Solved papers for VMMC VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2012

VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2012 Total Questions - 200

1) A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period \[0.2\pi s.\] The acceleration of the particle is

A)

\[25\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[36\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[5\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[15\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
2) If power dissipated in the \[9\,\Omega \]resistor in the circuit shown in 36W, the potential difference across the \[2\,\Omega \] resistor is

A)

8 V

B)

10 V

C)

2 V

D)

4 V

View Answer
3) A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph correctly depicts the position of the particle as a function of time?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
4) A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is

A)

10 mA

B)

15 mA

C)

20 mA

D)

5 mA

View Answer
5) A thin prism of angle \[\text{1}{{\text{5}}^{\text{o}}}\] made of glass of refractive index \[{{\mu }_{1}}=1.5\]is combined with another prism of glass of refractive index \[{{\mu }_{2}}=1.75\]The combination of the prism produces dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism should be

A)

\[{{7}^{o}}\]

B)

\[{{10}^{o}}\]

C)

\[{{12}^{o}}\]

D)

\[{{5}^{o}}\]

View Answer
6) A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is \[\mu =0.5\]The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it taking \[g=10\,m{{s}^{-2}},\]is

A)

1.2m

B)

0.6m

C)

Zero

D)

0.4 m

View Answer
7) An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of \[2\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}.\]The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is \[100\,\text{kg}{{\text{m}}^{-1}}.\] What is the power of the engine?

A)

400W

B)

200W

C)

100 W

D)

800 W

View Answer
8) A thin ring of radius R metre has charge q coulomb uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates about its axis with a constant frequency of\[f\]revolution/s. The value of magnetic induction in \[\text{Wb}{{\text{m}}^{-2}}\]at the centre of the ring is

A)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}qf}{2\pi R}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}q}{2\pi fR}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}q}{2fR}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}qf}{2R}\]

View Answer
9) Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and whose electrical conductivity decreases with temperature and has high melting point?

A)

Metallic bonding

B)

Van der Waals bonding

C)

Ionic bonding

D)

Covalent bonding

View Answer
10) A particle moves a distance \[x\] in time t according to equation \[x={{(t+5)}^{-1}}.\]The acceleration of particle is proportional to

A)

\[{{(\text{velocity})}^{3/2}}\]

B)

\[{{(distance)}^{2}}\]

C)

\[{{(distance)}^{-2}}\]

D)

\[{{(velocity)}^{2/3}}\]

View Answer
11) A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of \[\text{1}\,\text{mm}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}.\] The induced emfwhen the radius is 2 cm, is

A)

\[2\pi \mu \,V\]

B)

\[\pi \mu \,V\]

C)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}\mu V\]

D)

\[2\mu V\]

View Answer
12) The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as \[{{N}_{0}}\]counts per minute at \[t=0\]and \[{{N}_{0}}/e\]counts per minute at t = 5 min. The time (in minute)- at which the activity reduces to half its value is

A)

\[{{\log }_{e}}2/5\]

B)

\[\frac{5}{{{\log }_{e}}2}\]

C)

\[5\,{{\log }_{10}}2\]

D)

\[5\,{{\log }_{e}}2\]

View Answer
13) The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is

A)

\[{{60}^{o}}\]

B)

\[{{15}^{o}}\]

C)

\[{{30}^{o}}\]

D)

\[{{45}^{o}}\]

View Answer
14) From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of mass M and radius \[\frac{R}{3}\]is removed concentrically. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through its centre is

A)

\[\frac{40}{9}M{{R}^{2}}\]

B)

\[M{{R}^{2}}\]

C)

\[4M{{R}^{2}}\]

D)

\[\frac{4}{9}M{{R}^{2}}\]

View Answer
15) A particle moves in \[x-y\]plane according to rule \[x=a\sin \omega t\]and \[y=a\cos \omega t.\]The particle follows

A)

an elliptical path

B)

a circular path

C)

a parabolic path

D)

a straight line path inclined equally to \[x\] and y-axes

View Answer
16) A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section \[1.5\times {{10}^{-4}}{{m}^{2}}\]carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field \[5\times {{10}^{-2}}\]making an angle of \[{{30}^{o}}\] with the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be

A)

\[3\times {{10}^{-3}}N-m\]

B)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{-3}}N-m\]

C)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{-2}}N-m\]

D)

\[3\times {{10}^{-2}}N-m\]

View Answer
17) The decay constant of a radio isotope is \[\lambda .\] If \[{{A}_{1}}\]and \[{{A}_{2}}\]are its activities at times \[{{t}_{1}}\]and \[{{t}_{2}}\]respectively, the number of nuclei which have decayed during the time \[({{t}_{1}}-{{t}_{2}})\]

A)

\[{{A}_{1}}{{t}_{1}}-{{A}_{2}}{{t}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{A}_{1}}-{{A}_{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{({{A}_{1}}-{{A}_{2}})}{\lambda }\]

D)

\[\lambda ({{A}_{1}}-{{A}_{2}})\]

View Answer
18) Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance is

A)

\[>1\]

B)

\[<1\]

C)

Zero

D)

1

View Answer
19) What is the angular velocity of earth?

A)

\[\frac{2\pi }{86400}\text{rad/s}\]

B)

\[\frac{2\pi }{3600}\text{rad/s}\]

C)

\[\frac{2\pi }{24}rad/s\]

D)

\[\frac{2\pi }{6400}\text{rad/s}\]

View Answer
20) What is the refractive index of a prism whose angle \[A={{60}^{o}}\]and angle of minimum deviation \[{{d}_{m}}={{30}^{o}}\]?

A)

\[\sqrt{2}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]

C)

1

D)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\]

View Answer
21) A satellite of mass m is placed at a distance r from the centre of earth (mass M). The mechanical energy of the satellite is

A)

\[-\frac{GMm}{r}\]

B)

\[\frac{GMm}{r}\]

C)

\[\frac{GMm}{2r}\]

D)

\[-\frac{GMm}{2r}\]

View Answer
22) A cell of constant emf first connected to a resistance \[{{R}_{1}}\]and then connected to a resistance \[{{R}_{2}}.\]If power delivered in both cases is same then the internal resistance of the cell is

A)

\[\sqrt{{{R}_{1}}{{R}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{\frac{{{R}_{1}}}{{{R}_{2}}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{R}_{1}}-{{R}_{2}}}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{R}_{1}}+{{R}_{2}}}{2}\]

View Answer
23) Energy gap between valence band and conduction band of a semiconductor is

A)

Zero

B)

infinite

C)

1 eV

D)

10 eV

View Answer
24) A glass flask having mass 390 g and an interior volume of \[\text{500 c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{3}}}\]floats on water when it is less than half filled with water. The density of the material of the flask is

A)

0.8 g/cc

B)

2.8 g/cc

C)

1.8 g/cc

D)

0.28 g/cc

View Answer
25) The angle of minimum deviation \[{{\delta }_{m}}\] for an equilateral glass prism is \[\text{3}{{\text{0}}^{\text{o}}}\text{.}\] Refractive index of the prism is

A)

\[1/\sqrt{2}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{2}\]

C)

\[2\sqrt{2}\]

D)

\[1/2\sqrt{2}\]

View Answer
26) When the wavelength of sound changes from 1 m to 1.01 m, the number of beats heard are 4. The velocity of sound is

A)

404 m/s

B)

4.04 m/s

C)

414 m/s

D)

400 m/s

View Answer
27) At what height h above earth, the value of g becomes g/2? (R = Radius of earth)

A)

\[3R\]

B)

\[\sqrt{2}R\]

C)

\[(\sqrt{2}-1)R\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}R\]

View Answer
28) A freshly prepared radioactive source of half-life 2h emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe level. Calculate the minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with this source.

A)

12 h

B)

24 h

C)

6 h

D)

130 h

View Answer
29) The current in the circuit shown in the figure considering ideal diode is

A)

75N

B)

\[80\,N\]

C)

\[7.5\,N\]

D)

\[30\,N\]

View Answer
30) The tension in the string in the pulley system shown in the figure is

A)

75N

B)

80N

C)

7.5 N

D)

30 N

View Answer
31) The rest mass of a body is rriQ, if it moves with a velocity of 0.6 c, then its relativistic mass is m, then

A)

\[m<{{m}_{0}}\]

B)

\[m={{m}_{0}}\]

C)

\[m>{{m}_{0}}\]

D)

None of theses

View Answer
32) What is the potential difference across \[2\mu F\] capacitor in the circuit shown?

A)

12 V

B)

4 V

C)

6V

D)

18 V

View Answer
33) Solar radiation is

A)

transverse electromagnetic wave

B)

longitudinal electromagnetic wave

C)

stationary wave

D)

None of the above

View Answer
34) Fundamental frequency of an open pipe is\[{{f}_{0}}\] Fundamental frequency when it is half filled with water is

A)

\[{{f}_{0}}\]

B)

\[{{f}_{0}}/2\]

C)

\[2{{f}_{0}}\]

D)

\[3f\]

View Answer
35) If the rms velocity of a gas is v, then

A)

\[{{v}^{2}}T=\] constant

B)

\[{{v}^{2}}/T=\]constant

C)

\[v{{T}^{2}}=\]constant

D)

v is independent of T

View Answer
36) Which one of the following statement is false?

A)

Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor

B)

Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes

C)

Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons

D)

The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature

View Answer
37) The displacement of a particle along the \[x-\]axis is given by \[x=a{{\sin }^{2}}\omega t.\]The motion of the particle corresponds to

A)

simple harmonic motion of frequency\[\omega /\pi \]

B)

simple harmonic motion of frequency\[3\omega /2\pi \]

C)

non simple harmonic motion

D)

simple harmonic motion of frequency\[\omega /2\pi \]

View Answer
38) The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the earth are 4R and R, respectively If the speed of satellite A is 3v, then the speed of satellite B will be

A)

\[3v/4\]

B)

\[6v\]

C)

\[12v\]

D)

\[3v/2\]

View Answer
39) A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E) and magnetic fields . The fields are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by

A)

\[\frac{{{B}^{2}}}{2V{{E}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{2V{{B}^{2}}}{{{E}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{2V{{E}^{2}}}{{{B}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{E}^{2}}}{2V{{B}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
40) A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 s another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18 s. What is the value of v?(Take \[g=10\,m{{s}^{-2}}\])

A)

\[74\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[64\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[84\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[94\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
41) An alpha nucleus of energy \[\frac{1}{2}m{{v}^{2}}\]bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to

A)

\[\frac{1}{Ze}\]

B)

\[{{v}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{m}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{{{v}^{4}}}\]

View Answer
42) A lens having focal length \[f\] and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity \[I.\] Aperture of diameter \[\frac{d}{2}\] in central region of 2i lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will be respectively

A)

\[f\]and \[\frac{I}{4}\]

B)

\[\frac{3f}{4}\]and \[\frac{I}{2}\]

C)

\[f\]and \[\frac{3I}{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{f}{2}\]and \[\frac{I}{2}\]

View Answer
43) A galvanometer has a coil of resistance m \[100\,\Omega \] and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 V range, the resistance required to be added will be

A)

\[900\,\Omega \]

B)

\[1800\,\Omega \]

C)

\[500\,\Omega \]

D)

\[100\,\Omega \]

View Answer
44) A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity \[\omega .\] A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is \[\mu .\] The coin will revolve with the record if

A)

\[r=\mu g{{\omega }^{2}}\]

B)

\[r<\frac{{{\omega }^{2}}}{\mu g}\]

C)

\[r\le \frac{\mu g}{{{\omega }^{2}}}\]

D)

\[r\ge \frac{\mu g}{{{\omega }^{2}}}\]

View Answer
45) Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?

A)

Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time

B)

The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors

C)

Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave

D)

These waves do not require any material medium for propagation

View Answer
46) Assertion Magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge. Reason A moving charge produces a magnetic field.

A)

If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
47) Assertion There is no current in the metals in the absence of electric field. Reason Motion of free electrons are randomly.

A)

If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
48) Assertion Particle velocity and wave velocity both are independent of time. Reason For the propagation of wave motion, the medium must have the properties of elasticity and inertia.

A)

If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
49) Assertion For higher temperature, the peak emission wavelength of a black body shifts to lower wavelength. Reason Peak emission wavelength of a black body is proportional to the fourth power of temperature.

A)

If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
50) Assertion Displacement of a body may be zero when distance travelled by it is not zero. Reason The displacement is the longer distance between initial and final position.

A)

If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
51) Diborane reacts with ammonia under different conditions to give a variety of products. Which one amo ng the following is not formed in these reactions?

A)

\[{{B}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}.2N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{B}_{12}}{{H}_{12}}\]

C)

\[{{B}_{3}}{{N}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}\]

D)

\[{{(BN)}_{n}}\]

View Answer
52) Helium mixed with oxygen is used in the treatment of

A)

beri beri

B)

burning feet

C)

joints burning

D)

asthma

View Answer
53) Which one of the following of 2, 3-butane idol is enantiomeric?

A)

2R, 3R and 2S, 3S

B)

2S, 3S and 25, 3R

C)

2R, 3R and 2R, 35

D)

2S, 3S and 2R, 35

View Answer
54) The AT/GC ratio in human beings is (where A = adenine, T = thymine, G = Guanine, C = cytosine)

A)

1

B)

1.52

C)

9.3

D)

2

View Answer
55) If \[BaC{{l}_{2}}\]ionizes to an extent of 80% in aqueous solution, the value of vant Hoff factor is

A)

2.6

B)

0.24

C)

0.8

D)

2.4

View Answer
56) The \[s{{p}^{3}}\]hybridisation is present on the central atom in

A)

HCHO

B)

\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[PC{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

\[S{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
57) The number of unit cells in the 5.85g crystals of NaCI are

A)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{23}}\]

B)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{22}}\]

C)

\[3.0\times {{10}^{22}}\]

D)

\[3.0\times {{10}^{23}}\]

View Answer
58) The oxidation number of sulphur is -1 in

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

B)

\[Fe{{S}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{S}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{u}_{2}}S\]

View Answer
59) For which of the following metals, the electronic configuration of valence shell is not\[{{d}^{6}}\]?

A)

Fe (II)

B)

Mn (II)

C)

Co (III)

D)

Ni (IV)

View Answer
60) 68 g sugar \[({{C}_{12}}{{H}_{22}}{{O}_{11}})\] is dissolved in 1 kg of water. What is the mole fraction of sugar?

A)

0.018

B)

0.036

C)

0.0018

D)

0.0036

View Answer
61) The pH of 0.1 M aqueous ammonia\[({{K}_{b}}=1.8\times {{10}^{-5}})\]is

A)

9.13

B)

10.13

C)

11.13

D)

12.13

View Answer
62) From the following mixtures, which is not a buffer (concentration level 0.5 M)?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH+NaOH(2:1)\]

B)

\[HCl+N{{H}_{3}}(aq)(1:2)\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH+NaOH(1:2)\]

D)

\[HCl+N{{H}_{3}}(2:3)\]

View Answer
63) How much volume (in litre) of 3 M NaOH is obtained from 80 g NaOH? (Atomic mass of Na = 23 u)

A)

2.67

B)

1.34

C)

0.67

D)

0.33

View Answer
64) The initial concentration of sugar solution is 0.12M. On doing fermentation the concentration of sugar decreases to 0.06 M in 10 h and to 0.045 M in 15 h. The order of the reaction is

A)

0.5

B)

1.0

C)

1.5

D)

2.0

View Answer
65) For the decomposition of \[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]into \[{{N}_{2}}O\]and \[{{O}_{2}}\] in the presence of Ar, the velocity constant, k is                          \[k=5\times {{10}^{11}}{{e}^{-30,000/T}}\]For this, the activation energy is (in \[\text{kJ}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{-1}}\])

A)

2.494

B)

24.94

C)

249.42

D)

2494

View Answer
66) The following equilibrium establishes on heating 0.2 mole of H2 and 1.0 mole of sulphur in 1 L vessel at \[90{{\,}^{o}}C.\] \[{{H}_{2}}(g)+S(s)\rightleftharpoons {{H}_{2}}S(g);K=6.8\times {{10}^{-2}}\] The partial pressure of \[{{H}_{2}}S\]in equilibrium state is

A)

4.20

B)

0.42

C)

0.21

D)

0.042

View Answer
67) An aqueous solution boils at \[100.2{{\,}^{o}}C.\]which temperature this will freeze? \[({{K}_{b}}=0.5{{\,}^{o}}C/m,{{K}_{f}}=1.9{{\,}^{o}}C/m)\]

A)

\[+\,0.76\]

B)

\[-\,0.76\]

C)

\[-\,0.38\]

D)

\[+\,0.38\]

View Answer
68) The lowest \[p{{K}_{a}}\] value is for

A)

phenol

B)

m-cresol

C)

o-cresol

D)

p-cresol

View Answer
69) At room temperature, the least stable compound is

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COCl\]

B)

\[HCOCl\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

D)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}}CO)}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
70) For the conversion of \[C{{H}_{2}}=C{{H}_{2}}\]into \[HOOC.C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH,\] the   minimum number of steps required are

A)

2

B)

3

C)

4

D)

5

View Answer
71) Which of the following compounds does not give two isomer compounds on reaction with \[N{{H}_{2}}OH?\]

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

D)

\[PhCOC{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
72) From the following which is not a reactant, reagent or product in Hofmann reaction?

A)

\[RCON{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[RN{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[B{{r}_{2}},OH\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
73) The total number of isomers for cyclic alcohol \[{{C}_{4}}{{H}_{7}}OH\]is

A)

2

B)

3

C)

4

D)

5

View Answer
74) The least stable free radical is

A)

\[\overset{\centerdot }{\mathop{C}}\,{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CH{{\left( C{{H}_{3}} \right)}_{2}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}\underset{\centerdot }{\mathop{C}}\,HCH{{\left( C{{H}_{3}} \right)}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}\underset{\centerdot }{\mathop{C}}\,{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

D)

\[\overset{\centerdot }{\mathop{C}}\,{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
75) The suitable reagent for the reduction of \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}COOH\]into \[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{7}}OH\]is

A)

\[B{{H}_{3}}/THF\] and\[{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}\]

B)

\[NaB{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

\[Na/EtOH\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}/catalyst\]

View Answer
76) The blue colour of acidic solution of \[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}\]is not changed into green by

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

B)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CHOH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

D)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}COH\]

View Answer
77) The reaction of \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Cl\]with Li and \[\text{CuI}\]gives mainly

A)

2-butene

B)

1, 3-butadiene

C)

n-butane

D)

n-butyl chloride

View Answer
78) The reagent which does not convert n-butyl chloride into n-butane is

A)

\[Zn,HCl\]

B)

\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

\[Mg,\] anhydrous ether,\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[{{B}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\] in THF

View Answer
79) The correct order of stability is

A)

pentane < iso -pentane < neo-pentane

B)

iso -pentane < neo-pentane < pentane

C)

neo-pentane < iso-pentane < pentane

D)

pentane < neo-pentane < 150-pentane

View Answer
80) The correct order of boiling point of ethyl dimethyl amine , n-butyl amine and diethyl amineis

A)

\[B>C>A\]

B)

\[B>A>C\]

C)

\[A>B>C\]

D)

\[C>B>A\]

View Answer
81) Which of the following compounds does not give lodoform test?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{2}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]

B)

\[~PhC{{H}_{2}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[M{{e}_{3}}CCOC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
82) The species which acts as both nucleophile and electrophile is

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CN\]

B)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[P{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
83) The most basic from the following is

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[N{{F}_{3}}\]

D)

\[N{{(Si{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}\]

View Answer
84) The main product of the reaction of benzene with lithium in liquid ammonia and \[EtOH\]is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
85) The rate of free radical chlorination of \[C{{H}_{4}}\] is

A)

equal to\[C{{D}_{4}}\]

B)

double the rate of \[C{{D}_{4}}\]

C)

12 times the rate of \[C{{D}_{4}}\]

D)

less than the rate of\[C{{D}_{4}}\]

View Answer
86) The first ionisation energy difference maximum for which pair?

A)

\[Na,Mg\]

B)

\[K,Ca\]

C)

\[Rb,Sr\]

D)

\[Cs,Ba\]

View Answer
87) The ratio of third Bohr orbit radii second Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom is

A)

0.5

B)

1.5

C)

0.75

D)

2.25

View Answer
88) The principal quantum number of \[Mn\] those valence shell orbits in which electrons are filled

A)

4, 3

B)

4, 4

C)

3, 3

D)

5, 4

View Answer
89) From the generally known oxidation states, the oxidation number is maximum for

A)

\[Mn\]

B)

\[Cu\]

C)

\[Sn\]

D)

\[Sc\]

View Answer
90) The number of molecules in 180 g of heavy water are

A)

\[6.02\times {{10}^{24}}\]

B)

\[6.02\times {{10}^{22}}\]

C)

\[5.42\times {{10}^{24}}\]

D)

\[5.42\times {{10}^{23}}\]

View Answer
91) Which of the following is reduced by\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]?

A)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{4-}}\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{2}}OH\]

D)

\[SO_{3}^{2-}\]

View Answer
92) The maximum energy molecular orbit filled by electron in nitrogen molecule is/are

A)

\[\sigma 2{{p}_{z}}\]

B)

\[\pi 2{{p}_{x}}\approx 2{{p}_{y}}\]

C)

\[\overset{*}{\mathop{\pi }}\,2{{p}_{x}}\approx \overset{*}{\mathop{\pi }}\,2{{p}_{y}}\]

D)

\[\overset{*}{\mathop{\sigma }}\,2{{p}_{z}}\]

View Answer
93) Which of the following is correct order for density?

A)

\[Cs>Rb>K>Na\]

B)

\[Cs>Rb>Na>K\]

C)

\[Rb>Cs>K>Na\]

D)

\[Rb>Cs>Na>K\]

View Answer
94) The correct order of dipole moment is

A)

\[B{{F}_{3}}<{{H}_{2}}S<{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}S<B{{F}_{3}}<{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}O<{{H}_{2}}S<B{{F}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O<B{{F}_{3}}<{{H}_{2}}S\]

View Answer
95) Which of the following bond has minimum bond energy?

A)

C-H

B)

N-H

C)

O-H

D)

F-H

View Answer
96) Assertion\[N_{3}^{-}\]is a weaker base than \[NH_{2}^{-}.\] Reason The lone pair of electrons on N atom in \[N_{3}^{-}\]is in a\[s{{p}^{2}}-\]orbital while in \[NH_{2}^{-}\]it is in an \[s{{p}^{3}}-\]orbital.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
97) Assertion Chlorine when solidifies does not have zero entropy even at absolute zero. Reason Chlorine is a pungent smelling gas and it is difficult to solidify it.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
98) Assertion In the E2 elimination, \[\beta -H\]and leaving group should be antiperiplanar. Reason In the E2 elimination, base always abstracts hindered \[\beta -H.\]

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
99) Assertion In chemisorptidn, adsorption first increase and then decreases with temperature. Reason Heat keeps on providing more and more activation energy.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
100) Assertion p-dichlorobenzene is less soluble in organic solvents than the corresponding o-isomer. Reason o-dichlorobenzene is polar while p-dichlorobenzene is not.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer

101) Consider the following statements concerning food chains.

I. Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation.

II. Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deers.

III. The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss.

IV. The length of food chains may vary from 2-8 trophic levels.

Which of the above statements are correct?

II and IV

I, III and V

II and IV

I and V

View Answer

102) Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (1-4) in-achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow

Method	Mode of action
A. The pill	1. Prevents sperms reaching cervix
B. Condom	2. Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy	3. Prevents ovulation
D. Copper-T	4. Semen contains no sperms

A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2

A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2

A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

View Answer

103) Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the following five properties of starch (I-V) make it useful as a storage material?

I Easily translocated

II Chemically non-reactive

III Easily digested by animals

IV Osmotically inactive

V Synthesized during photosynthesis

The useful properties are

A)

II and III

B)

II and IV

C)

I, II and V

D)

I and V

View Answer

104) Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/ treatment) in Column II

	Column I	Column II
A. B.	Amoebiasis Diphtheria	1. Treponema pallidum 2. Use only sterilized food and water
C. D.	Cholera Syphilis	3. DPT vaccine 4. Use oral rehydration therapy

A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4

A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3

A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4

A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

View Answer

105) Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

A)

Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and hallucinations

B)

Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations

C)

Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions

D)

Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria

View Answer
106) Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?

A)

Earthworm- The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, tomach, gizzard and intestine

B)

Frog- Body divisible into three regions-head, neck and trunk

C)

Rat- Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one

D)

Cockroach- 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)

View Answer
107) In cockroach, larval and nymphal characters are maintained by

A)

ecdysone

B)

salivary glands

C)

parotid gland

D)

juvenile hormone

View Answer
108) Which of the following is a transparent tissue?

A)

Tendon

B)

Fibrous cartilage

C)

Hyaline cartilage

D)

All of these

View Answer
109) Rh factor is present in

A)

all vertebrates

B)

all mammals

C)

all reptiles

D)

man and rhesus monkey only

View Answer
110) In rabbit, end of a long bone is connected in another by

A)

tendon

B)

ligaments

C)

muscle

D)

cartilage

View Answer
111) Which of the following cell type .is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges?

A)

Thesocytes

B)

Pinacocytes

C)

Cnidocytes

D)

Archaeocytes

View Answer
112) Thigmotaxis is not shown by

A)

Paramecium

B)

Amoeba

C)

Ascaris

D)

Hydra

View Answer
113) Which is correctly matched?

A)

Apiculture - Honey bee

B)

Pisciculture - Silk moth

C)

Sericulture - Fish

D)

Aquaculture - Mosquito

View Answer
114) Changes that allow the conversion of larva into adult, is called

A)

metagenesis

B)

alternation

C)

metamorphosis

D)

metastasis

View Answer
115) Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as

A)

biothermic

B)

poikilothermic

C)

oligothermic

D)

homeothermic

View Answer
116) The intermediate host of Schistosoma is

A)

snail

B)

mosquito

C)

housefly

D)

sheep

View Answer
117) The islets of Langerhans are found in

A)

pancreas

B)

stomach

C)

liver

D)

alimentary canal

View Answer
118) The vitamin, which is essential for blood clotting is

A)

vitamin-A

B)

vitamin-B

C)

vitamin-C

D)

vitamin-K

View Answer
119) The female genital pore of Pheretima posthuma located upon the segment

A)

14th

B)

16th

C)

18th

D)

15th

View Answer
120) Polyp phase is absent in

A)

Hydra

B)

Aurelia

C)

Physalia

D)

Obelia

View Answer
121) In frog heart, there are cardiac muscles, which consists of fibres called

A)

Purkinje fibres

B)

myonemes

C)

telodendria

D)

columnae carnae

View Answer
122) Malpighian tubules are

A)

excretory organs of insects

B)

excretory organs of frog

C)

respiratory organs of insects

D)

endocrine glands of insects

View Answer
123) LH and FSH are collectively called

A)

oxytocin

B)

somatotropins

C)

luteotropic

D)

gonadotropins

View Answer
124) Who is known as father of endocrinology?

A)

RH Whittaker

B)

Pasteur

C)

Einthoven

D)

Thomas Addison

View Answer
125) Which of the following provides most evident proof of evolution?

A)

Fossils

B)

Morphology

C)

Embryo

D)

Vestigial organs

View Answer
126) In Mollusca, eye is present over a static called

A)

ostracum

B)

operculum

C)

ommatophores

D)

osphradium

View Answer
127) Among the following, colonial insects are

A)

locusts

B)

mosquitoes

C)

white ants

D)

bed bug

View Answer
128) In Ascaris, the coelom is

A)

schizocoelom

B)

pseudocoelom

C)

true coelom

D)

haemocoelom

View Answer
129) Turbellarians are free living

A)

nematodes

B)

cestodes

C)

flatworms

D)

trematodes

View Answer
130) The   characteristic larva   of phylum- Coelenterata is

A)

planula

B)

cysticercus

C)

rhabdiform

D)

wriggler

View Answer
131) In rabbit, head of epididymis present at the head of the testis is called

A)

vas defereris

B)

cauda epididymis

C)

gubernaculum

D)

caput epididymis

View Answer
132) Tendons and ligaments are specialized types of

A)

nervous tissue

B)

muscular tissue

C)

epithelial tissue

D)

connective tissue

View Answer
133) In blood, \[C{{O}_{2}}\]in transported majorly as

A)

sodium carbonate

B)

carboxyhaemoglobin

C)

bicarbonate

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]as such

View Answer
134) Animals undergoes inactive stage during winter, is known as

A)

aestivation

B)

hibernation

C)

adaptation

D)

acclimatization

View Answer
135) Kupffer cells are present in

A)

liver

B)

small intestine

C)

pancreas

D)

thyroid gland

View Answer
136) The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as

A)

morula

B)

gastrula

C)

blastula

D)

blastomere

View Answer
137) Contractile vacuole in protozoan Amoeba is meant for

A)

respiration

B)

excretion

C)

locomotion

D)

osmoregulation

View Answer
138) Jumping genes in maize were discovered by

A)

Hugo de Vries

B)

Barbara Me Clintock

C)

TH Morgan

D)

Mendel

View Answer
139) Streptomycin is obtained from

A)

Streptomyces griseus

B)

S. aureofaciens

C)

S. venezuelae

D)

S. ramosus

View Answer
140) Binomial system of nomenclature was given by

A)

Julian Huxley

B)

Bentham and Hooker

C)

Linnaeus

D)

Casper Bauhin

View Answer
141) Indusium is found in

A)

algae

B)

ferns

C)

moss

D)

Cycas

View Answer
142) The vacuole is lined by a membrane called

A)

tonoplast

B)

jacket

C)

cell membrane

D)

tonoplasm

View Answer
143) Agar-agar is obtained from

A)

Chlorella

B)

Spirogyra

C)

Ulothrix

D)

Gelidium

View Answer
144) DNA element with ability to change position is called

A)

cistron

B)

transposon

C)

intron

D)

recon

View Answer
145) Initiation codon is

A)

UUU

B)

UGA

C)

AUG

D)

UAG

View Answer
146) DNA multiplication is called

A)

translation

B)

replication

C)

transduction

D)

transcription

View Answer
147) Duramen is present in

A)

inner region of secondary wood

B)

part of sap wood

C)

outer region of secondary wood

D)

region of pericycle

View Answer
148) In plants, water supply is due to

A)

osmosis

B)

imbibition

C)

guttation

D)

adhesion force

View Answer
149) Programmed cell death is scientifically termed as

A)

autotomy

B)

cell lysis

C)

apoptosis

D)

None of these

View Answer
150) Paraffin wax is

A)

ester

B)

acid

C)

monohydric alcohol

D)

cholesterol

View Answer
151) Which is always present in photochemical smog?

A)

\[{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
152) In cell cycle, during which phase, chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?

A)

Metaphase

B)

Anaphase

C)

Telophase

D)

Prophase

View Answer
153) The soil which is transported by wind is known as

A)

colluvial

B)

eolian

C)

aluvial

D)

galcial soil

View Answer
154) Spindle fibre is made up of

A)

tubulin

B)

humulin

C)

intermediate filament

D)

flagellin

View Answer
155) Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on which succession?

A)

Hydrosere

B)

Lithosere

C)

Psammosere

D)

Xerosere

View Answer
156) Law of limiting factors was given by

A)

Leibig

B)

Blackman

C)

Calvin

D)

Arnon

View Answer
157) In Pinus, male cone bears a large number of

A)

ligules

B)

anthers

C)

microsporophylls

D)

megasporophylls

View Answer
158) Induction of flowering by low temnerature treatment is

A)

vernalization

B)

cryobiology

C)

photoperiodism

D)

prumiing

View Answer
159) Decomposers are

A)

autotrophs

B)

autoheterotrophs

C)

organotrophs

D)

heterotrophs

View Answer
160) Cleavage polyembryony occurs in

A)

Pinus

B)

Mini Cycas

C)

Cycas

D)

Ephedra

View Answer
161) Edible part of mushroom is

A)

basidiocarp

B)

secondary mycelium

C)

primary mycelium

D)

tertiary mycelium

View Answer
162) Which of the following plant product is the hardest?

A)

Lignin

B)

Cutin

C)

Suberin

D)

Sporopollenin

View Answer
163) Calyptra is derived from

A)

archegonia

B)

capsule

C)

antheridia

D)

columella

View Answer
164) Clamp connections are observed in

A)

Basidiomycetes

B)

Zygomycetes

C)

Ascomycetes

D)

Oomycetes

View Answer
165) Leaf abscission is caused by

A)

ABA

B)

cytokinin

C)

auxin

D)

gibberellin

View Answer
166) What is the main cause for the extinction of some species in tropical forest?

A)

Deforestation

B)

Afforestation

C)

Pollution

D)

Soil erosin

View Answer
167) Most accepted theory for ascent of sap is

A)

capillarity theory

B)

root pressure theory

C)

pulsation theory

D)

Transpiration pull

View Answer
168) Which enzyme converts glucose into alcohol?

A)

Zymase

B)

Diastase

C)

Invertase

D)

Lipase

View Answer
169) Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?

A)

Parallel ventation

B)

Perennial plants

C)

Distinct branches (long and short branches)

D)

Xylem with vessels

View Answer
170) Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse transmission?

A)

\[C{{a}^{2+}}ions\]

B)

\[M{{g}^{2+}}ions\]

C)

Both [a] and [b]

D)

Fe2+ions

View Answer
171) The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as

A)

bottle neck effect

B)

edge effect

C)

junction effect

D)

Pasteur effect

View Answer
172) In which form does the food transported in plants?

A)

Sucrose

B)

Fructose

C)

Glucose

D)

Lactose

View Answer
173) Lady finger belongs to family

A)

Malvaceae

B)

Cucurbitaceae

C)

Liliaceae

D)

Brassicaceae

View Answer
174) In Cycas, pollination takes place in

A)

3 celled stage

B)

4 celled stage

C)

2 celled stage

D)

1 celled stage

View Answer
175) The bioassay of auxin is

A)

avena curvature test

B)

callus formation

C)

culture of fungus

D)

seed dormancy

View Answer
176) Which of these statements about Huntingtons disease is true?

A)

Genetic tests to detect the presence of the allele responsible for Huntingtons disease do not exist at this time

B)

The onset of Huntingtons disease is typically between birth and three year of age

C)

There is currently no effective treatment of Huntingtons disease

D)

Huntingtons disease is caused by the expression of a recessive allele

View Answer
177) Which one is component of ornithine cycle?

A)

Ornithine, citrulline and alanine

B)

Ornithine, citrulline and arginine

C)

Amino acid are not used

D)

Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid

View Answer
178) Chromosome complement with \[2n-1\] is called

A)

monosomy

B)

nullisomy

C)

trisomy

D)

tetrasomy

View Answer
179) Energy transferred from one trophic level to another is

A)

5%

B)

10%

C)

15%

D)

20%

View Answer
180) Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as

A)

antibiosis

B)

commensalism

C)

predation

D)

parasitism

View Answer
181) Which of the following is not vestigial in man?

A)

Tail vertebrae

B)

Nails

C)

Nictitating membrane

D)

Vermiform appendix

View Answer
182) A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. Which of these plays an important role in protein synthesis?

A)

Introns

B)

Exons

C)

Both [a] and [b]

D)

None of these

View Answer
183) The number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule is

A)

two

B)

three

C)

four

D)

eight

View Answer
184) The group of anamniota includes

A)

reptiles and birds

B)

birds and mammals

C)

fishes an amphibians

D)

reptiles and mammals

View Answer
185) The excretory material of bony fish is

A)

urea

B)

protein

C)

ammonia

D)

amino acid

View Answer
186) The leucocytes contain which of the following in large quantity?

A)

Basophils

B)

Neutrophils

C)

Eosinophils

D)

Monocytes

View Answer
187) During inspiration, the diaphragm

A)

expands

B)

shows no change

C)

contracts and flattens

D)

relaxes to become dome-shaped

View Answer
188) The function of pineal body is to

A)

lighten the skin colours

B)

control sexual behaviour

C)

regulates the period of puberty

D)

All of the above

View Answer
189) Synsacrum of fowl consists of about

A)

29 vertebrae

B)

3 vertebrae

C)

16 vertebrae

D)

single vertebrae

View Answer
190) Which of the following was formed in S Millers experiment?

A)

Amino acids

B)

Nucleic acids

C)

UV radiations

D)

Microspheres

View Answer
191) Which of the following variations are temporary and have nothing to do with the last or next generation?

A)

Hereditary variations

B)

Discontinuous variations

C)

Environmental variations

D)

None of the above

View Answer
192) The highest cranial capacity is/was present in

A)

Java man

B)

Peking man

C)

Handy man

D)

Modern man

View Answer
193) A marriage between normal visioned man and colourblind woman will produce which of the following types of offspring?

A)

Normal sons and carrier daughters

B)

Colourblind sons and carrier daughters

C)

Colourblind sons and 50% carrier daughters

D)

50% colourblind sons and 50% carrier daughters

View Answer
194) L-shaped chromosomes are also called

A)

acrocentric

B)

telocentric

C)

sub-metacentric

D)

None of these

View Answer
195) Which of the following is/are grouped under phanerogams?

A)

Angiosperms

B)

Gymnosperms

C)

Pteriodophytes

D)

Both [a] and [b]

View Answer
196) Assertion The imbalance in concentration of \[N{{a}^{+}},{{K}^{+}}\]and proteins generates resting potential. Reason To maintain the unequal distribution of \[N{{a}^{+}}\]and \[{{K}^{+}},\]the neurons use electrical energy.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
197) Assertion A coenzymes of metal ions that is very tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group. Reason A complete, catalytically active enzyme together with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
198) Assertion In cymose tap root system, oldest branch lies very near the growing point of the root, while the youngest branch is farthest away from it. Reason In cymose tap root system, the primary root itself stops growing after some

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
199) Assertion Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis first appeared in some eubacterial species. Reason Oxygen started accumulating in the atmosphere after the non-cyclic pathway of photosynthesis evolved,

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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200) Assertion Mast cells in the human body release excessive amount of inflammatory chemicals, which cause allergic reactions, Reason Allergens in the environment on reacting human body stimulate mast cells in certain individuals,

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer

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done VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2012 Total Questions - 200

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VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2012 Total Questions - 200