The unit of permittivity of free space,\[{{\varepsilon }_{0}},\] is:
A)
\[coulomb/newton-metre\]
done
clear
B)
\[newton-metr{{e}^{2}}/coulom{{b}^{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[coulom{{b}^{2}}/newton-metr{{e}^{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[coulom{{b}^{2}}/ewton-metre{{)}^{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity\[{{v}_{1}}.\]The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity v and catches the other boy in a time \[t,\] where t is
A)
\[a/\sqrt{{{v}^{2}}+v_{1}^{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\sqrt{{{a}^{2}}/({{v}^{2}}-v_{1}^{2})}\]
done
clear
C)
\[a/(v-{{v}_{1}})\]
done
clear
D)
\[a/(v+{{v}_{1}})\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground, where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity\[{{v}_{1}}.\]The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity v and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is:
A)
\[\frac{a}{\sqrt{{{v}^{2}}+v_{1}^{2}}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\sqrt{\frac{{{a}^{2}}}{{{v}^{2}}-v_{1}^{2}}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{a}{(v-{{v}_{1}})}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{a}{(v+{{v}_{1}})}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The coefficient of static friction, \[{{\mu }_{s}},\]between block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the figure, is 0.2. What would be the maximum mass value of block B so that the two blocks do not move? The string and the pulley are assumed to be smooth and massless: \[(g=10\,m/{{s}^{2}})\]
A)
2.0 kg
done
clear
B)
4.0 kg
done
clear
C)
0.2 kg
done
clear
D)
0.4 kg
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration is
A)
\[30\,m{{s}^{-2}}\]downwards
done
clear
B)
\[4\,m{{s}^{-2}}\] upwards
done
clear
C)
\[4\,m{{s}^{-2}}\]downwards
done
clear
D)
\[14\,m{{s}^{-2}}\]upwards
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A force F acting on an object varies with distance \[x\]as shown liere. The force is in newton and x in metre. The work done by the force in moving the object from \[x=0\]to \[x=6\,m\]is
A)
4.5 J
done
clear
B)
13.5 J
done
clear
C)
9.0 J
done
clear
D)
18.0 J
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of \[12\,m{{s}^{-1}}\] and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of \[8\,m{{s}^{-1}}.\]If the third part flies off with a velocity of \[4\,m{{s}^{-1}},\] its mass would be
A)
5 kg
done
clear
B)
7 kg
done
clear
C)
17 kg
done
clear
D)
3 kg
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its centre of mass is K. If radius of the ball be R, then the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy will be
A)
\[\frac{{{K}^{2}}}{{{R}^{2}}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{{{K}^{2}}}{{{K}^{2}}+{{R}^{2}}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{{{R}^{2}}}{{{K}^{2}}+{{R}^{2}}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{{{K}^{2}}+{{R}^{2}}}{{{R}^{2}}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the angle between them is \[90{}^\circ \]. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the rod is
A)
\[\frac{M{{L}^{2}}}{24}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{M{{L}^{2}}}{12}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{M{{L}^{2}}}{6}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{\sqrt{2}M{{L}^{2}}}{24}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience "weightlessness" as they go round the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is between
A)
14 m/s and 15 m/s
done
clear
B)
15 m/s and 16 m/s
done
clear
C)
16 m/s and 17 m/s
done
clear
D)
13 m/s and 14 m/s
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Radius of a soap bubble is increased from R to 2R work done in this process in terms of surface tension is
A)
\[24\,\pi {{R}^{2}}S\]
done
clear
B)
\[48\,\pi {{R}^{2}}S\]
done
clear
C)
\[12\,\pi {{R}^{2}}S\]
done
clear
D)
\[36\,\pi {{R}^{2}}S\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thickness and thermal conductivities K and 2K respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is
A)
\[\sqrt{2K}\]
done
clear
B)
\[3K\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{4}{3}K\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{2}{3}K\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
If the cold junction of a thermocouple is kept at \[0{}^\circ C\] and the hot junction is kept at \[{{T}^{o}}C,\]then the relation between neutral temperature \[({{T}_{n}})\] and temperature of inversion \[({{T}_{i}})\] is
A)
\[{{T}_{n}}=\frac{{{T}_{i}}}{2}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{T}_{n}}=2{{T}_{i}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{T}_{n}}={{T}_{i}}-T\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{T}_{n}}={{T}_{i}}+T\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following processes is reversible?
A)
Transfer of heat by radiation
done
clear
B)
Electrical heating of a nichrome wire
done
clear
C)
Transfer of heat by conduction
done
clear
D)
Isothermal compression
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does -150 J of work against its surroundings. This implies that
A)
300 J of heat has been added to the gas
done
clear
B)
no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal
done
clear
C)
150 J of heat has been added to the gas
done
clear
D)
150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion, so that the mass gets detached from the pan? (Take\[g=10\,m/{{s}^{2}}\])
A)
8.0cm
done
clear
B)
10.0cm
done
clear
C)
Any value less than 12.0 cm
done
clear
D)
4.0cm
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph correctly depicts the position of the particle as a function of time?
A)
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements is true?
A)
Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
done
clear
B)
The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse
done
clear
C)
Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
done
clear
D)
Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beat/s when both the wires oscillate together would be
A)
0.02
done
clear
B)
0.03
done
clear
C)
0.04
done
clear
D)
0.01
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Three point charges \[+q,-2q\] and +q are placed at points \[(x=0,y=a,z=0),(x=0,y=0,z=0)\] and \[(x=a,y=0,z=0),\]respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are:
A)
\[\sqrt{2}\,qa\]along +y direction
done
clear
B)
\[\sqrt{2}\,qa\]along the line joining points \[(x=0,y=0,z=0)\] and \[(x=a,y=a,z=0)\]
done
clear
C)
qa along the line joining points \[(x=0,y=0,z=0)\] and \[(x=a,y=a,z=0)\]
done
clear
D)
\[\sqrt{2}\,qa\] along \[+x\]direction
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region of uniform electric field\[\vec{E}.\]The line AB is perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. Then which of the following holds good. Where and \[{{V}_{C}}\]represent the electric potential at points A, B and C respectively
A)
\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{B}}={{V}_{C}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{B}}>{{V}_{C}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{B}}<{{V}_{C}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{V}_{A}}>{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{C}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by \[V=-{{x}^{2}}y-x{{z}^{3}}+4\] The electric field \[\vec{E}\]at that point is
A)
\[\vec{E}=\hat{i}\left( 2xy+{{z}^{3}} \right)+\hat{j}{{x}^{2}}+\hat{k}3x{{z}^{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\vec{E}=i\,2xy+\hat{j}\left( {{x}^{2}}+{{y}^{2}} \right)+\hat{k}\left( 3xz-{{y}^{2}} \right)\]
done
clear
C)
\[\vec{E}=\hat{i}{{z}^{3}}+\hat{j}\,xyz+\hat{k}{{z}^{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\vec{E}=\hat{i}\left( 2xy-{{z}^{3}} \right)+\hat{j}x{{y}^{2}}+\hat{k}3{{z}^{2}}x\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal resistance\[\,2\,\Omega \] and the other of emf 12 volts and internal resistance \[\,1\,\Omega ,\] are connected as shown. The voltmeter V will record a reading of
A)
15 volt
done
clear
B)
30 volt
done
clear
C)
14 volt
done
clear
D)
18 volt
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the following equations is the correct equation for it?
A)
\[{{\varepsilon }_{1}}-\left( {{i}_{1}}+{{i}_{2}} \right)R-{{i}_{1}}{{r}_{1}}=0\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{\varepsilon }_{2}}-{{i}_{1}}{{i}_{2}}R-{{\varepsilon }_{1}}-{{i}_{1}}{{r}_{1}}=0\]
done
clear
C)
\[-{{\varepsilon }_{2}}-\left( {{i}_{1}}+{{i}_{2}} \right)R+{{i}_{2}}{{r}_{2}}=0\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{\varepsilon }_{1}}-\left( {{i}_{1}}+{{i}_{2}} \right)R+{{i}_{1}}{{r}_{1}}=0\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The material of fuse wire should have
A)
A high specific resistance and high melting point
done
clear
B)
A low specific resistance and low melting point
done
clear
C)
A high specific resistance and low melting point
done
clear
D)
A low specific resistance and a high melting point
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A current of 3 A flows through the \[2\,\Omega \]resistor as shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the \[5\,\Omega \]resistor is
A)
4W
done
clear
B)
2W
done
clear
C)
1 W
done
clear
D)
5 W
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. What is the ratio of potential difference applied across them so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same?
A)
3
done
clear
B)
4
done
clear
C)
6
done
clear
D)
2
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A particle mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction\[\vec{B}\]After 3 s the kinetic energy or the particle will be
A)
3 T
done
clear
B)
2 T
done
clear
C)
T
done
clear
D)
4T
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A galvanometer has a coil of resistance \[100\,\Omega \]and gives a full-scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 V range, the resistance required to be added will be
A)
\[900\,\Omega \]
done
clear
B)
\[1800\,\Omega \]
done
clear
C)
\[500\,\Omega \]
done
clear
D)
\[1000\,\Omega \]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole moment\[\vec{m}.\]Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?
A)
1
done
clear
B)
2
done
clear
C)
3
done
clear
D)
4
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The magnetic flux linked with a coil, in webers, is given by the equations \[\phi =3{{t}^{2}}+4t+9.\] Then the magnitude of induced e.m.f. at f= 2 second will be
A)
2 volt
done
clear
B)
4 volt
done
clear
C)
8 volt
done
clear
D)
16 volt
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The primary and secondary coils of a trans- former have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux \[\phi \] linked with the primary coil is given by \[\phi ={{\phi }_{0}}+4t,\] where 0 is in weber, t is time in second and 0ols a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is
A)
90V
done
clear
B)
120V
done
clear
C)
220V
done
clear
D)
30V
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A beam of light composed of red and green rays is incident obliquely at a point on the face of a rectangular glass slab. When coming out on the opposite parallel face, the red and green rays emerge from
A)
two points propagating in two different non-parallel directions
done
clear
B)
two points propagating in two different parallel directions
done
clear
C)
one point propagating in two different directions
done
clear
D)
one point propagating in the same direction
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power in diopters of the combination is
A)
25
done
clear
B)
50
done
clear
C)
infinite
done
clear
D)
zero
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index\[\mu \]falls, on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of \[\text{45 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ }\]. For which of the following value of \[\mu \]the ray can undergo total internal reflection?
A)
\[\mu =1.33\]
done
clear
B)
\[\mu =1.40\]
done
clear
C)
\[\mu =1.50\]
done
clear
D)
\[\mu =1.25\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
When photons of energy hv fall on an aluminium plate (of work function\[{{E}_{0}}\]), photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be
A)
\[K+{{E}_{0}}\]
done
clear
B)
2K
done
clear
C)
K
done
clear
D)
\[K+hv\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The number of photoelectrons emitted for light of a frequency v (higher than the threshold frequency \[{{V}_{0}}\]) is proportional to
A)
\[v-{{v}_{0}}\]
done
clear
B)
threshold frequency \[({{v}_{0}})\]
done
clear
C)
intensity of light
done
clear
D)
frequency of light (v)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
A)
1.3 V
done
clear
B)
0.5 V
done
clear
C)
2.3 V
done
clear
D)
1.8 V
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The wavelength\[{{\lambda }_{e}}\]of an electron and \[{{\lambda }_{p}}\]of a photon of same energy E are related by
A)
\[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \lambda _{e}^{2}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto {{\lambda }_{e}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \sqrt{{{\lambda }_{e}}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{{{\lambda }_{e}}}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is\[{{E}_{n}},\] then the energy in nth orbit of single ionized helium atom will be
A)
\[4{{E}_{n}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{E}_{n}}/4\]
done
clear
C)
\[2{{E}_{n}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{E}_{n}}/2\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first excited state is
A)
3.4 eV
done
clear
B)
6.8 eV
done
clear
C)
13.6 eV
done
clear
D)
1.7 eV
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In the nuclear reaction: \[X{{(n,\alpha )}_{3}}L{{i}^{7}}\]the term X will be 3
A)
\[{{\,}_{5}}{{B}^{10}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{\,}_{5}}{{B}^{9}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{\,}_{5}}{{B}^{11}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{\,}_{2}}H{{e}^{4}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
If \[m,{{m}_{n}}\]and \[{{m}_{p}}\] are the masses of\[{{\,}_{Z}}{{X}^{A}}\]nucleus, neutron and proton respectively.
A)
\[m<(A-Z){{m}_{n}}+Z{{m}_{p}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[m=(A-Z){{m}_{n}}+Z{{m}_{p}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[m=(A-Z){{m}_{p}}+Z{{m}_{n}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[m>(A-Z){{m}_{n}}+Z{{m}_{p}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
For a common base configuration of PNP transistor \[\frac{{{l}_{C}}}{{{l}_{E}}}=0.98,\] then maximum current gain in common emitter configuration will be
A)
12
done
clear
B)
24
done
clear
C)
6
done
clear
D)
5
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the ripple will be
A)
50 Hz
done
clear
B)
70.7 Hz
done
clear
C)
100 Hz
done
clear
D)
25 Hz
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall process is (Atomic mass: Al = 27):
A)
90 kg
done
clear
B)
540 kg
done
clear
C)
270 kg
done
clear
D)
180 kg
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density\[=1\,g\,c{{m}^{-3}}\]) is:
A)
\[6.023\times {{10}^{-23}}\,c{{m}^{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[3.0\times {{10}^{-23}}\,c{{m}^{3}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[5.5\times {{10}^{-23}}\,c{{m}^{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[9.0\times {{10}^{-23}}\,c{{m}^{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by
A)
azimuthal quantum number
done
clear
B)
spin quantum number
done
clear
C)
magnetic quantum number
done
clear
D)
principle quantum number
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented?
A)
\[{{H}^{-}}>{{H}^{+}}>H\]
done
clear
B)
\[N{{a}^{+}}>{{F}^{-}}>{{O}^{2-}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{F}^{-}}>{{O}^{2-}}>N{{a}^{+}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[A{{l}^{3+}}>M{{g}^{2+}}>{{N}^{3-}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The correct increasing covalent nature is:
A)
\[NaCl<LiCl<BeC{{l}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[BeC{{l}_{2}}<NaCl<LiCl\]
done
clear
C)
\[BeC{{l}_{2}}<LiCl<NaCl\]
done
clear
D)
\[LiCl<NaCl<BeC{{l}_{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which is correct order for electron gain enthalpy?
A)
S < O < Cl < F
done
clear
B)
O < S < F < Cl
done
clear
C)
Cl < F < S < O
done
clear
D)
F < Cl < O < S
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is not a correct statements Which is correct order following is not a correct statement?
A)
Every\[A{{B}_{5}}\]molecule does in fact has square pyramid structure.
done
clear
B)
Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds.
done
clear
C)
The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids.
done
clear
D)
The canonical structures have no real existence.
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from
A)
\[{{N}_{2}}(g)\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{4}}(g)\]
done
clear
C)
\[N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{\text{H}}_{2}}(g)\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
What is the entropy change \[(in\,J{{K}^{-1}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}})\] when one mole of ice is converted into water at \[0{}^\circ C\]? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is\[6.0\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\] at \[0{}^\circ C\])
A)
20.13
done
clear
B)
2.013
done
clear
C)
2.198
done
clear
D)
21.98
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The absolute enthalpy of neutralization of the reaction, \[MgO(s)+2HCl(aq.)\xrightarrow{{}}MgC{{l}_{2}}(aq.)+{{H}_{2}}O(l)\]will be
A)
Greater than \[-57.33\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
B)
Less than\[-57.33\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[-57.33\text{ }kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[57.33\text{ }kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The reaction, \[2A(g)+B(g)\rightleftharpoons 3C(g)+D(g)\] is begun with the concentration of A and B both at an initial value of 1.00 M. When equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D is measured and found to be 0.25 M. The value for the equilibrium constant for this reaction is given by the expression:
A)
\[[{{(0.75)}^{3}}(0.25)]\div [{{(1.00)}^{2}}(1.00)]\]
done
clear
B)
\[[{{(0.75)}^{3}}(0.25)]\div [{{(0.50)}^{2}}(0.75)]\]
done
clear
C)
\[[{{(0.75)}^{3}}(0.25)]\div [{{(0.50)}^{2}}(0.25)]\]
done
clear
D)
\[[{{(0.75)}^{3}}(0.25)]\div [{{(0.75)}^{2}}(0.25)]\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following pairs constitutes buffer?
A)
\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]and\[N{{H}_{4}}N{{O}_{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
HCl and KCl
done
clear
C)
\[HN{{O}_{2}}\]and\[NaN{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
NaOH and NaCl
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?
A)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}N\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}B\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}O\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}P\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
When\[C{{l}_{2}}\]gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from
A)
Zero to -1 and zero to +3
done
clear
B)
Zero to +1 and zero to -3
done
clear
C)
Zero to +1 and zero to -5
done
clear
D)
Zero to-land zero to+5
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reaction is respectively
A)
oxidizing in (i) and reducing in (ii)
done
clear
B)
reducing in (i) and oxidizing in (ii)
done
clear
C)
reducing in (i) and (ii)
done
clear
D)
oxidizing in (i) and (ii)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The function of "Sodium pump" is a biological process operating in each and every cell of all animals. Which of the following biologically important ions is also a constituent of this pump?
A)
\[M{{g}^{2+}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{K}^{+}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[F{{e}^{2+}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[Si{{O}^{-}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The basic structural unit of silicates is
A)
\[SiO_{4}^{4-}\]
done
clear
B)
\[SiO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
clear
C)
\[SiO_{4}^{2-}\]
done
clear
D)
\[Si{{O}^{-}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The IUPAC name of
A)
2-Ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
done
clear
B)
2, 3-Dimethylpentanoyl chloride
done
clear
C)
3, 4-Dimethylpentanoyl chloride
done
clear
D)
1-Chloro-l-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is the most stable?
A)
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The product C is \[C{{H}_{3}}.C{{H}_{2}}.C\equiv CH+HCl\xrightarrow{{}}B\xrightarrow{HI}C\]
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}.C{{H}_{2}}.C{{H}_{2}}.\underset{\text{Cl}}{\overset{\text{I}}{\mathop{\underset{\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }}{\overset{\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }}{\mathop{\text{C}}}}\,}}}\,-H\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}.\underset{\text{I}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,.\underset{Cl}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,}}\,\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{Cl}{\overset{I}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}.\underset{Cl}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,C{{H}_{2}}.C{{H}_{2}}I\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In the following reaction: \[{{H}_{3}}C-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,=C{{H}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{{H}_{2}}O/{{H}^{\oplus }}}\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{Major} \\ \text{product} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\text{+}\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{Major} \\ \text{product} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{B}}}\,\] The major product is
A)
\[{{H}_{3}}C-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,\underset{OH}{\mathop{-\underset{|}{\mathop{CH-C{{H}_{3}}}}\,}}\,\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{H}_{3}}C-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,}}\,\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{H}_{3}}C-\underset{OH}{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,}}\,-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The relative abundance of isotopes of an element shows the composition as \[{{\,}^{200}}X=90%,{{\,}^{199}}X=8.0%,{{\,}^{202}}X=2.0%\] The average atomic mass of element is
A)
201 amu
done
clear
B)
202 amu
done
clear
C)
199 amu
done
clear
D)
200 amu
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A metal has an fee latticed. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is \[2.72\,g\,c{{m}^{-3}}.\] The molar mass of the metal is (\[{{N}_{A}}\]Avogadro's constant\[=6.2\times {{10}^{23}}\,mo{{l}^{01}}\])
A)
\[30g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[27g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[27g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[~40gmo{{l}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A solution of sucrose (molar mass\[342\,g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]) has been produced by dissolving 68.5 g sucrose in 1000 g water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be (\[{{K}_{f}}\]for \[{{H}_{2}}O=1.86\,kg\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\])
A)
\[-0.372{}^\circ C\]
done
clear
B)
\[~-0.520{}^\circ C\]
done
clear
C)
\[~+\text{ }0.372{}^\circ C\]
done
clear
D)
\[-0.570{}^\circ C\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The equilibrium constant for the reaction: \[Cu+2A{{g}^{+}}(aq)\xrightarrow{{}}C{{u}^{2+}}(aq)+2Ag;{{E}^{o}}=0.46\,V\] at 298 K is
A)
\[2.0\times {{10}^{10}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[3.9\times {{10}^{15}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[4.0\times {{10}^{10}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[2.4\times {{10}^{10}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The correct value of emf of cell is given by
(i)\[{{E}_{cell}}={{E}_{OP}}\]anode\[-{{E}_{RP}}\]cathode (ii)\[{{E}_{cell}}={{E}_{OP}}\]anode\[+{{E}_{RP}}\]cathode (iii)\[{{E}_{cell}}={{E}_{RP}}\]anode\[+{{E}_{RP}}\]cathode (iv)\[{{E}_{cell}}={{E}_{OP}}\]anode\[-{{E}_{OP}}\]cathode
A)
(iii) and (i)
done
clear
B)
(i) and (ii)
done
clear
C)
(iii) and (iv)
done
clear
D)
(ii) and (iv)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The reaction obey I order with respect to \[{{H}_{2}}\]and ICl both. \[{{H}_{2}}(g)+2ICl(g)\to 2HCl(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)\] Which of the following mechanism is in con- sistent with the given fact? Mechanism\[A:{{H}_{2}}(g)+2ICl\to 2HCl(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)\] Mechanism\[B:(i){{H}_{2}}(g)+HCl(g)\xrightarrow{\text{slow}}\]\[HCl(g)+HI(g)\]
A)
A and B both
done
clear
B)
Neither A nor B
done
clear
C)
A only
done
clear
D)
B only
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
For an endothermic reaction energy of activation is \[{{E}_{a}}\]and enthalpy of reaction is \[\Delta H \] (both in\[kJ\,mo{{l}^{-}}\]). Minimum value of \[{{E}_{a}}\] will be
A)
\[<\Delta H \]
done
clear
B)
\[=\Delta H \]
done
clear
C)
\[>\Delta H \]
done
clear
D)
\[=0\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements in incorrect about enzyme catalysis?
A)
Enzymes are denatured by ultraviolet rays and at high temperature.
done
clear
B)
Enzymes are least reactive at optimum temperature.
done
clear
C)
Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature.
done
clear
D)
Enzyme action is specific.
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with
A)
Copper (I) sulphide\[(C{{u}_{2}}S)\]
done
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B)
Carbon monoxide (CO)
done
clear
C)
Iron sulphide (FeS)
done
clear
D)
Sulphur dioxide\[(S{{O}_{2}})\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statements is not valid for oxo-acids of phosphorus?
A)
Hypophosphorus acid is a diprotic acid
done
clear
B)
All oxo-acids contains atleast one P = O unit and one P-OH group
done
clear
C)
Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate
done
clear
D)
All oxo-acids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following has \[p\pi -d\pi \]bonding?
A)
\[NO_{3}^{-}\]
done
clear
B)
\[BO_{3}^{3-}\]
done
clear
C)
\[SO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
clear
D)
\[CO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
When thiosulphate ion is oxidised by iodine, which one of the following ion is produced?
A)
\[SO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
clear
B)
\[SO_{4}^{2-}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{S}_{4}}O_{6}^{2-}\](Tetrathionate)
done
clear
D)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr >HCl. What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride?
A)
The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than other hydrogen halides
done
clear
B)
The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarizes the HF molecule
done
clear
C)
The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the group.
done
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D)
There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The electronic configuration of neon is
A)
\[1{{s}^{2}},2{{s}^{2}},2{{p}^{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[1{{s}^{2}},2{{s}^{2}},2{{p}^{6}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[1{{s}^{2}},2{{s}^{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[1{{s}^{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The correct order of ionic radii of \[{{Y}^{3+}},L{{a}^{3+}},E{{u}^{3+}}\]and \[L{{u}^{3+}}\]is
A)
\[{{Y}^{3}}^{+}<L{{a}^{3+}}<E{{u}^{3+}}<L{{u}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{Y}^{3}}^{+}<L{{u}^{3+}}<E{{u}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[L{{u}^{3+}}<E{{u}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}<{{Y}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[L{{a}^{3+}}<E{{u}^{3+}}<L{{u}^{3+}}<{{Y}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order?
A)
Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
done
clear
B)
Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
done
clear
C)
Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
done
clear
D)
Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named
A)
Sodium pentacyanonitrosyi ferrate (III)
done
clear
B)
Sodium nitrofemcyanide
done
clear
C)
Sodium nitroferrocyanide
done
clear
D)
Sodium pentacyanonitrosyi ferrate (II)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one is most reactive towards \[{{S}_{N}}1\]reactions?
A)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CH({{C}_{6}}H)Br\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CH(C{{H}_{3}})Br\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C(C{{H}_{3}})({{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}})Br\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C{{H}_{2}}Br\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following compounds has the most acidic nature?
A)
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The relative reactivities of acyi compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of:
A)
ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride
done
clear
B)
acid anhydride > amide > ester > acyl chloride
done
clear
C)
acyl chloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide
done
clear
D)
acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Using anhydrous\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]as catalyst, which one of the reaction produces ethyl benzene?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}OH+{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CH=C{{H}_{2}}+{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{2}}=C{{H}_{2}}+{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{3}}+{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following hormones contains iodine?
A)
insulin
done
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B)
thyroxine
done
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C)
testosterone
done
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D)
adrenaline
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one is chain growth polymer?
A)
Starch
done
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B)
Nucleic acid
done
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C)
Polystyrene
done
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D)
Protein
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following statements is not true:
A)
Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants
done
clear
B)
Disinfectants harm the living tissues
done
clear
C)
Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydro-gen peroxide are strong antiseptics
done
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D)
A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1 % solution acts as a disinfectant
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is not true for a species?
A)
Members of a species can interbreed
done
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B)
Variations occur among members of a species
done
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C)
Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
done
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D)
Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a:
A)
Hot spring
done
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B)
Sulphur rock
done
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C)
Cattle yard
done
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D)
Polluted stream
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
A)
The microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
done
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B)
A cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed
done
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C)
A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
done
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D)
An opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be
A)
smaller and to have smaller sex organs
done
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B)
smaller but to have larger sex organs
done
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C)
larger but to have smaller sex organs
done
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D)
larger and to have larger sex organs
done
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View Answer play_arrow
During its life cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stage respectively:
A)
Redia and miracidium
done
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B)
Cercaria and redia
done
clear
C)
Metacercaria and cerearia
done
clear
D)
Miracidium and metacercaria
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?
A)
Alveolar lungs
done
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B)
Ten pairs of cranial nerves
done
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C)
Seven cervical vertebrae
done
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D)
Thecodont dentition
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Juicy hair-like structures observed in the lemon fruit develop from:
A)
Exocarp
done
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B)
Mesocarp
done
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C)
Endocarp
done
clear
D)
Mesocarp and endocarp
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The length of different intemodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because of:
A)
size of leaf lamina at the node below each intemode
done
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B)
intercalary meristem
done
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C)
shoot apical meristem
done
clear
D)
position of axillary buds
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
A)
Cassia - Imbricate aestivation
done
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B)
Root pressure - Guttation
done
clear
C)
Puccinia - Smut
done
clear
D)
Root - Exarch protoxylem
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in:
A)
Fallopian tubes and urethra
done
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B)
Eustachian tube and stomach lining
done
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C)
Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
done
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D)
Bile duct and oesophagus
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs:
A)
On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
done
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B)
On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
done
clear
C)
Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
done
clear
D)
Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Select the wrong statement from the following:
A)
The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria
done
clear
B)
Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane
done
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C)
Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
done
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D)
Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
A)
Collagen
done
clear
B)
Insulin
done
clear
C)
Trypsin
done
clear
D)
Haemoglobin
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.
A)
Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase
done
clear
B)
Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
done
clear
C)
Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
done
clear
D)
Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is:
A)
expression of nif gene
done
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B)
inhibition of nitrogenase activity
done
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C)
oxygen removal
done
clear
D)
nodule differentiation
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in:
A)
Grana
done
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B)
Pyrenoid
done
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C)
Stroma
done
clear
D)
Both a and b
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is:
A)
A facultative anaerobe
done
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B)
An obligate anaerobe
done
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C)
A facultative aerobe
done
clear
D)
An obligate aerobe
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Plants deficient of element zinc show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone:
A)
Auxin
done
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B)
Cytokinin
done
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C)
Ethylene
done
clear
D)
Abscissic acid
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A)
Vitamin B6 - Loss of appetite
done
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B)
Vitamin B1 - Beriberi
done
clear
C)
Vitamin B2 - Pellagra
done
clear
D)
Vitamin B12 - Pernicious anemia
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?
A)
Small intestine - Proteins Pepsin ® Amino acids
done
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B)
Stomach - Fats Lipase ® Micelles
done
clear
C)
Duodenum - Triglycerides Trypsin® Monoglycerides
done
clear
D)
Small intestine - Starch\[\alpha -\]amylase ® Disaccharide (Maltose)
done
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View Answer play_arrow
When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe?
A)
rising \[C{{O}_{2}}\]and falling\[{{O}_{2}}\]concentration
done
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B)
falling \[{{O}_{2}}\]concentration
done
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C)
rising \[C{{O}_{2}}\]concentration
done
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D)
falling \[C{{O}_{2}}\]concentration
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor
A)
Blood group O
done
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B)
Blood group A
done
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C)
Blood group B
done
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D)
Blood group AB
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is:
A)
20 mm Hg
done
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B)
50 mm Hg
done
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C)
75 mm Hg
done
clear
D)
30 mm Hg
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements with regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
A)
Descending limb of loop of Henie is impermeable to water
done
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B)
Distal convoluted tubule is incapable in reabsorbing \[CHC{{O}_{3}}\]
done
clear
C)
nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tube
done
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D)
Ascending limb of loop of Henie is impermeable to electrolytes
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In a man, abduncens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected?
A)
Swallowing
done
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B)
Movement of the eyeball
done
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C)
Movement of the neck
done
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D)
Movement of the tongue
done
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View Answer play_arrow
During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of:
A)
\[{{K}^{+}}\]ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
done
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B)
\[N{{a}^{+}}\]ions from extracellular fluid to intra- cellular fluid
done
clear
C)
\[{{K}^{+}}\]ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
done
clear
D)
\[N{{a}^{+}}\] ions from intracellular fluid to extra- cellular fluid
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A)
Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments.
done
clear
B)
In retina the rods have the photopigments rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments.
done
clear
C)
Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C.
done
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D)
Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Mainly which hormones control menstrual cycle in human beings:
A)
FSH
done
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B)
LH
done
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C)
FSH, LH, Estrogen
done
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D)
Progesterone
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones?
A)
Posterior pituitary lobe
done
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B)
Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
done
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C)
Hypothalamus
done
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D)
Anterior pituitary lobe
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of:
A)
toxic goiter
done
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B)
cretinism
done
clear
C)
simple goiter
done
clear
D)
thyrotoxicosis
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
A)
Only the wall of the sporangium
done
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B)
Both wall and the sporogenous cells
done
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C)
Wall and the tapetum
done
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D)
Only tapetum and sporogenous cells
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac:
A)
Persistant synergid
done
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B)
Egg cell
done
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C)
Central cell
done
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D)
Degenerated synergid
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Wind pollinated flowers are:
A)
small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
done
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B)
small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
done
clear
C)
large producing abundant nectar and pollen
done
clear
D)
small, producing nectar and dry pollen
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of:
A)
Zygote
done
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B)
Suspensor
done
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C)
Egg
done
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D)
Synergid
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Advantage of cleistogamy is:
A)
Higher genetic variability
done
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B)
More vigorous offspring
done
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C)
No dependence on pollinators
done
clear
D)
Vivipary
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Coconut water from a tender coconut is:
A)
Degenerated nucellus
done
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B)
Immature embryo
done
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C)
Free nuclear endosperm
done
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D)
Innermost layers of the seed coat
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is:
A)
Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocytes- perms
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B)
Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid- sperms
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C)
Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid- sperms
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D)
Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogo- niasperms
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The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?
A)
Fourth month
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B)
Fifth month
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C)
Sixth month
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D)
Third month
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If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from:
A)
Vagina to uterus
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B)
Testes to epididymis
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C)
Epididymis to vas deferens
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D)
Ovary to uterus
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Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?
A)
Secondary polar body
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B)
Primary polar body
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C)
Spermatid
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D)
Spermatogonia
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Independent assortment of genes does not take place when:
A)
Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
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B)
Genes are linked and located on the same chromosome
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C)
Genes are located on non-homologous chromosome
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D)
All the above
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Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What percentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by this disorder?
A)
100%
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B)
75%
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C)
50%
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D)
25%
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Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N. tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be separate species:
A)
They cannot interbreed in nature
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B)
They are reproductively distinct
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C)
They are physiologically distinct
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D)
They are morphologically distinct
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A women with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by:
A)
Turner syndrome
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B)
Down syndrome
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C)
Super femaleness
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D)
Triploidy
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Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the:
A)
Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
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B)
Loss of half of the short arm of chromo- some 5
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C)
Loss of half of the long arm of chromo- some 5
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D)
Trisomy of 21st chromosome
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Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross:
A)
Tightly linked genes on the same chromo- some show higher recombinations
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B)
Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
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C)
Genes loosely linked on the same chromo- some show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones
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D)
Tightly linked genes on the same chromo- some show very few recombination
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Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the\[{{F}_{1}}\]generation resembles both the parents?
A)
incomplete dominance
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B)
law of dominance
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C)
inheritance of one gene
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D)
codominance
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Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid it is called:
A)
Degeneracy of genetic code
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B)
Overlapping of gene
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C)
Wobbling of codon
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D)
Universality of codons
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During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called:
A)
Promoter
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B)
Regulator
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C)
Receptor
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D)
Enhancer
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In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of
A)
Transcription
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B)
Transition
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C)
Transversion
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D)
Frameshift mutation
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A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:
A)
Ribosome
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B)
Transfer RNA
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C)
Messenger RNA
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D)
DNA sequence
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Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:
A)
Salmonella typhimurium
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B)
Drosophila melanogaster
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C)
Escherichia coli
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D)
Streptococcus pneumonia
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Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon.
[a] Glucose or galactose may bind with the represser and inactivate it [b] In the absence of lactose the represser binds with the operator region [c] The z-gene codes for permease [d] This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod
The correct statements are:
A)
[b] and [c]
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B)
[a] and [c]
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C)
[b] and [d]
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D)
[a] and [b]
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Transformation was discovered by:
A)
Meseson and Stahl
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B)
Hershey and Chase
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C)
Griffith
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D)
Watson and Crick
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A man with blood group _A' marries a woman with blood group -B'. What are all the possible blood groups of their offspring?
A)
O only
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B)
A and B only
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C)
A, B and AB only
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D)
A, B, AB and O
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Darwin's theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it:
A)
Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival
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B)
Size of organs increase with aging
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C)
Development of organs is due to will power
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D)
There should be some physical basis of inheritance
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Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?
A)
Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
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B)
Organs with anatomical dissimilarities but performing same function
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C)
Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
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D)
Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult
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Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin-resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originates as adaptation. These imprints need to be used
A)
on plates with and without streptomycin
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B)
only on plates with streptomycin
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C)
on plates with minimal medium
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D)
only on plates without streptomycin
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Evolutionary history of an organism is known as
A)
Phylogeny
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B)
Ancestry
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C)
Paleontology
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D)
Ontogeny
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The concept of chemical evolution is based on
A)
Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
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B)
Crystallization of chemicals
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C)
Interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat
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D)
Effect of solar radiation on chemicals
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Which is the most infectious disease?
A)
Hepatitis-B
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B)
AIDS
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C)
Cough and cold
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D)
Malaria
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Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
A)
Culex pipiens - Filariasis
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B)
Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever
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C)
Anopheles culifaciens - Leishmaniasis
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D)
Glossina palpalis - Sleeping sickness
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If you suspect deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
A)
Haemocytes
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B)
Serum albumins
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C)
Serum globulins
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D)
Fibrinogen in the plasma
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A person likely to develop tetanus is immunized by administering:
A)
Weakened germs
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B)
Dead germs
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C)
Preformed antibodies
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D)
Wide spectrum antibiotics
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Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
A)
Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
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B)
Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
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C)
red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
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D)
spleen of infected humans
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Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
A)
Blastomycosis
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B)
Syphilis
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C)
Influenza
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D)
Babesiosis
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In Lederberg' s replica plating experiment what shall be used to obtain streptomycin resistant strain:
A)
Minimal medium and streptomycin
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B)
Complete medium and streptomycin
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C)
Only minimal medium
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D)
Only complete medium
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India's wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was possible primarily due to:
A)
Increased chlorophyll content
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B)
Mutations resulting in plant height reduction
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C)
Quantitative trait mutations
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D)
Hybrid seeds
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Farmers in a particular region were concerned that premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?
A)
Frequent irrigation of the crop
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B)
Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer
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C)
Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2,4,5- trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
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D)
Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll
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Which one of the following proved effective for biological control of nematodal diseese in plants?
A)
Gliocladiiim virens
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B)
Paecilomyces lilacimis
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C)
Pisolithiis tinctorius
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D)
Pseiidomonas cepacia
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Probiotics are:
A)
Live microbial food supplement
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B)
Safe antibiotics
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C)
Cancer inducting microbes
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D)
New kind of food allergens
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Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group
A)
Monera
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B)
Plantae
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C)
Fungi
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D)
Animalia
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The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with:
A)
DNA polymerase
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B)
Exonucleases
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C)
DNA ligase
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D)
Endonucleases
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Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in:
A)
Gel electrophoresis
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B)
Spectrophotometry
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C)
Tissue culture
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D)
PCR
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An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use:
A)
Electrophoresis
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B)
Blotting
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C)
Autoradiography
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D)
PCR
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ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is:
A)
Alkaline phosphatase
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B)
Catalase
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C)
DNA probe
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D)
RNase
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What is true about Bt toxin?
A)
The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
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B)
The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut
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C)
Bt protein exists as active toxin in the bacillus
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D)
The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterillise it and thus prevent its multiplication.
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Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin 'A' deficiency
A)
golden rice
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B)
Bt-Brinjal
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C)
Flaw Savr Tomato
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D)
Canola
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The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of:
A)
Ligases
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B)
Restriction enzymes
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C)
Probes
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D)
Selectable markers
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The semilog of per minute growing bacteria is plotted against time. What will the shape of graph?
A)
Sigmoid
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B)
Hyperbolic
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C)
Ascending straight line
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D)
Descending straight line
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Praying mantis is a good example of
A)
Mullerian mimicry
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B)
Warning colouration
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C)
Social insects
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D)
Camouflage
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In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of
A)
Inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment
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B)
Natural selection whereby the arker forms were selected.
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C)
Appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
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D)
Protective mimicry
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Large woody vines are more commonly found in:
A)
Alpine forests
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B)
Temperate forests
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C)
Mangroves
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D)
Tropical rainforests
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Barophilic prokaryotes
A)
Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes
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B)
Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
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C)
Readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of barium
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D)
Occur in water containing high concentrations of barium hydroxide
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The correct sequence of plants in hydrosere is:
A)
Oak ® Lantana ® Volvox ® Hydrilla Pistia ® Scirpus
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B)
Oak ® Lantana ® Scirpus ® Pistia ® Hydrilla ® Volvox
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C)
Volvox ® Hydrilla® Pistia ® Scirpus Lantana ® Oak
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D)
Pistia ® Volvox ® Scirpus ® Hydrilla Oak ® Lantana
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Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?
A)
Fragmentation-Carried out by animisms such as earthworm
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B)
Humification - Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at a very fastrate
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C)
Catabolism - Last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
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D)
Leaching - Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
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Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species?
A)
Mammals
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B)
Fishes
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C)
Reptiles
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D)
Birds
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Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following National Park?
A)
Jim Corbett
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B)
Ranthambhor
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C)
Sunderbans
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D)
Gir
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Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of alcohol permitted for mixing in petrol?
A)
10-15%
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B)
10%
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C)
5%
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D)
2.5%
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Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters is
A)
<3.0 ppm
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B)
<10 ppm
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C)
<100 ppm
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D)
<30 ppm
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