Which of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
A)
Barna Committee
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B)
Rama Swamy Committee
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C)
Jakri Committee
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D)
Swaran Singh Committee
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The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include:
A)
Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
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B)
Respect for the President
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C)
Respect for the Government
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D)
All the above
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Consider the following statements and state which are correct? 1. Fundamental Duties of the citizens have been adopted by the 44th Amendment of the Constitution. 2. Article 51 'A' contained in Part IV A of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
Codes:
A)
Both 1 and 2 are correct
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B)
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
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C)
Only 1 is correct
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D)
Only 2 is correct
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Which one of the following was not included originally as the Directive Principles in the Constitution of India?
A)
Citizens right to an adequate means of livelihood
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B)
Free and compulsory education to children under 14 years of age
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C)
Free legal aid
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D)
Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and calves
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Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy come into category of 'liberal principles'? 1. The State shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India 2. The State shall protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest 3. The State shall endeavour to secure to all workers a living wage and conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life 4. The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive
Codes:
A)
1, 2, 3
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B)
1, 3, 4
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C)
2, 3, 4
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D)
1, 2, 4
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The enforcement of Directive Principles depends mostly on
A)
The Courts
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B)
An effective opposition in Parliament
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C)
Resources available to the Government
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D)
Public cooperation
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What are the Gandhian Principles incorporated in the Indian Constitution? I. Efforts to be made for the development of weaker or backward sections of the society. II. Prohibition on the use of intoxicating liquor except for medicinal purposes III. Organisation of village panchayats IV. Establishment of cottage and small scale industries in rural areas.
A)
I, III, IV
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B)
I, II, III
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C)
II, III & IV
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D)
All four
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Right to property was eliminated from the List of Fundamental Rights during the tenure of
A)
Mrs. Indira Gandhi
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B)
Rajiv Gandhi
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C)
Charan Singh
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D)
Morarji Desai
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Under the constitution, the Fundamental Rights of the citizen can be restricted but the final authority to decide whether these restrictions are reasonable or not rests with the:
A)
Parliament
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B)
Courts
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C)
Council of Ministers
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D)
President
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Which of the following is/are the provisions of Article 18 of the Constitution of India which pertains to the Right to Equality to the citizens of India?
A)
No title, not being military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State
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B)
No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State
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C)
No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State, shall without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument or office of any kind from or under any foreign State
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D)
All of the above three
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Which of the following are die points of criticism against the Fundamental Rights? 1. The economic and social rights do not find any place in the Chapter on Fundamental Rights. 2. The Fundamental Rights are almost absolute and attach too much importance to the interests of the individual 3. The remedies for the protection of the Fundamental Rights are very expensive and beyond the capacity of the ordinary citizens 4. The Rights are hedged with so many restrictions and limitations that they virtually became ineffective
A)
1, 2, 3
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B)
1, 2, 4
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C)
1, 3, 4
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D)
2, 3, 4
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What was the main judgment of the Supreme Court regarding Parliament's right to amend the Fundamental Rights in the Kesavananda Bharati case
A)
The Supreme Court took away the right of Parliament to amend the Fundamental Rights
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B)
The Supreme Court declared that Parliament had no right to amend the Fundamental Rights
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C)
The Supreme Court upheld the right of Parliament to amend any part of Constitution including Part III of the Constitution but it also declared that Parliament had no right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
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D)
None of the above
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The Right to Freedom of Religion granted by the Indian Constitution implies that the Indian citizens
A)
Not having faith in some religion shall not be appointed to the Government offices
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B)
Have to follow the religion of the State
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C)
Are free to have faith in a religion other than the State religion
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D)
Have the freedom to profess, practice or propagate a religion of their choice
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Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
A)
Liberty of thought
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B)
Liberty of expression
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C)
Liberty of belief
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D)
Economic liberty
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The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in
A)
The speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Puma Swaraj.
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B)
The Nehru Report
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C)
A resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress
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D)
The Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly
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The 'Objective Resolution' adopted by the Constituent Assembly on Jan 22, 1947 was drafted by
A)
Jawaharlal Nehru
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B)
Dr. Ambedkar
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C)
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
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D)
B.N. Rao
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The Constituent Assembly that finally framed India's Constitution was set up
A)
Under the Indian Independence Act.
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B)
Under the Government of India Act, 1935.
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C)
Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.
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D)
by the Queen's Proclamation.
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The functions of the Estimates Committee of Parliament include (i) Presenting annually to Parliament an Economic Survey report on the country's state of economy (ii) Reporting on what economies, improvement in organisation, or administrative reforms can be effected (iii) Examining whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates (iv) Suggesting the form in which estimates should be presented to the Parliament
Codes:
A)
ii, iii
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B)
ii, iii, iv
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C)
i, iii, iv
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D)
All the above
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On which one of the following lists of subjects can the parliament Legislate?
A)
Union List
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B)
Concurrent List
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C)
Residuary subject
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D)
on all these
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The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of the
A)
Ministry of Home affairs
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B)
Minister of Parliamentary affairs
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C)
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
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D)
the President
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Assertion [A]: If the budget presented to the Rajya Sabha is not passed within the stipulated period, the budget proposals are not affected. Reason [R]: In financial matters, the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha. In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct?
A)
Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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B)
If both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
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C)
If A is true but R is false
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clear
D)
If A is false but R is true
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At a joint sitting of Parliament, a bill has to be passed
A)
By a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses
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B)
By a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses
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C)
By a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting
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D)
By a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting
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The purpose of adjournment motion is to
A)
Propose a reduction in the budget
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B)
Seek the approval of the House to a matter of urgent public importance
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C)
Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance
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D)
Seek the leave of the House to introduce a Governmental Bill
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The Parliament of India cannot be regarded as a sovereign body because
A)
Its authority is confined to jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution.
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B)
Laws passed by Parliament can be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
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C)
Of the presence of certain Fundamental Rights of citizens.
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D)
Of all these factors.
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Which one of the Parliamentary committees in India is a 'watchdog' on departmental expenditure and irregularities?
A)
Estimates Committee
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B)
Committee on Public Undertakings
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C)
Public Accounts Committee
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D)
Committee on Public Assurances
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Parliament is empowered to get the following removed 1. Comptroller and Auditor General 2. Supreme Court judges 3. Chairman of UPSC 4. High Court judges
Codes:
A)
1, 2, 3, 4
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B)
1, 2, 4
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C)
2, 4 only
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D)
1, 2
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Which of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection? 1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party 2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party 3. If he is expelled by the party for anti-party activities 4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A)
1, 2, 3 and 4
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B)
1, 2 and 4
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clear
C)
1 3 and 4
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clear
D)
2, 3 and 4
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After a bill passed by the Parliament it is sent to the President for his assent, who can return it for reconsideration to Lok Sabha. But if the Bill is passed again and sent to President for his assent he
A)
Has to sign it.
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B)
Can send the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration for the second time.
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clear
C)
Can submit the same to the people for referendum.
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clear
D)
Can get it nullified through the Supreme Court.
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If there is a deadlock over any Bill between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, the procedure prescribed for resolving the deadlock is that the
A)
President may call a joint sitting of the two Houses in which the matter is decided
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B)
Bill is presented to the President for his decision
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C)
Speaker of the Lok Sabha may call the joint sitting of the two Houses and decide he issue
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D)
Will of the Lok Sabha prevails
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Consider the following statements in respect of the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) 1. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO) consists of the immediate staff of the Prime Minister of India, as well as multiple levels of support staff reporting to the Prime Minister. 2. The PMO is headed by the Principal Secretary. 3. The PMO was originally called the Prime Minister's Secretariat. Which of the statements given above /s are correct?
A)
1, 2 and 3
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clear
B)
2 and 3
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clear
C)
1 only
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D)
1 and 3
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Given below are two statements one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion : Equality before law is not applicable to the President of India. Reason (R): The President of India enjoys special powers and privileges under the Constitution. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct:
A)
Both and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of
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clear
B)
Both and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of .
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clear
C)
is true but (R) is false.
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clear
D)
is false but (R) is true.
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The Vice-President's letter of resignation is to be addressed to the
A)
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
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B)
Chief Justice of India
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C)
President
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D)
Speaker
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Which one of the following powers can be exercised by both the President and the Governor?
A)
Power to remit a sentence in an offence relating to a matter on the State list
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B)
Power to pardon a sentence by court material
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C)
Power to commute a sentence of death in certain circumstances
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D)
Power to remit a sentence by court martial
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The Council of Ministers has no option but to resign if it loses the confidence of
A)
Parliament
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B)
Either House of Parliament
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C)
Rajya Sabha
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D)
Lok Sabha
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The President takes oath before assuming office in the presence of the Chief Justice of India. If the Chief Justice is not available, he takes the oath in the presence of:
A)
The senior most judge of the Supreme Court.
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B)
The Vice-president.
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C)
The Attorney General of India.
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D)
Election Commissioner.
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In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister
A)
The Ministry is dissolved
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B)
Fresh general elections must take place
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C)
The Cabinet may choose another leader
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D)
The President decides what to do
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Which of the following is constitutionally obligatory on the part of Prime Minister of India?
A)
The Prime Minister, if he happens to be a leader of a party not having the required majority should prove majority strength in both Houses of Parliament within the period stipulated by the President.
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B)
As the President is the Supreme Commander of the defence forces, the Prime Minister has to take all major decisions regarding defence only after prior approval of the President
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C)
The Prime Minister has to communicate to the president all decisions of Cabinet relating to Administration and proposals of administration.
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D)
As the Ministers are appointed by the President, the Prime Minister has to go by Presidential discretion in the allocation of business among Ministers,
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Part V of the Constitution deals with I. Union Executive II. Parliament III. Supreme Court and High Court IV. Comptroller and Auditor General
Codes:
A)
I and II
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B)
I, II and III
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C)
All the four
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clear
D)
I, II and IV
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Directions: The following items consist of two statements, one labeled as the 'Assertion ' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Codes:
A)
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
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clear
B)
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
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clear
C)
A is true but R is false
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clear
D)
A is false but R is true
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. Disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice President are settled
A)
In the Supreme Court
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B)
By the Election Commission
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C)
By a Parliamentary Committee
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D)
In the Supreme Court or High Courts
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A member of the Parliament or a State legislature can be elected as the President, but I. He has to relinquish his seat within six months of his election II. He has to resign his seat before contesting the election III. He has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is elected
A)
II only
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B)
I only
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C)
III only
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clear
D)
None of the above
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Which of the following statements about the ad hoc judges of the Supreme Court is correct?
A)
They can be appointed by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with the President.
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B)
They can be appointed by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with the other judges.
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clear
C)
They can be appointed by the President on the advice of the Union Law Minister.
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D)
They can be appointed by Union Law Minister.
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Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: 1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country. 2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Which of the following are correct? 1. The Supreme Court cannot interfere with the delimitation of the constituencies 2. The Supreme Court cannot question the detention or arrest of a person or an Act, if it has been made in accordance, with the procedure established by law 3. The Supreme Court cannot declare unconstitutional a law passed by the Parliament 4. The Supreme Court cannot question the decision of the Speaker as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
Codes:
A)
2, 3, 4
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clear
B)
1, 2, 4
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clear
C)
1 2, 3
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clear
D)
1, 2, 3, 4
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clear
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The Advisory Powers of the Supreme Court of India imply that
A)
It tenders advice to the President on questions
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B)
It tenders advice to the Prime Minister on legal matters
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C)
It tenders advice to the Government of India on all constitutional matters
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D)
It has power to tender advice to all the above persons
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Match the following
List-I: Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court A. Original Jurisdiction B. Appellate Jurisdiction C. Advisory Jurisdiction List-II: Cases Covered 1. Advice on any question of law as may be referred to the Supreme Court for consideration by the President 2. Case involving interpretation of the constitution 3. Appointment of officers and servants of the Supreme Court 4. Dispute between Government of India and a State
A)
A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]3
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B)
A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]2
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clear
C)
A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]1
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clear
D)
A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]3
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Which of the following is not a power of the High Court?
A)
Supervision over all courts under its jurisdiction
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B)
Jurisdiction over revenue matters
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C)
Supervision over tribunals constituted by law relating to the armed forces
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D)
Issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights or for any other purpose
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The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
A)
The United Kingdom
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B)
Australia
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C)
The United States
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D)
Canada
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Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court: (i) The Supreme Court at present comprises of a Chief Justice and 25 other Judges. (ii) The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court extends over dispute between India and foreign states. (iii) The Supreme Court has better created by the Constitution of India. (iv) The Supreme Court, besides having its permanent seat at New Delhi, can meet elsewhere depending on the decision of the Chief Justice of India consulting it with the President of India. Which of the above statements- are correct?'
A)
i, ii, iv
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clear
B)
i, iii & iv
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clear
C)
ii, iii & iv
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clear
D)
All the a6ow
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At the apex of the subordinate criminal courts stands the-
A)
The Supreme-Court.
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B)
The State High Court.
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C)
Court of Session Judge.
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D)
Court of District Judge.
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The framers of the Constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the Constitution of
A)
United Kingdom
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B)
France
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C)
USA
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D)
Holland
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The Chief Justice (or a Judge)- of the High Court can be removed by the
A)
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
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B)
Same procedure as for me Judges of the Supreme Court
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C)
Governor
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D)
Union Home Ministry
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Consider the following statements (1) Supreme Court in 2011 has declared as illegal and unconstitutional the deployment of tribal youths as special police officers in the fight against the Maoist insurgency. (2) The court bench held that the policy of the Chattisgarh violated the rights under Articles-14 and 21 of the constitution. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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clear
B)
2 only
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clear
C)
Both are right
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clear
D)
both are wrong
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Who discharges the duties of the office of a Governor if it falls vacant due to death or resignation of me Governance?
A)
The Chief Justice of India
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clear
B)
The President immediately appoints an acting Governor
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clear
C)
The senior most judge of the Supreme- Court.
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D)
The Chief Justice of the High Court
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The strength of the Council of ministers:
A)
Is fixed by the Constitution
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B)
Is determined by Parliament
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clear
C)
Is determined by me State Legislature of every State
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D)
Is determined by the Chief Minister
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Which of the following powers and functions of Chief Minister in relation to the Governor are correct? I. The Chief Minister is the chief link between the Governor and the Council of Ministers. II. It is the Chief Minister who keeps the Governor informed of all decisions of the Council of Ministers. III. The Chief Minister has to famish such information as the Governor may call for. IV. The Governor has discretionary powers to summon and prorogue the sessions of State Legislature, Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
I, II and III
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clear
B)
II, III and IV
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clear
C)
I, III and IV
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clear
D)
All of these
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Which one of the following is not included among the duties of the Chief Minister in relation to the Governor?
A)
Communicating to me Governor all the decisions of the Council of Ministers
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B)
Supplying to Governor information on such matters relating to fee administration of the State as he calls for
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clear
C)
Assisting the Governor in making appointment in the State Government
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clear
D)
Advising the Governor to recommend to die President that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
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Which one of the following legislative powers are enjoyed by the Governor? 1. He summons or prorogues either House of State legislature' 2. He addresses either or both the Houses at the commencement of the new session after each General Election 3. He dissolves both the Houses m case of difference over file enactment of law 4. He sends messages; to the State Legislature on a Bill pending before it
A)
1, 2, 4
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clear
B)
1, 2, 5, 4
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clear
C)
1, 3 only
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clear
D)
2, 3, 4
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With reference to States in India, consider the following statements: 1. Six months shall not intervene between the as sitting of the State Legislature and the first sitting of next session. 2. After every general election to the State Assembly, the Governor has to address the State Assembly on the very first sitting so also the first session every year. Which of these statements are correct?
A)
Only 1
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clear
B)
Only 2
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clear
C)
Both 1 and 2
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clear
D)
neither 1 nor 2
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The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly can be removed from office before his normal term by:
A)
The Chief Minister
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clear
B)
The Government
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C)
The Legislative Assembly by passing a resolution by majority of its total membership
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clear
D)
None of the above
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The members of Legislative Council nominated by the Governor shall have special knowledge or practical experience in respect to such matters as:
A)
Literature, Science, Art, Cooperative Movement sad Social Service
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clear
B)
Literature, Science, Art, National Movement and Social Service
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clear
C)
Literature, Science, Art and Social Science
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clear
D)
Science, Art, Cooperative Movement and Social Service
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No Bill seeking to impose restrictions on inter-State trade can be introduced in a State Legislature:
A)
Without the previous sanction of the President
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clear
B)
Without the previous sanction of Governor
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clear
C)
Without the previous sanction of the Speaker
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clear
D)
Without the previous sanction of the Advocate General
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View Answer play_arrow
The members of Legislative Council aw
A)
Directly elected by the people
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B)
Chiefly nominated
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clear
C)
Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
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D)
Elected by the Legislative Assembly
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The main functions of the Election Commission include: I. To conduct elections to the Lok Sabha, Legislative Assemblies, offices of me President and Vice-President. II. To recognize various political parties, allot symbol and determine constituencies, III. To keep voters lists up to date all time, IV. It determines the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of election. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
I and II
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clear
B)
I, II and III
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clear
C)
II, III and IV
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clear
D)
all of these
done
clear
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Recognition of a political party can be withdrawn by the Election Commission- (1) On account of failure of the party to observe me model code of conduct (2) On account of failure of the party to follow lawful directions and instructions of the Election Commission (3) With the prior consent of the SC of India.
A)
1, 2 and 3
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B)
2 and 3
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C)
1 and 2
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D)
1 and 3
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A political party is deemed to be a 'National Party' if and only if such political party gains:
A)
Less than 4% of the total number of votes in more than 4 states.
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B)
Not less than 4% of the total number of the valid votes in more than 10 states.
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C)
Its own government in more than 10 states.
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D)
Not less than 6% of the total number of valid votes in more than 4 states.
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Which of the following activities indulged in by a candidate during an election campaign constitute corrupt practices? I. Giving gifts to voters to induce them to vote II. Appealing for votes on the grounds of caste or religion III. False character assassination of other candidates IV. Propagation and glorification of Sati
A)
I and II
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B)
II and III
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C)
I, II and III
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D)
I, II, III and IV
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In which respect 'have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as 'municipal relations'?
A)
Centre's control of the State in the legislative sphere
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B)
Centre's control of the State in financial matters
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C)
Centre's control of the State is the administrative sector
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D)
Centre's control of the State in the planning process
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The qualification for the Chairman and other members of the Finance Commission are
A)
Laid down in the Constitution.
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B)
Prescribed by Parliament from time to time.
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C)
Prescribed by the President.
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D)
Prescribed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
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The distribution of powers between the centre and the states in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in
A)
The Minto-Morely Reforms. 1909.
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B)
The Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919.
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C)
The Government of India Act, 1935.
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D)
The Indian Independence Act, 1947.
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Consider the following statements: National Development Council is concerned with the work of 1. Assessment of resources for the Plan 2. Formation of National Plan 3. Consideration of the National Plan 4. Review of the National Plan Which of these statements are correct?
A)
1, 3 and 4
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B)
1, 2 and 3
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C)
2, 3 and 4
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D)
1, 2 and 4
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Which of the following is contained in the Concurrent list?
A)
Agriculture
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B)
Education
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C)
Fisheries
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D)
Police
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Delhi has been called the "National Capital Territory" by which Amendment Act?
A)
Fifteenth Amendment Act
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B)
Fifty sixth Amendment Act
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C)
Sixty second Amendment Act
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D)
Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
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The Zonal Councils which aim at ensuring co-operation amongst various States are
A)
Created by the States Reorganization Act 1956
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B)
Provided in the Constitution
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C)
Created by the Forty-Second Amendment during the Emergency
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D)
None of the above
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Special rights and privileges upon persons permanently resident in the state of Jammu and Kashmir includes. 1. Employment under the state government 2. Acquisition of immovable property in state 3. Right to scholarships and such other forms of aid as the state government may provide 4. Right to evict outsiders settled in the state. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A)
2, 3 and 4
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B)
1, 2 and 3
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C)
1, 2 and 4
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D)
1, 2, 3 and 4
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Under which one of the kinds of Emergencies, salaries of government employees, including the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts may be reduced?
A)
National Emergency
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B)
Financial Emergency
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C)
Emergency due to failure of constitutional machinery
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D)
None of these
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The President can declare financial emergency
A)
If there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India
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B)
To meet the extraordinary expenses of conducting a war
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C)
On the recommendation of the Comptroller and Auditor General
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D)
If the majority of the state legislatures so recommend
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Which one of the following changes is not affected during the National Emergency?
A)
The President can issue directions to the State with regard to exercise of their executive powers
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B)
Certain discretionary powers of the President
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C)
The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended
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D)
The distribution of revenue between the Union and the States can be modified
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List- I List- II A. Panchayat Raj System 1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee B. Panchayat 2. Block Level C. Panchayat Samiti 3. District Level D. Zilla Parishad 4. Village Level
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]3, D\[\to \]4
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B)
A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]4, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]3
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C)
A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]4, D\[\to \]3
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D)
A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]3
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Which of the following functions of Panchayat Samiti are correct? I. It prepares plans for development at block level. II. It is responsible for the implementation of Community Development Programme within its jurisdiction. III. It monitors and supervises the working of Gram Panchayats and can make suggestions for improving the performance of it within its jurisdiction. IV. It works as the "Watch-dog" of the Gram Panchayat which is its executive body. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
I and II
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B)
I, II and III
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C)
II, III and IV
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D)
All of these
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The ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
A)
Preamble
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B)
Directive Principles of State Policy
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C)
Fundamental Rights
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D)
Seventh Schedule
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Which of the following are the features of 74th Amendment Act in municipalities? 1. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Proportion of their population 2. Mandatory periodic elections every 5 years 3. The procedure for maintenance of accounts and audit would be decided by the state Governor 4. Constitution of Nagar-Panchayats for smaller urban area.
A)
1, 2, and
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B)
2, and 3
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C)
3 and 4
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D)
1 and 2
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Which one of the following are true about the 73rd constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj? 1. Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all levels. 2. The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions. 3. The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children.
A)
2 and 3
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B)
1 and 3
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C)
1 and 2
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D)
1, 2 and 4
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Which of the following functions are performed by a Gram Sabha? 1. All public problems are discussed. 2. Village budget and programmes are framed. 3. Beneficiaries of various government programmes are identified. 4. In order to keep a watch on the panchayats, a Vigilance Committee is constituted. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A)
1, 2 and 3
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B)
2, 3 and 4
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C)
1, 3 and 4
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D)
1, 2 and 4
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In which Constitutional Amendment Act Goa was made a full-fledged State with a State assembly?
A)
43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977
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B)
44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
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C)
56th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987
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D)
57th Constitutional-Amendment Act, 1987
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Match the following columns
List- I List- II A. Reorganisation of States 1. Seventh Amendment B. Sikkim became 22nd State of Indian Union 2. Thirty-sixth Amendment C. Ninth Scheduled added 3. First Amendment D. Abolition of Titles of Princess 4. Twenty-sixth Amendment
Codes:
A)
A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]3, D\[\to \]4
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B)
A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]3, D\[\to \]4
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C)
A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]1, D\[\to \]4
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D)
A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]4, D\[\to \]2
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Which of the following are true about the Attorney General of India? I. He is not a member of the Cabinet II. He has the right to speak in the Houses of Parliament III. He has the right to vote in Parliament IV. He must have the same qualifications as those required to be a judge of the Supreme Court
A)
I, II, IV
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B)
II, IV
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C)
I, II, III, IV
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D)
I, II
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Consider the following statements: 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed by the President on the grounds of proved misbehaviour after an inquiry conducted by the Supreme Court. 2. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union and the state 'hall be submitted to the Parliament by the CAG. 'Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Which of the statements given below is/are true? 1. The post of Attorney General of India, which is a constitutional post under Article 76 of the Constitution of India. 2 The posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional solicitors General are merely statutory. 3. The Solicitor General for India is the second law officer of the country, assists the Attorney General, and is himself associated by several Additional Solicitors General of India.
Codes:
A)
Only 1 and 2
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B)
Only 2 and 3
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C)
Only 1 and 3
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D)
All the above
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The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India vests with the
A)
President of India
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B)
Supreme Court
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C)
Parliament
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D)
National Development Council
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Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of India?
A)
To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
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B)
To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
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C)
To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
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D)
To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
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Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about the Advocate General of the State?
A)
The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor
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B)
The Advocate General of the State is appointed by the Governor
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C)
The Advocate General advises the State Government on legal matters
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D)
The Advocate General cannot take part in the proceedings in the State Legislature
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Consider the following statements with respect to Attorney General of India: (1) He is appointed by the President (2) He must have the same qualifications as are required by a Judge of High Court (3) In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of audience in all courts of India. Which of these statements is/are correct?
A)
Only 1
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B)
1 and 3
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C)
2 and 3
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D)
1, 2 and 3
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Consider the following statements: The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 1. Audits all expenditures from the revenues of the Union and the States. 2. Ensures that total withdrawals by the Union Government do not exceed the amounts approved by the Parliament 3. Can comment on correctness or otherwise of financial transactions of the Union and the States. 4. Point out cases of non-compliance of rules and regulations in expenditure. Which of these are correct?
A)
1 and 2
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B)
2, 3 and 4
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C)
1, 3 and 4
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D)
1, 2, 3 and 4
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Which one of the following statement about Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is NOT correct?
A)
He has no direct access to the Parliament and no minister can represent him
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B)
His salary and emoluments are chargeable on the Consolidated Fund of India
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C)
He cannot disallow any expenditure which in his opinion violates the Constitution
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D)
He has been debarred from holding any office of profit under the Union or State Government after his retirement
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Which of the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are true? The Report of Comptroller and Auditor General of India 1. Can be considered by the joint session of both Houses of Parliament. 2. Includes examination of income and expenditure of all public sector undertakings. 3. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the Estimates Committee. 4. Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
A)
1 and 2
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B)
1 and 3
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C)
2 and 4
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D)
4 alone
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Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with regard to Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC): 1. President can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned. 2. JSPSC will be considered as a constitutional body with all the powers of a SPSC.
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both
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D)
None
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The UPSC submits an annual report on its work to
A)
The President
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B)
The Parliament
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C)
The Union Home Minister
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D)
The Chief Justice of India
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The right against exploitation prohibits children
A)
Below 14 years of age from employment in family businesses
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B)
Below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupation
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C)
Below 14 years of age from working on family farms
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D)
From doing all the above
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Expenses incurred out of the Contingency Fund of India are
A)
Subsequently recouped by transferring savings from other heads of budget
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B)
Recouped through supplementary, addition or excess grants by Parliament
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C)
Not recouped till the whole fund is exhausted
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D)
None of the above
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