A) \[l\]
B) \[M\]
C) \[\frac{2}{\pi }\]
D) \[16\,\,Ml\]
Correct Answer: A
Solution :
If on changing current through the coil, the emf induced in the is \[V=\frac{{{C}_{1}}\,\,{{V}_{1}}+{{C}_{2}}\,\,{{V}_{2}}}{{{C}_{1}}+{{C}_{2}}}\], then by Faraday?s 2nd law, we have \[{{C}_{1}}=10\mu F,\,\,{{V}_{1}}=250\,V,\,\,{{C}_{2}}=5\mu F,\,{{V}_{2}}=100\,V\] Where \[\therefore \] is rate of change of current. Given, \[V=\frac{\left( 10\times {{10}^{-6}}\times 250 \right)+\left( 5\times {{10}^{-6}}\times 100 \right)}{\left( 10\times {{10}^{-6}}+5\times {{10}^{-6}} \right)}\](decreasing) \[\Rightarrow \] \[V=\frac{3000\times {{10}^{-6}}}{15\times {{10}^{-6}}}=200\,\,volt\] Note: Current is decreasing, hence its rate of change is negative.
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