question_answer 1) The measured value of length of a simple pendulum is 20 cm known with 2 mm accuracy. The time for 50 oscillations was measured to be 40 s with Is resolution. Calculate, the percentage accuracy in the determination of acceleration due to gravity g from the above measurements.
A)
6.0%
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B)
7.2%
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C)
9.4%
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D)
10.2%
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question_answer 2)
Which of the following curves represents the variation of total energy with radius r for a satellite in a circular orbit?
A)
P
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B)
Q
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C)
R
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D)
S
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question_answer 3) In a container, 200 g of aluminum (specific heat 900 J/kg. K) at \[{{100}^{o}}C\] is mixed with 50 g of water at \[{{20}^{o}}C\], with the mixture thermally isolated. Find the entropy change of the aluminum-water system.
A)
+2.8 J/K
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B)
-22.1 J/K
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C)
+24.9 J/K
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 4)
Figure shows three particles with charges\[{{q}_{1}}=2Q,\,{{q}_{2}}=-2Q\] and \[{{q}_{3}}=-4Q\], each a distance d from the origin. Find the net electric field E at the origin.
A)
\[\frac{2.56Q}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{d}^{2}}}\] towards + ve x-axis
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B)
\[\frac{6.93Q}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{d}^{2}}}\] towards + ve x-axis
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C)
\[\frac{6.93Q}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{d}^{2}}}\] towards - ve x-axis
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D)
Zero
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question_answer 5) In Millikans experiment, an oil drop of radius 1.64 am and density \[0.85\,\,g/c{{m}^{3}}\] is suspended when a downward electric field of \[1.9\times {{10}^{5}}\,N/C\] is applied. What is the charge on the drop in terms of e?
A)
-9e
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B)
-7e
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C)
-5e
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D)
-3e
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question_answer 6) A uniformly charged conducting sphere of diameter 1.2 m has a surface charge density of\[8.1\,\mu C/{{m}^{2}}\]. Find the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere.
A)
\[4.1\times {{10}^{6}}N-{{m}^{2}}/C\]
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B)
\[1.3\times {{10}^{4}}N-{{m}^{2}}/C\]
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C)
\[-4.1\times {{10}^{6}}N-{{m}^{2}}/C\]
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D)
Zero
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question_answer 7) A thin non-conducting rod of length 50 cm has a positive charge of uniform linear density\[{{10}^{-12}}C/m\]. Find the electric potential due to the rod at a point, which is at a perpendicular distance of 1.0 cm from one-end of the rod\[({{\varepsilon }_{0}}=8.8\times {{10}^{-12}}F/m)\].
A)
0.02 V
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B)
0.04 V
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C)
0.06 V
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D)
1.02 V
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 8) Arrange the following materials in the increasing order of their resistivity. Copper, Platinum, Silver, Aluminium
A)
Copper, Silver, Platinum, Aluminium
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B)
Silver, Copper, Aluminium, Platinum
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C)
Aluminium, Platinum, Silver, Copper
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D)
Platinum, Aluminium, Copper, Silver
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question_answer 9)
In a given circuit, each cell has an emf of 0.15 V and internal resistance of 0.25 \[\Omega \]. Find the current in the circuit.
A)
0.12 A
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B)
0.012 A
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C)
0.045 A
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D)
0.45 A
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question_answer 10)
The figure shows four directions for the velocity vector v of a positively charged particle moving through a uniform electric field E and a uniform magnetic field B. Of all four directions, which results in a net force of zero?
A)
4
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B)
1
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C)
3
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D)
2
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question_answer 11)
Four conductors carrying 2.0 A of current into or out of the page are shown in the diagram. A path C is indicated for the line integral \[\oint{B.\,ds}\] . Find the value of the integral for the path C.
A)
\[2{{\mu }_{0}}\]
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B)
Zero
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C)
\[-2{{\mu }_{0}}\]
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D)
\[-8{{\mu }_{0}}\]
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question_answer 12)
Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance \[R=9.0\,\Omega \], two identical inductors with inductance L = 4.0 mH, and a battery with emf E = 18 V. Find the ratio of the currents in the circuit just after and long after the switch K is closed.
A)
1/3
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B)
2/3
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C)
1
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D)
4/3
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question_answer 13) An iron rod is subjected to the cycles of magnetisation at the rate of 50 Hz. Given the density of the rod is 8 x 103 kg/m3 and specific heat is \[0.11\times {{10}^{-3}}\] \[cal/k{{g}^{o}}C\]. The rise in temperature per minute, if the area enclosed by the B-H loop corresponds to energy of \[{{10}^{-2}}J\] is
A)
\[{{78}^{o}}C\]
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B)
\[{{88}^{o}}C\]
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C)
\[8.1\,C\]
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 14) A series L-C-R circuit has inductance L = 12 mH, capacitance \[C=1.2\mu F\], and resistance R = 12\[\Omega \]. At what time will the amplitude of the charge oscillations in the circuit be 10% of its initial value?
A)
2.0 ms
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B)
3.0 ms
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C)
4.0 ms
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D)
5.0 ms
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E)
(e) None of the above
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question_answer 15)
A beam of monochromatic light reflects and refracts at point A, as shown in the diagram. Find the angle of refraction at point A.
A)
\[{{60}^{o}}\]
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B)
\[{{45}^{o}}\]
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C)
\[{{30}^{o}}\]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 16) The electric field of a certain plane electromagnetic wave is given by \[{{E}_{x}}=0\], \[{{E}_{y}}=0,\,{{E}_{z}}=2.0\cos \,[\pi \times {{10}^{15}}(t-x/c)]\] . The wave is propagating in the positive x-direction. Find the expressions for the components of the magnetic field of the wave.
A)
\[{{B}_{x}}=0,\,{{B}_{y}}=6.7\times {{10}^{-9}}\cos [\pi \times {{10}^{16}}(t-x/c)]\],\[{{B}_{z}}=0\]
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B)
\[{{B}_{x}}=0,\,{{B}_{y}}=-6.7\times {{10}^{-9}}\cos [\pi \times {{10}^{15}}(t-x/c)]\],\[{{B}_{z}}=0\]
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C)
\[{{B}_{x}}=0,\,{{B}_{y}}=0,\,{{B}_{z}}=2.0\cos [\pi \times {{10}^{15}}(t-x/c)]\]
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D)
\[{{B}_{x}}=0,\,{{B}_{y}}=0,\,{{B}_{z}}=-6.7\times {{10}^{-9}}\cos [\pi (t-x/c)]\]
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question_answer 17) A beam of parallel light rays is incident on a solid transparent sphere of refractive index \[\mu \]. If a point image is produced just at the back of the sphere, what is the refractive index of the sphere?
A)
2.0
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B)
2.3
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C)
2.5
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D)
2.7
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question_answer 18) In a double slit experiment, the distance between slits is 5.0 mm and the slits are 1.0 m from the screen. Two interference patterns can be seen on the screen; one due to light with wavelength 480 nm and the other due to light with wavelength 600 nm. Find the separation on the screen between the third order bright fringes of the two interference patterns.
A)
0.072 mm
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B)
0.063 mm
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C)
0.037 mm
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D)
0.019 mm
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question_answer 19) Find the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with a kinetic energy of 120 eV.
A)
95pm
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B)
102pm
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C)
112pm
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D)
124pm
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question_answer 20) A LED is constructed from a p-n junction based on a certain semi-conducting material whose energy gap is 1.9 eV. Find the wavelength of the emitted light.
A)
\[2.9\times {{10}^{-9}}m\]
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B)
\[1.6\times {{10}^{-8}}m\]
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C)
\[6.5\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]
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D)
\[9.1\times {{10}^{-5}}m\]
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question_answer 21) The energy spectrum of \[\beta \]-particle [number N(E,) as a function of \[\beta \]-energy E] emitted from a radioactive source is
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 22) For the following fission reaction\[^{235}U+n{{\xrightarrow{{}}}^{140}}Ce{{+}^{94}}Zr+2n\],Find the disintegration energy. \[({{M}_{U}}=23502\,u,\,{{M}_{n}}=1.0\,u,\,\,{{M}_{Ce}}=139.9\,\,u\],\[{{M}_{Zr}}=93.9\,\,u)\]
A)
205 MeV
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B)
198 MeV
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C)
123 MeV
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D)
89 MeV
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question_answer 23) Find the minimum frequency of a photon that can produce a singly ionized He-atom.
A)
\[5.6\times {{10}^{10}}Hz\]
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B)
\[6.9\times {{10}^{12}}Hz\]
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C)
\[7.3\times {{10}^{13}}Hz\]
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D)
\[1.31\,\,\,{{10}^{15}}Hz\]
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question_answer 24) The work functions of four materials \[{{M}_{1}},{{M}_{2}},{{M}_{3}}\] and \[{{M}_{4}}\] are 1.9 eV, 2.5 eV, 3.6 eV, and 4.2 eV, respectively. Which of these material is (are) useful in a photocell to detect visible light?
A)
\[{{M}_{1}}\]only
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B)
\[{{M}_{1}}\] and \[{{M}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[{{M}_{3}}\] only
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 25) Two amplifiers are connected in series. The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 while the second one has voltage gain of 20. If the input signal is 0.01 V, calculate the voltage of the output AC signal.
A)
2V
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B)
3V
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C)
4V
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D)
5V
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question_answer 26) Amplitude modulation has
A)
one carrier with two side band frequencies
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B)
one carrier
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C)
one carrier with infinite frequencies
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D)
one carrier with high frequency
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question_answer 27) Calculate the focal length of reading glasses of a person, if his distance of distinct vision is 75 cm.
A)
25.6 cm
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B)
37.5 cm
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C)
75.2 cm
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D)
100.4 cm
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question_answer 28)
A battery of V voltage is connected across the potentiometer wire AC of total resistance \[{{R}_{0}}\]as shown. Calculate, the potential across the resistance R, if the sliding contact point B is exactly at the middle of the potentiometer wire.
A)
\[\frac{2VR}{4{{R}_{0}}+R}\]
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B)
\[\frac{4VR}{2{{R}_{0}}+R}\]
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C)
\[\frac{2VR}{{{R}_{0}}+4R}\]
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D)
\[\frac{4V{{R}_{0}}}{{{R}_{0}}+2R}\]
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question_answer 29) The diameter of a given wire is measured by a screw gauze. The three measurements of the diameter give the reading in cm as 0.036, 0.035 and 0.037. What is the percentage error of the measurement?
A)
1.8%
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B)
2.8%
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C)
3.2%
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D)
4.6%
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question_answer 30) Which of the following ratios has the dimension of mass?
A)
Volume / Density
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B)
Surface tension/\[{{\left( Angular\text{ }velocity \right)}^{2}}\]
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C)
Linear momentum / Force
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D)
Pressure / Power
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question_answer 31) The distance x of a particle moving in one I dimension under the action of constant force is related to the time t by the relation,\[t=\sqrt{x}+3\]Find the displacement of the particle when its velocity is 6.0 m/s.
A)
9.0m
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B)
6.0m
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C)
4.0 m
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D)
0.0 m
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question_answer 32) Which of the following pairs of vectors are parallel?
A)
\[A=\hat{i}-2\hat{j}\,;\,B=\hat{i}-5\hat{j}\]
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B)
\[A=\hat{i}-10\hat{j}\,;\,B=2\hat{i}-5\hat{j}\]
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C)
\[A=\hat{i}-5\hat{j}\,;\,B=\hat{i}-10\hat{j}\]
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D)
\[A=\hat{i}-5\hat{j}\,;\,B=2\hat{i}-10\hat{j}\]
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question_answer 33) From the top of a tower of height 10 m, one fire is shot horizontally with a speed of \[5\sqrt{3}\]m/s. Another fire is shot upwards at angle of \[{{60}^{o}}\] with the horizontal at some interval of time with the same speed of \[5\sqrt{3}\] m/s. The shots collide in air at a certain point. The time interval between the two fires is
A)
2s
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B)
1 s
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C)
0.5 s
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D)
0.25 s
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question_answer 34) A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both ends. The tube is rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity co. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is.
A)
\[\frac{1}{2}M{{\omega }^{2}}L\]
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B)
\[M{{\omega }^{2}}L\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{4}M{{\omega }^{2}}L\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{6}M{{\omega }^{2}}L\]
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question_answer 35) In an elastic collision, a neutron collides with carbon. How much energy (in percentage) of neutron is transferred to carbon?
A)
90%
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B)
45%
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C)
28 %
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D)
12%
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question_answer 36) A block of mass 1.0 kg moving on a horizontal surface with speed 2m/s enters a rough surface. The retarding force \[({{F}_{r}})\] on the block is given by \[{{F}_{r}}=-\frac{k}{x};\,10\,m<x<100\,m\]\[=0\,;\,x<10\,m\] and \[x>100\,\,m\],where, \[k=0.5\,J\]. The kinetic energy of the block at \[x=100\,m\] is
A)
4.5 J
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B)
2.5 J
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C)
0.5 J
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D)
1.5 J
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question_answer 37)
Two uniform rods of different materials \[{{M}_{1}}\] and \[{{M}_{2}}\] have lengths 2 m and 3 m, respectively. The mass per unit length of rods \[{{M}_{1}}\] and \[{{M}_{2}}\] are 1 kg and 2 kg respectively. If the rods are arranged, as shown, the position of the cm relative to point O is
A)
4.9m
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B)
3.9 m
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C)
2.9 m
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D)
2.2 m
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question_answer 38) If we consider the mass of black hole as the mass of the earth \[({{M}_{e}})\], then the radius of black hole would be
A)
\[\frac{2G{{M}_{e}}}{{{C}^{2}}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{2G{{M}_{e}}}{3{{C}^{2}}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{G{{M}_{e}}}{3{{C}^{2}}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{G{{M}_{e}}}{{{C}^{2}}}\]
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question_answer 39) The surface tension and vapour pressure of water at \[{{30}^{o}}C\] are \[7.2\times {{10}^{-2}}\] N/m and\[2.4\times {{10}^{3}}\], respectively. What is the radius of the smallest droplet of water which can be formed without evaporating at \[{{30}^{o}}C\]?
A)
\[1.6\times {{10}^{-2}}m\]
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B)
\[2.9\times {{10}^{-3}}m\]
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C)
\[5.6\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]
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D)
\[6.0\times {{10}^{-5}}m\]
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question_answer 40) The temperature on a Fahrenheit scale is\[98.6{{\,}^{o}}F\]? What is the corresponding temperature on a kelvin scale?
A)
310.2 K
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B)
280.3 K
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C)
420.5 K
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D)
370.6 K
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question_answer 41) Two spherical bodies P (radius 9 cm) and Q (radius 27 cm) are at temperatures \[{{T}_{p}}\] and \[{{T}_{Q}}\]respectively. If the maximum intensities in the emission spectra of P and Q are, respectively, at 300 nm and 900 nm, what is the ratio of the rate of energy radiated by P to that by Q?
A)
6
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B)
7
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C)
8
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D)
9
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question_answer 42)
The four curves \[{{A}_{1}},{{A}_{2}},{{A}_{3}}\] and \[{{A}_{4}}\] are shown on p-V diagram. Which of the curves represents adiabatic process?
A)
\[{{A}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[{{A}_{4}}\]
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C)
\[{{A}_{1}}\]
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D)
\[{{A}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 43) The mean free path of a gas molecule at STP is\[2.1\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]. Find the diameter of the molecule. (Boltzmann constant\[=1.4\times {{10}^{23}}J/K\])
A)
\[5.2\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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B)
\[4.6\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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C)
\[3.5\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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D)
\[2.1\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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question_answer 44) For a damped harmonic oscillator of mass 200 g, the values of spring constant and damping constant are, respectively, 90 N/m and 0.04 kg/s. The time taken for its amplitude of vibration of drop to half of its initial value is (log, 2 = 0.693)
A)
7.0s
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B)
14.2 s
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C)
15.9s
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D)
26.6 s
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question_answer 45)
For the following reference circle, the equation of simple harmonic motion (SHM) is
A)
\[x=-2\sin (2\pi t+\pi /4)\]
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B)
\[x=-2\sin (3t+\pi /3)\]
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C)
\[x=-2\cos (\pi /6-t)\]
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D)
\[x=-2\cos \pi t\]
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question_answer 46) Find the equation of a plane progressive wave travelling along positive: c-axis having amplitude 0.04m, frequency 120 Hz and speed 360 m/s.
A)
\[y=0.04\sin 2\pi (120\,t-x/3)\]
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B)
\[y=-0.04\sin 2\pi (110\,t-x/3)\]
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C)
\[y=0.04\sin 2\pi (120\,t+x/3)\]
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D)
\[y=0.04\sin \,\pi (120\,t-x/3)\]
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question_answer 47) A 70 cm long sonometer wire is in unison with a tuning fork. If the length of the wire is decreased by 1.0 cm, it produces 4 beats per second with the same tuning fork. The frequency of the tuning fork is
A)
186 Hz
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B)
220 Hz
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C)
276 Hz
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D)
312 Hz
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question_answer 48) Two open organ pipes on sounding together produce 5 beats per second. If the length of the smaller pipe is 0.66m, the length of the larger pipe would be
A)
0.95m
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B)
0.85 m
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C)
0.75 m
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D)
0.67 m
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question_answer 49) An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one-fifth the velocity of sound. What is the percentage change in the apparent frequency?
A)
Increase by 0.5 %
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B)
Decrease by 5 %
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C)
Increase by 20 %
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D)
Increase by 50 %
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question_answer 50)
A steel wire of 1.5 m long of diameter 0.25 cm and a brass wire of 1.0 m long of diameter 0.25 m are loaded as shown. Calculate, the elongation of the brass wire.
A)
\[1.1\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]
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B)
\[1.3\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]
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C)
\[1.5\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]
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D)
\[1.7\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]
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question_answer 51) Which one of the following is an example of \[{{3}^{o}}\] amide?
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 52)
End product of the following reaction is
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 53)
The major product of the reaction of with electrophile, \[{{E}^{+}}\], is
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 54)
End product of the following sequence of reaction is
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 55) Which one is least reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
A)
o-aminochlorobenzene
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B)
Chlorobenzene
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C)
o-nitrochlorobenzene
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D)
2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene
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question_answer 56) A liquid which decomposes at its boiling point can be purified by
A)
distillation at atmospheric pressure
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B)
distillation under reduced pressure
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C)
fractional distillation
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D)
steam distillation
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question_answer 57) Which of the following compounds undergoes nitration more readily?
A)
Benzene
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B)
Benzoic acid
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C)
Nitrobenzene
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D)
Toluene
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question_answer 58) Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to \[C{{O}_{2}}\] is -393.5 kJ \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. What amount of heat will be released upon formation of 35.2 g of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] from carbon and oxygen gas?
A)
214.8kJ
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B)
314.8kJ
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C)
414.8kJ
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D)
514.8kJ
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question_answer 59) One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from initial volume of 1 L to 10 L. The \[\Delta E\] for this process is (R = 2 cal\[mo{{l}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}}\])
A)
163.7 cal
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B)
zero
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C)
138.1 cal
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D)
9 L atom
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question_answer 60) For a certain process, and \[\Delta H=178\,kJ\]\[\Delta S=160\,J/K\]. What is the minimum temperature at which the process is spontaneous (assuming that \[\Delta H\] and \[\Delta S\] do not vary with temperature)
A)
2112.3 K
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B)
136.7K
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C)
275.8 K
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D)
1112.5K
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question_answer 61) A person inhales 640 g of \[{{O}_{2}}\] per day. If all \[{{O}_{2}}\]is used for converting sugar into \[C{{O}_{2}}\] and\[{{H}_{2}}O\], how much sucrose \[({{C}_{12}}{{H}_{22}}{{O}_{11}})\] is consumed in the body in one day and what is the heat evolved? \[\Delta H\] for combustion of sucrose \[=-5645\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
A)
530 g, 9403.34 kJ
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B)
570 g, 9408.34 kJ
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C)
500 g, 9402.27 kJ
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D)
520 g, 9435.21 kJ
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question_answer 62) Copper crystallises in a face centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm?
A)
157
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B)
181
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C)
108
done
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D)
128
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question_answer 63) For the set of reactions,(i) \[A+BC\,;\] (ii) \[C+B\xrightarrow[{}]{{{k}_{3}}}D,\]\[{{k}_{1}}\,[A][B]-{{k}_{2}}[C]-{{k}_{3}}[C][B]\] is equal to
A)
\[\frac{-d\,[A]}{dt}\]
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B)
\[\frac{-d\,[B]}{dt}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{d\,[C]}{dt}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{d\,[D]}{dt}\]
done
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 64) For the reaction, \[2{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\xrightarrow{{}}4N{{O}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}};\] the rate is directly proportional to \[[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}]\]. At\[{{45}^{o}}C\], 90% of the \[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\] reacts in 3600 seconds. The value of the rate constant is
A)
\[3.2\times {{10}^{-4}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[6.4\times {{10}^{-4}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[8.5\times {{10}^{-4}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
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D)
\[12.8\times {{10}^{-4}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 65) What happens in a steady state?
A)
Heat is evolved
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B)
The concentration of an intermediate is constant
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C)
Product is being formed faster than reactants are regenerated
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 66) Nitrogen gas is physically adsorbed on iron at \[{{190}^{o}}C\] but chemisorbed to form a nitride at
A)
\[{{250}^{o}}C\]
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B)
\[{{300}^{o}}C\]
done
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C)
\[{{500}^{o}}C\]
done
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D)
\[{{190}^{o}}C\]
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question_answer 67) In the equilibrium, \[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}(g)2N{{O}_{2}}(g)\]the \[{{N}_{3}}{{O}_{4}}\] is fifty per cent dissociated at \[{{60}^{o}}C\]. What will be the value of \[{{K}_{p}}\] at this temperature and one atmosphere?
A)
0.33 atm
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B)
1.33 atm
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C)
2.33 atm
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D)
3.33 atm
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question_answer 68) 28 g of \[{{N}_{2}}\] and 6 g of \[{{H}_{2}}\] were mixed. At equilibrium, 17 g \[N{{H}_{3}}\] was produced. The weights of \[{{N}_{2}}\] and \[{{H}_{2}}\] at equilibrium are respectively
A)
11 g, 0 g
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B)
1 g, 3 g
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C)
14 g, 3 g
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D)
11 g, 3 g
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question_answer 69) The equilibrium constant for the reaction\[2G+JD+2T\] is \[1.5\times {{10}^{3}}\]. When 1.0 mole of G, 2.0 mole of J and 0.5 mole of D are put in a 1.0 L flask and allowed to reach equilibrium, then the equilibrium concentration of T is
A)
0.039
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B)
0.078
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C)
2
done
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D)
5
done
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E)
None of the above
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F)
done
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question_answer 70) The value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction, \[{{N}_{2}}+2{{O}_{2}}2N{{O}_{2}}\] is 100. The equilibrium constant for the reaction \[N{{O}_{2}}\frac{1}{2}{{N}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}\] will be
A)
100
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B)
0.010
done
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C)
0.10
done
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D)
1000
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question_answer 71) Predict the effect of increased pressure on the following reaction equilibrium, \[2S{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2S{{O}_{3}}(g)\]
A)
Equilibrium shift to the right
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B)
Equilibrium shift to the left
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C)
No effect on equilibrium
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D)
Reaction stops
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question_answer 72) What mass of \[{{N}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\] can be oxidised to \[{{N}_{2}}\] by\[24.0\,g\,{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\], which is reduced to \[Cr(OH)_{4}^{-}\]?
A)
194.2 g
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B)
2.97 g
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C)
2.40 g
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D)
32 g
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E)
None of these above
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question_answer 73) Given the reaction for the discharge of a cobalt-cadmium battery \[2Co{{(OH)}_{3}}+Cd+2{{H}_{2}}O\xrightarrow{{}}\]\[2Co{{(OH)}_{2}}+Cd{{(OH)}_{2}}\] What species is oxidised during the discharge of the battery?
A)
\[C{{o}^{3+}}\]
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B)
\[C{{o}^{2+}}\]
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C)
Cd
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D)
\[C{{d}^{2+}}\]
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question_answer 74) What is the oxidation number of vanadium in\[R{{b}_{4}}Na[H{{V}_{10}}{{O}_{28}}]\]?
A)
+8
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B)
+5
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C)
+3
done
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D)
+1
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question_answer 75) The compound not acting as reducing agent is
A)
\[S{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[Se{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[Te{{O}_{2}}\]
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 76) Choose the correct alternative for the compounds: \[[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}]\]and \[{{[Ni{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
A)
Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic Tetrahedral, Diamagnetic
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B)
Tetrahedral, Diamagnetic Square planar, Diamagnetic
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C)
Square planar, Diamagnetic Square planar, Paramagnetic
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D)
Trigonal pyramidal Square pyramidal
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question_answer 77) There are no S?S bond in
A)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}\]
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B)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{5}^{2-}\]
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C)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{3}^{2-}\]
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D)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}\]
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question_answer 78) The correct order of acid strength
A)
\[C{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}>S{{O}_{2}}>{{P}_{4}}{{O}_{10}}\]
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B)
\[C{{O}_{2}}>{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}>S{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[N{{a}_{2}}O>,MgO>A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{K}_{2}}O>CaO>MgO\]
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question_answer 79) Which of the following compound is expected to be coloured?
A)
\[A{{g}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]
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B)
\[Cu{{F}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[Mg{{F}_{2}}\]
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D)
CuCI
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question_answer 80) Which one of the following exhibits the maximum covalent character?
A)
\[FeC{{l}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[MgC{{l}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[SnC{{l}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 81) Which one of the following is paramagnetic? I
A)
NO
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B)
\[N{{O}^{+}}\]
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C)
\[N{{O}^{-}}\]
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D)
\[{{N}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 82) Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of
A)
both belong to same group
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B)
diagonal relationship
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C)
lanthanide contraction
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D)
having similar chemical properties
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question_answer 83) In a square planar complex of the type [Mabcx], the number of geometrical isomers can be
A)
no geometrical isomer
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B)
three
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C)
two
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D)
four
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question_answer 84) First noble gas compound prepared by Neil Bartlett is
A)
\[O_{2}^{+}PtF_{6}^{-}\]
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B)
\[O_{3}^{+}PtF_{6}^{-}\]
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C)
\[X{{e}^{+}}PtF_{6}^{-}\]
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D)
\[Xe{{F}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 85) Holmes signal uses chemical compound
A)
calcium carbide
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B)
calcium phosphide
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C)
calcium carbide and calcium phosphide
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D)
calcium carbide and aluminium carbide
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question_answer 86) Ultimate product is obtained on heating \[{{B}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]with \[N{{H}_{3}}\] is
A)
\[{{B}_{3}}{{N}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}\]
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B)
\[{{(B-N)}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{N}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]
done
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D)
\[BH_{4}^{-}\]
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question_answer 87) Which is least stable compound?
A)
\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[GaC{{l}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[\ln C{{l}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[TIC{{l}_{3}}\]
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question_answer 88) A commercial sample of \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] marked as 100 volume hydrogen peroxide, it means that
A)
\[1\,mL\,{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] will give \[100\,mL\,{{O}_{2}}\] at STP
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B)
1 L of \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] will give \[100\,mL\,{{O}_{2}}\] at STP
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C)
1 L of \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] will give 22.4 L \[{{O}_{2}}\] at STP
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D)
1 mL of \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] will give 1 mole of \[{{O}_{2}}\] at STP
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 89) Find wrong statement
A)
\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\] is used in glass industry
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B)
\[KHC{{O}_{3}}\] is acidic salt
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C)
\[{{K}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\] can be prepared by Solvay process
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D)
\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\] is used for metal refining
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question_answer 90) Which of the following facts about the complex \[[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]C{{l}_{3}}\] is wrong?
A)
The complex is paramagnetic
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B)
The complex is an outer orbital complex
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C)
The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate
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D)
The complex involves \[{{d}^{2}}s{{p}^{3}}\] hybridisation and is octahedral in shape
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question_answer 91)
In the given reaction, the compound A is
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 92) What reagent(s) can be used to convert 2 methyl pentan-1-ol into 2-methyl pentanal?
A)
\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]
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B)
\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]
done
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C)
\[Cr{{O}_{3}}\]-pyridine
done
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D)
\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]
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question_answer 93) Which one of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 94) Which of the following names does not fit a real name?
A)
3-methyl-3-hexanone
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B)
4-methyl-S-hexanone
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C)
3-methyl-3-hexanol
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D)
2-methyl cyclohexanone
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question_answer 95) Major product of the reaction is \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}C=C{{H}_{2}}\xrightarrow{ICI}A\]
A)
2-chloro-1-iodo-2-methyl propane
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B)
1 -chloro-2-iodo-2-methyl propane
done
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C)
1, 2-dichloro-2-methyS propane
done
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D)
1, 2-diiodo-2-methyl propane
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 96) The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of primary amines is
A)
potassium cyanide
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B)
potassium phthaiimide
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C)
sodium azide
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D)
sodium nitrite
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question_answer 97)
The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compound is
A)
\[III<I<II\]
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B)
\[III<II<I\]
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C)
\[I<II<III\]
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D)
\[II<I<III\]
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question_answer 98) Which of the following reactions involves the formation of a methyl ester from a carboxylic acid?
A)
Hell-Volhard-Zeiinsky reaction
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B)
Hunsdiecker reaction
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C)
Reaction with ammonia
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D)
Reaction with diazomethane
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question_answer 99) An ether solution of \[PhC{{H}_{3}}(I),\,PhN{{H}_{2}}(II)\]and \[PhOH(III)\] is extracted with aqueous\[NaOH\]. The ether layer will contain what compound(s) after the extraction?
A)
Only III
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B)
I + II
done
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C)
II + III
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D)
I + III
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question_answer 100)
Final major product of the following reactions is
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 101) Nistch was able to get strawberries of different shapes by
A)
splitting the ovary
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B)
removing the perianth
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C)
selectively removing some carpels
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D)
inserting an alcohol dipped needle into the ovary
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question_answer 102) Plants can be made disease resistant through
A)
colchicine treatment
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B)
X-ray treatment
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C)
breeding with wild relatives
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D)
hormone treatment
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question_answer 103) Yeast is used for commercial production of
A)
methanol
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B)
ethanol
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C)
butanol
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D)
citric acid
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question_answer 104) Microbe used as clot buster during myocardial infraction
A)
Penicillium notatum
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B)
Clostridium butyl icum
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C)
Streptococcus
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D)
Acetobacter aceti
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question_answer 105) ICBN stands for
A)
Indian Council of British Nature
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B)
International Code for Biological Nomenclature
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C)
International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
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D)
Indian Code for Biological Nomenclature
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question_answer 106) Which pair of plants placed in the family- Solanaceae?
A)
Datura and Petunia
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B)
Datura and Asphodelus
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C)
Petunia and Sesbania
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D)
Petunia and Pisum
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question_answer 107) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)
Species diversity, in general, increases from poles to the equator
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B)
Conventional taxonomic methods are equally suitable for higher plants and microorganisms
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C)
Indias share of global species diversity is about 18%.
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D)
There are about 25000 known species of plants in India
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question_answer 108) PAE stands for
A)
Photosynthetically Adaptable Radiation
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B)
Photosynthetically Accessible Radiation
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C)
Photosynthetic Activity Radiometry
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D)
Photosynthetically Active Radiation
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question_answer 109) Which of the following is the largest taxon among plants in terms of the number of species?
A)
Algae
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B)
Mosses
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C)
Ferns
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D)
Fungi
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question_answer 110) Which of the following processes will be most adversely affected if microorganisms are removed from a forest ecosystem?
A)
Solar energy fixation and nutrient cycling
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B)
Decomposition of organic matter and photosynthesis
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C)
Nitrogen-fixation and decomposition of organic matter
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D)
Carbon assimilation and nitrogen-fixation
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question_answer 111) Residual, persistent nucellus present in some seeds is known as
A)
scutellum
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B)
perisperm
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C)
tapetum
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D)
coleoptile
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question_answer 112) Adventitious buds at the leaf notches help to propagate the plant of
A)
potato
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B)
Agave
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C)
Bryophyllum
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D)
Cactus
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question_answer 113) Gametogenesis refers to the process of
A)
fusion of two gametes
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B)
fusion of two gametangia
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C)
formation of two types of gametes
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D)
formation of male gamete only
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question_answer 114) Stilt roots are found in
A)
Rhizospora
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B)
maize
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C)
banyan
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D)
Colocasia
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question_answer 115) In a monocot leaf stomata are present
A)
only on abaxial surface
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B)
only on adaxial surface
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C)
on both the surfaces
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D)
more on abaxial surface
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question_answer 116) The inflorescence in which sessile flowers are borne acropetally on an elongated rachis, it is called
A)
raceme
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B)
spike
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C)
catkin
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D)
corymb
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question_answer 117) Ring-like secondary cell wall thickening is referred to as
A)
spiral
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B)
helical
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C)
scalariform
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D)
annular
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question_answer 118) Aspergillus niger is used for commercial and industrial production of
A)
acetic acid
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B)
butyric acid
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C)
citric acid
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D)
lactic acid
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question_answer 119) Statin, a blood-cholesterol lowering agent, is commercially obtained from
A)
Trichoderma polysporum
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B)
Acetobacter aceti
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C)
Clostridium butyricum
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D)
Monascus purpureus
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question_answer 120) Adenylic acid is a / an
A)
nitrogen base
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B)
nucleoside
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C)
nucleotide
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D)
amino acid
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question_answer 121) That plants could be grown to maturity in a defined nutrient solution was for the first time demonstrated by
A)
Priestley
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B)
Van Sacchs
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C)
Ingenhausz
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D)
Van Niel
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question_answer 122) In purple and green bacteria, oxygen is not evolved during photosynthesis because hydrogen donor is
A)
\[{{H}_{2}}O\]
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B)
\[{{H}_{2}}S\]
done
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C)
\[N{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[C{{H}_{4}}\]
done
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question_answer 123) In PS-I, the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at
A)
650 nm
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B)
660 nm
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C)
680 nm
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D)
700 nm
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question_answer 124) The idea of two pigment systems in light reaction of photosynthesis was given by
A)
Arnon
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B)
Hill
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C)
Blackman
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 125) In respiration, more than one R.Q. value results from the use of
A)
glucose
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B)
sucrose
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C)
fat
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D)
organic acid
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question_answer 126) In lactic acid fermentation, the number of ATP formed by the oxidation of NADH is
A)
eight
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B)
six
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C)
three
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D)
Nil
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question_answer 127) During aerobic respiration, acetyl Co-A is synthesized in
A)
cytosol
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B)
mitochondrial matrix.
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C)
glyoxysomal matrix
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D)
perichondrial space
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question_answer 128) The cell attaining their maximal size in terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic modification belong to
A)
meristematic phase of growth
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B)
elongation phase of growth
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C)
maturation phase of growth
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 129) Spraying sugarcane crop with a plant hormone increases the length of the stem, thus increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre. The plant hormone is
A)
gibberellin ensymes
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B)
auxin
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C)
cytokinin
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D)
abscisic acid
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question_answer 130) The principal function of Golgi apparatus is
A)
producing enzymes
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B)
protein synthesis
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C)
synthesis of lipids
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D)
packaging materials
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question_answer 131) A scorpioid cyme having all the flowers in the same plane is
A)
rhipidium
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B)
bostryx
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C)
cincinnus
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D)
dreponium
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question_answer 132) Colletrotrichum is an example of
A)
Basidiomycetes
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B)
Deuteromycetes
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C)
Ascomycetes
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D)
Phycomycetes
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question_answer 133) A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through
A)
hydrogen bond
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B)
glycosidic bond
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C)
phosphate diester bond
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D)
peptide bond
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question_answer 134) A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
A)
translocation
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B)
inversion
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C)
crossing-over
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D)
duplication
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question_answer 135) Cell cycle includes the sequence
A)
\[S,{{G}_{1}},{{G}_{2}},M\]
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B)
\[S,M,{{G}_{1}},{{G}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[{{G}_{1}},S,{{G}_{2}},M\]
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D)
\[M,{{G}_{1}},{{G}_{2}},S\]
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question_answer 136) When the concentration of the solutes is low in plant cell, absorption of water is
A)
retarded
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B)
increased
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C)
normal
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D)
absent
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question_answer 137) A citizen group called Friends of the Arcata Marsh (FOAM) basically belongs to
A)
Germany
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B)
USA
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C)
Canada
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D)
UK
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question_answer 138) Which of the following is an example of alien species invading a new ecosystem resulting in biodiversity losses?
A)
Introduction of Nile Perch into Lake Victoria in East Africa
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B)
Introduction of Water Hyacinth into India
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C)
Introduction of African Catfish into Indian rivers
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 139) The prime contaminants in lakes eutrophied by sewage and agricultural wastes are
A)
sulphates and phosphates
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B)
nitrates and sulphates
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C)
nitrates and phosphates
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D)
nitrates and carbonates
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question_answer 140) The process of nutrient enrichment of water, and subsequent loss of species diversity is referred to as
A)
bio concentration
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B)
bio magnification
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C)
eutrophication
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D)
nitrification
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question_answer 141) In which cell organelles the genome system is autonomous?
A)
Ribosomes and chloroplasts
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B)
Mitochondria and chloroplasts
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C)
Mitochondria and ribosomes
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D)
Golgi bodies and ribosomes
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question_answer 142) Who gave the concept that for a double stranded DNA the ratio between A = T and G = C are equal and constant?
A)
Watson and Crick
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B)
Wilkins and Franklin
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C)
Wilkins and Chargaff
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D)
Chargaff
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question_answer 143) In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygotes AaBb \[\times \] AaBb, if we get 3 : 1 ratio among the off springs, the reason for this may be
A)
polygenes
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B)
linked genes
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C)
pleiotropic genes
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D)
hypostatic genes
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question_answer 144) What result Mendel would have got, had he self-pollinated a tall \[{{F}_{2}}\] -plant?
A)
TT and Tt
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B)
All Tf
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C)
AII TT
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D)
All ff
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question_answer 145) Which of the antibiotic is not produced by one of the Monera (Streptomyces)?
A)
Erythromycin
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B)
Penicillin
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C)
Streptomycin
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D)
Tetramydn
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question_answer 146) Entomophilous flowers are
A)
brightly coloured and produce nector
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B)
colourless
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C)
inconspicuous
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D)
odourless
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question_answer 147) Which structural level enables the proteins to function as enzymes?
A)
Primary
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B)
Secondary
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C)
Tertiary
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D)
Quaternary
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question_answer 148) A distinguishing feature of latex cells is that they are
A)
single-celled elements with anastomosing (fusing) branches
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B)
single-celled elements with non anastomosingi branches
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C)
multi-celled elements with anastomosingi branches
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D)
multi-celled elements with non anastomosing branches
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question_answer 149) An organic non-protein cofactor which is easily separable from the apoenzyme is called
A)
prosthetic group
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B)
coenzyme
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C)
ailoenzyme
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 150) An immature male gametophyte differs from a mature male gametophyte in that it
A)
has not yet left the pollen sac
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B)
has not yet germinated and its generative cell has not divided into two male gamete
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C)
is a microspore that has not yet divided by mitosis
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D)
still consist of microsporocyte
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question_answer 151) A stretch of DNA consisting of 10-20 bases is| most appropriately be called as
A)
polynucleotide
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B)
nucleotides
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C)
nucleosides
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D)
oligonucleotide
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question_answer 152) Which biomolecules other than proteins can be catabolised by humans or apes for the production of uric acid?
A)
Carbohydrates
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B)
Lipids
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C)
Nucleic acids
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D)
Vitamins
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question_answer 153) The 51 amino acids of insulin are arranged in
A)
single polypeptide
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B)
two polypeptide having 20 and 31 amino acids
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C)
two polypeptide having 25 and 26 amino acids
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D)
two polypeptide having 18 and 33 amino acids
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question_answer 154) Substrate of an enzyme is
A)
the reactant of the reaction catalysed by the enzyme
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B)
competitive inhibitor of the enzyme
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C)
uncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme
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D)
prosthetic group of the enzyme
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question_answer 155) Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is not true?
A)
Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction
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B)
Enzymes speed up the attainment of equilibrium of the reaction
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C)
Enzyme change the value of equilibrium constant of the reaction
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 156) Mitochondrial porins are located in
A)
the outer membrane
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B)
the inner membrane
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C)
inter-membrane space
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D)
Both outer and inner membranes
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question_answer 157) Of the total number of genes estimated in human genome, nearly 10 percent are contained in
A)
chromosome 11
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B)
chromosome 21
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C)
Y-chromosome
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D)
chromosome 1
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question_answer 158) Human haemoglobin contains
A)
secondary structure
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B)
tertiary structure
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C)
quaternary structure
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 159) Which of the following is correct?
A)
Population change = (Birth + immigration) - (death + emigration)
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B)
Population change = (Birth + immigration) + (death + emigration)
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C)
Population change = (Birth + emigration) + (death - inmigration)
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D)
Population change = (Birth - immigration) - (death + emigration)
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question_answer 160) In order to lessen the suffering of phenylketonurics their diet should have
A)
no phenylalanine and no tyrosine
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B)
low phenylalanine and normal requirement of tyrosine
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C)
normal recommended amount of phenylalanine
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D)
normal recommended amount of both phenylalanine and tyrosine
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question_answer 161) The technique of DNA fingerprinting relies on
A)
repetitive DNA
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B)
mini-satellite DNA
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C)
Both (a) and (b)
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 162) During polynucleotide synthesis by the following enzymes, in which case elongation occurs in \[5\to 3\] direction?
A)
DNA polymerase
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B)
RNA polymerase
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C)
Reverse transcriptase
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 163) Which of the following types of RNA act as adapter molecule
A)
RNA
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B)
rRNA
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C)
mRNA
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D)
pre-mRNA
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question_answer 164) In DNA fingerprinting, the process of DNA hybridisation with the help of specific DNA probe is described as
A)
Western blotting
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B)
Northern blotting
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C)
Southern blotting
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 165) In order to induce the bacterial uptake of plasmids, the bacteria are made competent by first treating with
A)
sodium chloride
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B)
potassium chloride
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C)
magnesium chloride
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D)
calcium chloride
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question_answer 166) HIV, responsible for AIDS in human is a
A)
ss DNA virus
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B)
ds DNA virus
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C)
ss RNA virus
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D)
ds RNA virus
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question_answer 167) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is converted to wRNA by
A)
splicing
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B)
capping
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C)
tailing .
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 168) The immunoglobulin disulfides do not join
A)
two heavy chains
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B)
light chains with heavy chains
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C)
two light chains
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 169) Which of the following techniques is most widely employed to check the progress of a restriction enzyme digestion
A)
Agarose gel electrophoresis
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B)
Centrifugation
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C)
Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
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D)
PCR
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question_answer 170) The sticky ends on each of the two strands of a DNA generated by treatment with restriction enzymes facilitate the action of enzyme
A)
DNA ligase
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B)
endonuclease
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C)
exonuclease
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D)
DNA polymerase
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question_answer 171) Protein encoded by gene cry I Ab controls the infestation of which of the following insects
A)
cotton bollworm
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B)
Anopheles mosquito
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C)
corn borer
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D)
Aedes mosquito
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question_answer 172) The first antibody to appear in the serum following stimulation by antigen is
A)
IgM
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B)
IgG
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C)
IgA
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D)
IgE
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question_answer 173) Which of the following components are involved in allergic reaction
A)
IgE and mast cells
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B)
IgG and mast cells
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C)
IgA and mast cells
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D)
IgG and basophiles
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question_answer 174) The location where B-lymphocytes differentiate and mature is in the
A)
bone marrow
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B)
bursa of fabric us
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C)
Both (a) and (b)
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D)
thymus
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question_answer 175) My asthenia gravis is an example of
A)
viral diseases
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B)
immune deficient diseases
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C)
auto-immune diseases
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D)
allergic reactions
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question_answer 176) Binomial nomenclature means
A)
one name given by two taxonomists
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B)
two names, the Latinized, other of a person
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C)
two names, one scientific, other local
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D)
two word names, the first indicates genus, and other species
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question_answer 177) Which of the following are not eukaryotes?
A)
Monera
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B)
Protista
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C)
Animals
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D)
Plants
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question_answer 178) Name of a disease caused by a bacterium
A)
plague
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B)
mumps
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C)
dengue
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D)
sleeping sickness
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question_answer 179) DPT vaccine, a combination vaccine, is effective in humans against
A)
Diabetes, Polio and Tetanus
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B)
Diphtheria, Plague and Tetanus
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C)
Diphtheria, Pertussis and Typhoid
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D)
Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus
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question_answer 180) The pathogen Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease
A)
influenza
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B)
pneumonia
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C)
plague
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D)
diphtheria
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question_answer 181) Ringworm, a common infectious disease in man causing dry scaly lesions on the skin and scalp, is caused by
A)
bacteria
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B)
roundworms
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C)
filarial worms
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D)
fungi
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question_answer 182) The sound producing organ of bird is called as
A)
syrinx
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B)
larynx
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C)
trachea
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D)
glottis
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question_answer 183) According to IUCN Red list, during the last two decades, the maximum increase in the number of threatened species is among
A)
amphibians
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B)
reptiles
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C)
birds
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D)
mammals
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question_answer 184) Appropriate term for the grafting of tissues/organs between the individuals of different species is known as
A)
allograft
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B)
isograft
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C)
xenograft
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D)
transgraft
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question_answer 185) Sexual reproduction does not occur in
A)
Ascomycetes
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B)
Deuteromycetes
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C)
Basidiomycetes
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D)
Phycomycetes
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question_answer 186) A type of metamorphosis in insects with four developmental stages, i.e., eggs, larva, pupa and adult is
A)
hemimetabolous
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B)
paurometabolous
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C)
holometabolous
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D)
ametabolous
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question_answer 187) Which of the following genetic code has a dual functions-coding Met and acts as initiator codon
A)
UAA
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B)
AUG
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C)
UUU
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D)
UAG
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question_answer 188) The process of conversion of nitrogen to ammonia by the microbes is described as
A)
nitrification
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B)
denitrification
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C)
nitrogen-fixation
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D)
Habers process
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question_answer 189) The type of transport taking place across the bio-membranes without the help of proteins is
A)
facilitated diffusion
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B)
active transport
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C)
simple diffusion
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D)
diffusion via symport
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question_answer 190) 70 S ribosomes occur in
A)
bacteria
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B)
mitochondria
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C)
chloroplasts
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 191) Which of the following are not ureotelic?
A)
Mammals
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B)
Terrestrial amphibians
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C)
Aquatic insects
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D)
Birds
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question_answer 192) The hissardale is a breed of sheep developed by crossing between
A)
Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams
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B)
Marino ewes and Bikaneri rams
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C)
Deccani ewes and Bikaneri rams
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D)
Marino ewes and Apennine rams
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question_answer 193) In habitual alcohol drinkers liver gets damaged because of
A)
accumulation of excess glycogen
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B)
accumulation of excess fat
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C)
excess detoxification
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D)
excess deamination
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question_answer 194) Which is the hormonal method of birth control?
A)
Pill
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B)
IUD
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C)
Vasectomy
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D)
Femidom
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question_answer 195) Sex determination by chromosomal difference in man and Drosophila is by mechanism called
A)
XX-XY
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B)
XX-XO
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C)
ZZ-ZW
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D)
Both (a) and (b)
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question_answer 196) Which of the following set of syndromes show 47 chromosomes in their genetic make up
A)
Downs syndrome, Pataus syndrome, Edwards syndrome
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B)
Turners syndrome, Edwards syndrome, Klinefelters syndrome
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C)
Klinefelters syndrome, Turners syndrome, Edwards syndrome
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 197) The following is/are removed during hemodialysis
A)
urea
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B)
glucose
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C)
amino acid
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 198) Genetic disorder hemophilia is characterized by excessive loss of blood. Which of the following statement is not true in relation to this disease?
A)
It is an autosomal disease
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B)
It is a X-linked disease
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C)
Any of the factor VIII or IX may be absent
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D)
It is a lethal disease
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question_answer 199)
Observe the two structural formulae shown below are
A)
isomers
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B)
epimers
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C)
anomers
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 200) Fish proteins are considered nutritionally superior to most vegetable proteins because they are rich in
A)
all the 20 amino acids
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B)
essential amino acids
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C)
peptide bonds
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D)
polypeptides
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