displace the cation of R from its aqueous solution and deposit the metal R

View Answer
102) If the ratio of the rates of diffusion of two gases A and B is 4:1, the ratio of their densities in the same order is

A)

16 : 1

B)

1 : 4

C)

4 : 1

D)

1 : 16

View Answer
103) The van der Waals constants for four gases P, Q, R and S are 4.17, 3.59, 6.71 and 3.8 atm\[{{L}^{2}}.mo{{l}^{-2}}\]. Therefore, the ascending order of their liquefaction is

A)

\[R<P<S<Q\]

B)

\[Q<S<R<P\]

C)

\[Q<S<P<R\]

D)

\[R<P<Q<S\]

View Answer
104) The unit cell of a binary alloy composed of A and B metals, has a ccp structure with A atoms? occupying the comers and B atoms occupying centres of each face of the cube. If during the crystallisation of this alloy, in the unit cell two A atoms are missed, the overall composition per unit cell is

A)

\[A{{B}_{6}}\]

B)

\[A{{B}_{4}}\]

C)

\[A{{B}_{8}}\]

D)

\[{{A}_{5}}{{B}_{24}}\]

View Answer
105) When an excess and a very dilute aqueous solution of\[KI\]is added to a very dilute aqueous solution of silver nitrate, the colloidal particles of silver iodide are associated with the Helmholtz double layer

A)

\[AgI:\text{ }A{{g}^{+}}:NO_{3}^{-}\]

B)

\[AgI:{{K}^{+}}:NO_{3}^{-}\]

C)

\[AgI:\text{ }NO_{3}^{-}:A{{g}^{+}}\]

D)

\[AgI:{{I}^{-}}:{{K}^{+}}\]

View Answer
106) In the Freundlichs adsorption isotherm equation \[\log \frac{x}{m}=\log k+\left( \frac{1}{n} \right)\log p,\]the value of n is

A)

any value from 0 to 1

B)

a negative integer

C)

a positive integer

D)

a positive or a negative fractional number

View Answer
107) The polymer used in the manufacture of orlon is

A)

PTFE

B)

PAN

C)

PMMA

D)

PVC

View Answer
108) Which one of the following is d-block element?

A)

Gd

B)

Hs

C)

Es

D)

Cs

View Answer
109) The atom of smallest atomic radius among the following is

A)

Na

B)

K

C)

Br

D)

Li

View Answer
110) The d orbital involved in the hybridisation in the\[PC{{l}_{5}}\]molecule is

A)

\[3{{d}_{{{x}^{2}}-{{y}^{2}}}}\]

B)

\[3{{d}_{{{z}^{2}}}}\]

C)

\[3{{d}_{xy}}\]

D)

\[4{{d}_{{{x}^{2}}-{{y}^{2}}}}\]

View Answer
111) The shape of\[XeO{{F}_{2}}\]on the basis of VSEPR theory is

A)

sea saw

B)

V-shaped

C)

trigonal planar

D)

T-shaped

View Answer
112) Among the following the molecule possessing highest dipole moment is

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

C)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

Trans 2-butene

View Answer
113) Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic?

A)

\[{{F}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{B}_{2}}\]

C)

\[L{{i}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

View Answer
114) Among the following the least thermally stable is

A)

\[{{K}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[BaC{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[L{{i}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
115) Which one of the following has the highest Lewis acid strength?

A)

\[B{{I}_{3}}\]

B)

\[BB{{r}_{3}}\]

C)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

D)

\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]

View Answer
116) The most powerful oxidising agent of the following is

A)

\[{{I}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{F}_{2}}\]

C)

\[B{{r}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
117) Which one of the following is non-reducing?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}Te\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}Se\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
118) The atom of which one of the following elements has the highest number of unpaired electrons?

A)

\[_{25}Mn\]

B)

\[_{24}Cr\]

C)

\[_{96}Cm\]

D)

\[_{26}Fe\]

View Answer
119) The ion of least magnetic moment among the following is

A)

\[T{{i}^{3+}}\]

B)

\[N{{i}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[C{{o}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[M{{n}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
120) The composition of Bell metal is

A)

Cu (80%), Zn (20%)

B)

Cu (60%), Ni (40%)

C)

Cu (90%), Sn (10%)

D)

Cu (80%), Sn (20%)

View Answer
121) The amphoteric oxide among the following is

A)

\[C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[M{{n}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

C)

\[{{V}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[CrO\]

View Answer
122) The coordination compound of which one of the following compositions will produce two equivalents of\[AgCl\]on reaction with aqueous silver nitrate solution?

A)

\[CoC{{l}_{3}}.3N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[CoC{{l}_{3}}.6N{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[CoC{{l}_{3}}.4N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[CoC{{l}_{3}}.5N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
123) The optically active coordination complex ion among the following is

A)

\[trans{{[Co{{(en)}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}]}^{+}}\]

B)

\[cis{{[Co(en){{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

D)

\[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{3-}}\]

View Answer
124) Which one of the following complex ions has the highest magnetic moment?

A)

\[{{[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

B)

\[{{[Fe(C{{N}_{6}})]}^{3-}}\]

C)

\[{{[Fe(C{{N}_{6}})]}^{4-}}\]

D)

\[{{[Zn{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
125) The non-existant metal carbonyl among the following is

A)

\[Cr{{(CO)}_{6}}\]

B)

\[Mn{{(CO)}_{5}}\]

C)

\[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}\]

D)

\[Fe{{(CO)}_{5}}\]

View Answer
126) The auto reduction process is not used in the metallurgy of

A)

\[Hg\]

B)

\[Cu\]

C)

\[Pb\]

D)

\[Fe\]

View Answer
127) The incorrect statement among the following is

A)

hydrogen is used to reduce\[NiO\]

B)

zirconium is refined by van-Arkel method

C)

the sulphide ore galena is concentrated by hydraulic washing process

D)

in the metallurgy of iron, the flux used is \[Si{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
128) The percentage of carbon in cast iron is

A)

5-10

B)

0.25-2.5

C)

2.5-4.5

D)

0.12-0.2

View Answer
129) The IUPAC name of the molecule \[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} O \\ || \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,=\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} O \\ || \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-OH\]

A)

4-oxo-2, 3-dimethyl pent-2-en-l-oic acid

B)

2-carboxy-3 methyl pent-2-en-3-one

C)

4-carboxy-3 methyl pent-3-en-2-one

D)

2, 3-dimethyM-oxo pent-2-en-l-oic-acid

View Answer
130) The ascending order of stability of the carbanion\[\overline{C}{{H}_{3}}(P),{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\overline{C}{{H}_{2}}(Q),\] \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\overline{C}H(R)\]and\[{{H}_{2}}\overline{C}-CH=C{{H}_{2}}(S)\] is

A)

\[P<R<S<Q\]

B)

\[R<P<S<Q\]

C)

\[R<P<Q<S\]

D)

\[P<R<Q<S\]

View Answer
131) The descending order of stability of the carbonium ions \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\overset{+}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,(I),p(C{{H}_{3}}O){{C}_{6}}{{H}_{4}}\overset{+}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,(II),p(N{{O}_{2}})\] \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{4}}\overset{+}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,(III)\,and\,p(C{{H}_{3}}){{C}_{6}}{{H}_{4}}\overset{+}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,(IV)\]is

A)

\[IV>II>I>III\]

B)

\[II>IV>III>I\]

C)

\[II>IV>I>III\]

D)

\[IV>II>III>I\]

View Answer
132) Which one of the following is aromatic?

A)

Cyclopentadienyl cation

B)

Cyclooctatetraene

C)

Cycloheptatriene

D)

Cycloheptatrienylcation

View Answer
133) The total number of acyclic structural and optical isomers possible for a hydrocarbon of molecular formula\[{{C}_{7}}{{H}_{16}}\]is

A)

12

B)

8

C)

10

D)

6

View Answer
134) The optical rotaion of an optically active compound is

A)

directly proportional to the length of the polanmeter tube only

B)

directly proportional to the molar concentration of the compound

C)

independent of the length of the polanmeter tube and concentration of the compound

D)

directly proportional to both the length of the polarimeter tube and the molar concentration of the compound

View Answer
135) The absolute configurations of the\[{{C}_{2}}\]and\[{{C}_{3}}\] atoms in the molecule with the structure is

A)

25, 35

B)

2R, 3S

C)

2S, 3R

D)

2R, 3R

View Answer
136) Hydration of which one of the following yields a ketone?

A)

Propyne

B)

Ethene

C)

Propene

D)

Ethyne

View Answer
137) The most easily hydrolysed molecule under \[{{S}_{N}}1\]conditions is

A)

allyl chloride

B)

ethyl chloride

C)

isopropyi chloride

D)

benzyl chloride

View Answer
138) The most acidic among the following is

A)

p-cresol

B)

o-cresol

C)

p-nitrophenol

D)

p-chlorophenol

View Answer
139) Which one of the following does not undergo iodoform reaction?

A)

Secondary butyl alcohol

B)

Iso-propyi alcohol

C)

Diethyl ketone

D)

Ethyl alcohol

View Answer
140) Glycerol on oxidation with bismuth nitrate forms

A)

mesooxalic acid

B)

glyceraldehyde

C)

dihydroxy acetone

D)

tartronic acid

View Answer
141) Among the following, the alkene on ozonolysis giving rise to only one aldehyde as the product

A)

1-butene

B)

propene

C)

2-butene

D)

2-methyl-prop-1-ene

View Answer
142) Which one of the following does not form sodium bisulphite addition product with sodium bisulphite solution?

A)

\[C{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CHO\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

View Answer
143) The carboxylic acid of least strength among the following is

A)

p-nitrobenzoic acid

B)

p-methylbenzoic acid

C)

p-chlorobenzoic acid

D)

p-methoxybenzoic acid

View Answer
144) The most reactive of the following is

A)

acetone

B)

benzophenone

C)

benzaldehyde

D)

acetaldehyde

View Answer
145) Which of the following is not a resonating form of benzaldehyde?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
146) The compound that does not undergo Hell-Volhard Zeiinsky reaction is

A)

ethanoic acid

B)

propionic acid

C)

Lso-butyric acid

D)

trichloroacetic acid

View Answer
147) Nitrobenzene can be converted into hydrazobenzene by reduction with

A)

Zn and alcoholic\[NaOH\]

B)

Zn and aqueous\[NaOH\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]and alcoholic\[KOH\]

D)

\[Zn\]and\[HCl\]

View Answer
148) Which of the following compounds gives carbylamine test?

A)

N-methyl-o-methyl aniline

B)

N, N-dimethyl aniline

C)

2, 4-diethyl aniline

D)

p-methyl-N-methyl benzylamine

View Answer
149) By which of the following reagents, both the aldehyde and the primary alcoholic group of glucose are oxidised?

A)

Toilers reagent

B)

\[B{{r}_{2}}+{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

All of these

View Answer
150) Lactoflavin is

A)

vitamin\[{{B}_{1}}\]

B)

vitamin C

C)

vitamin\[{{B}_{3}}\]

D)

vitamin\[{{B}_{2}}\]

View Answer
151) Which one is the correct heirarchial order in Taxonomy?

A)

Genus < species < class < order

B)

Genus < class < order < family

C)

Species < order < class < phylum

D)

Genus < class < division < order

View Answer
152) Systematic botany means

A)

system analysis

B)

systematic arrangement of organs of plants

C)

systematic study of organelles and tissues

D)

methodical study of plants, dealing with identification, naming and classification

View Answer
153) The kingdom of prokaryotes is

A)

Protista

B)

Monera

C)

Fungi

D)

Plantae

View Answer
154) The non-living characteristic of viruses is

A)

ability to multiply only inside the host

B)

ability to cause diseases in the host

C)

ability to undergo mutation

D)

ability to be crystallized

View Answer
155) The term bacteria was coined by

A)

Leeuwenhoek

B)

Louis Pasteur

C)

Robert Koch

D)

Ehrenberg

View Answer
156) The Prayer sanctuary is located in

A)

Kerala

B)

Tamil Nadu

C)

Karnataka

D)

Andhra Pradesh

View Answer
157) The photosynthetic or assimilatory roots are observed in

A)

Banyan

B)

Vanda

C)

Cuscuta

D)

Tinospora

View Answer
158) The bladder serving as floats and for trapping insects is found in

A)

Zizyphus

B)

Utriculari

C)

Nephenthes

D)

Acacia

View Answer
159) The order of opening of flower parts from the periphery towards the centre is called

A)

acropetal

B)

centripetal

C)

centrifugal

D)

basipetal

View Answer
160) Tobacco and Petunia belong to the family

A)

Poaceae

B)

Fabaceae

C)

Solanaceae

D)

Brassicaceae

View Answer
161) Simple, cluster of radial leaves, stipulate and parallel venation leaves and cyme or umbel inflorescence are the characteristics of

A)

Poaceae

B)

Liliaceae

C)

Asteraceae

D)

Fabaceae

View Answer
162) The gene, which controls many characters is called

A)

codominant gene

B)

poly gene

C)

pleiotropic gene

D)

multiple gene

View Answer
163) Which of the following movements in plants is related to the changes in the auxin level?

A)

Movement of shoot towards the source of light

B)

Nyctinasty

C)

Movement of sunflower towards sun

D)

All of the above

View Answer
164) Embryo developed from the somatic cells are called

A)

cybrids

B)

embryoid

C)

cellus

D)

hybrids

View Answer
165) Vegetative fertilization is also called

A)

triple fusion

B)

true fertilization

C)

syngamy

D)

generative fertilization

View Answer
166) Vivipary is observed in

A)

Banyan

B)

Bryophyllum

C)

Ipomoea

D)

Rhizophora

View Answer
167)  The       scientist, who performed             some experiments with oat coleoptiles for the presence of a substance which could diffuse into agar blocks is

A)

Ganong

B)

Went

C)

Boysen-Jensen

D)

Fujikura

View Answer
168) Micropyle is useful for the entry of

A)

pollen grain

B)

pollen tube

C)

water

D)

male gamete

View Answer
169) Abcisic acid is primarily synthesized in

A)

lysosomes

B)

Golgi complex

C)

chloroplast

D)

ribosomes

View Answer
170)  Which one of the following inhibit seed germination for a particular period?

A)

Light

B)

Water

C)

Carbon dioxide

D)

Dormancy

View Answer
171) Flocculation or coagulation of protoplasm is the

A)

interchangeability between sol and gel states

B)

ability to scatter the beam of light

C)

erratic zig-zag movement of protoplasmic particles

D)

ability of protoplasm to increase in size when they lose charges

View Answer
172) Plasmolysis is the result of

A)

exosmosis

B)

endosmosis

C)

reverse osmosis

D)

diffusion

View Answer
173) Which one is incorrect statement?

A)

Movement of water is expressed in terms of free energy

B)

Free energy determines the direction by which physical and chemical changes should occur

C)

Water potential is the sum of free energy of water molecules in pure water and in any other system

D)

Water potential of pure water is zero

View Answer
174) Ascent of sap in plants was demonstrated by

A)

Girdling experiment

B)

Ganongs experiment

C)

Went experiment

D)

Lever auxanometer

View Answer
175) Cohesion and adhesion theory is otherwise called

A)

relay pump theory

B)

pulsation theory

C)

root pressure theory

D)

transpiration pull theory

View Answer
176) Molybdenum is the essential constituent of

A)

nitrogenase

B)

respiratory chain

C)

growth regulators

D)

chlorophyll

View Answer
177) Which one is true about guttation?

A)

It occurs through specialized pores called hydathodes

B)

It occurs in herbaceous plants when root pressure is low and transpiration is high

C)

It only occur during the day time

D)

It occurs in plants growing under conditions of low soil moisture and high humidity

View Answer
178) Which one does not occur in cyclic photophosphorylation?

A)

Oxygen is not given off

B)

Water is not consumed

C)

Only photosystem-I is involved

D)

\[NADP{{H}_{2}}\] formation

View Answer
179) Chlorophyll-a and b differ in having

A)

Chlorophyll-a has an methyl group and chlorophyll-b has aldehyde group in position X

B)

Chlorophyll-a has an aldehyde group and chlorophyll-b has a methyl group in position X

C)

Chlorophyll-a has a carboxyl group and chlorophyll-b has an aldehyde group in position X

D)

Chlorophyll-a has an ethyl group and chlorophyll-b has an aldehyde group in position X

View Answer
180) The assemblage of all the populations of different species that function as an integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is called

A)

biome

B)

biotic community

C)

population

D)

ecosystem

View Answer
181) Genetically adapted population to a particular habitat is called

A)

ecotone

B)

ecotype

C)

biome

D)

niche

View Answer
182) Which one is the edaphic factor in biosphere?

A)

Light

B)

Temperature

C)

Water

D)

Soil

View Answer
183) \[C{{O}_{2}},C{{H}_{4}},{{N}_{2}}O\] and CFCs are called green-house gases because they absorb and emit

A)

UV rays

B)

heat rays

C)

X rays

D)

gamma rays

View Answer
184) In plant succession, when climax community is reached, the net productivity

A)

continues to increase

B)

becomes zero

C)

becomes reduced

D)

becomes stable

View Answer
185) The species of plants that play a vital role in controlling the relative abundance of other species in a community are called

A)

edge species

B)

key stone species

C)

pioneer species

D)

serial species

View Answer
186) Ratio between mortality and natality is called

A)

population ratio

B)

vital index

C)

density coefficient

D)

census ratio

View Answer
187) Which one is not the renewable energy of natural resources?

A)

Tidal energy

B)

Wind energy

C)

Fossil fuel

D)

Solar energy

View Answer
188) Choanocytes form the lining of paragastral cavity in

A)

jelly fish

B)

sponges

C)

helminthes

D)

echinoderms

View Answer
189) Siphonophora is the order in

A)

Protozoa

B)

Cnidaria

C)

Porifera

D)

Annelida

View Answer
190) The second largest number of species containing phylum in the animal kingdom is

A)

Annelida

B)

Arthropoda

C)

Mollusca

D)

Chordata

View Answer
191) Limbless amphibians are called

A)

paddle worms

B)

glow worms

C)

caecilian worms

D)

pin worms

View Answer
192) The second largest aquatic vertebrate is

A)

blue whale

B)

whale shark

C)

sea elephant

D)

dugongs

View Answer
193) The snake eating snake is

A)

black cobra

B)

king cobra

C)

rattle snake

D)

anaconda

View Answer
194) The layer of cells forming tissue that appears to be multilayered but actually some of the cells extend from the basement membrane to the surface is

A)

simple columnar epithelium

B)

pseudo stratified epithelium

C)

stratified columnar epithelium

D)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

View Answer
195) Haversian lamellae are the structures found in

A)

hyaline cartilage

B)

fibrous cartilage

C)

bone marrow

D)

myelin sheath

View Answer
196) The malnutrition disease in man is

A)

Cri du chat syndrome

B)

Klinefelter syndrome

C)

Potbelly syndrome

D)

Edward syndrome

View Answer
197) Which one is not true about vitamins?

A)

Vitamins are organic catalysts

B)

Vitamins are indispensable for life

C)

Vitamins act as a source of energy

D)

Tocopherol b anti sterility vitamin

View Answer
198) The process of resynthesis of food materials from simpler food molecules is called

A)

biosynthesis

B)

catabolism

C)

absorption

D)

assimilation

View Answer
199) The conversion of dangerous nitrogenous waste into less toxic excretory matter is carried out in man in the

A)

blood

B)

liver

C)

kidney

D)

skin

View Answer
200) The total number of lobes and alveoli present in both the lungs of man are

A)

17 and 30 millions, respectively

B)

5 and 300 millions, respectively

C)

19 and 300 millions, respectively

D)

18 and 300 lakh, respectively

View Answer
201) The hormones oxytocin and vasopressin are secreted by

A)

neurohypophysis

B)

adenohypophysis

C)

hypothalamus

D)

adrenal medulla

View Answer
202) When the stimulus reaches the end of one neuron, it is conducted to the adjacent neuron through the secretions of

A)

acetaldehyde

B)

acetylcholine

C)

acetylcholine esterase

D)

acetyl Co-A

View Answer
203) The fusion of male and female pronuclear of the gametes is called

A)

fertilization

B)

conjugation

C)

amphimixis

D)

panmixis

View Answer
204) Long flattened, usually unbranched units arranged in parallel stacks in endoplasmic reticulum are called

A)

cisternae

B)

cristae

C)

vesicles

D)

tubules

View Answer
205) TCA cycle enzymes are present in

A)

cytoplasm

B)

inter membrane space of mitochondria

C)

mitochondrial matrix

D)

inner membrane of mitochondria

View Answer
206) In cellular respiration the final acceptor molecule of electron is

A)

NAD

B)

FAD

C)

NADP

D)

Oxygen

View Answer
207) Which one is not the nonsense codon?

A)

UAA

B)

UGA

C)

UCA

D)

UAG

View Answer
208) Which one is referred to as soluble RNA?

A)

mRNA

B)

tRNA

C)

rRNA

D)

ssRNA

View Answer
209) The autonomously independent self replicating extra nuclear DNA imparting certain factors to some bacterium is called

A)

plastid

B)

plasmid

C)

phagemid

D)

cosmid

View Answer
210) In microbial genetics, which one is referred to as Griffith effect?

A)

Conjugation

B)

Transduction

C)

Transformation

D)

Sexduction

View Answer
211) The phenotypic ratio in the \[{{F}_{2}}\]generation of dihybrid cross is

A)

9 : 3 : 3 :1

B)

1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1

C)

7 : 1 : 1 : 7

D)

12 : 8 : 4

View Answer
212) Which one is regarded as a molecular scissor in biotechnology?

A)

Reverse transcriptase

B)

Restriction endonuclease

C)

Taq polymerase

D)

Topoisomerase

View Answer
213) Which one does not conform to the theory of biogenesis?

A)

Francisco red is experiment

B)

Spallanzanis experiment

C)

Louis Pasteurs experiment

D)

Von Helmonts experiment

View Answer
214) Urey-Millers experiment mixture had the following except

A)

methane

B)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

hydrogen

D)

water vapour

View Answer
215) Among the following which one is the mutagenic agent?

A)

Visible light

B)

Penicillin

C)

Formalin

D)

Water vapour

View Answer
216) Ontogeny Recapitulates Phylogeny is narrated in which of the evidences for organic evolution?

A)

Palaeontological evidence

B)

Physiological evidence

C)

Embryological evidence

D)

Anatomical evidence

View Answer
217) Which one of the following was not explained by the Darwinism?

A)

Natural selection

B)

Struggle for existence

C)

Arrival of the fittest

D)

Origin of species

View Answer
218) The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

A)

Ramapithecus-Australo pithecus-Homo habilis-Homo erectus

B)

Australopithecus-Ramapithecus-Homo habilis -Homo erectus

C)

Pithecanthropus pekinensis-Homo habilis- Homo erectus

D)

Australopithecus-Ramapithecus-Pithecant hropus pekinensis-Homo erectus

View Answer
219) Phenomenal and rapid increase of population in a short period is called

A)

natural increase

B)

population growth

C)

population explosion

D)

None of the above

View Answer
220) Amphetamines are the drugs of

A)

narcotics

B)

sedatives

C)

stimulants

D)

hallucinogens

View Answer
221) Cyclosporin and endosporins are the drugs that are used as

A)

anti retro viral drugs

B)

immuno-suppressants

C)

immuno-modulators

D)

immuno-vaccines

View Answer
222) The tests that are used in the diagnosis of AIDS are

A)

ELISA and immunoblot

B)

Northern blot and ELISA

C)

ELISA and southern blot

D)

Western blot and ELISA

View Answer
223) Which of the following causes prostate cancer?

A)

Chromium

B)

Cadmium oxide

C)

Vinyl chloride

D)

Aflatoxins

View Answer
224) Magic bullets are the

A)

recombinant vaccines

B)

monoclonal antibodies

C)

chemotherapy drugs for cancer

D)

anabolic steroids

View Answer
225) The interferons are

A)

antibacterial drugs

B)

antiviral drugs

C)

antibiotic drugs

D)

immunosuppressive drugs

View Answer