Sample papers for SSC Indian Polity and Civics NCERT Sample Paper-3

A is false but R is true Assertion : Collective responsibility of the Cabinet signifies unity and coordination among members of the Council of Ministers. Reason (R): It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister to select or drop a member of the Cabinet.

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5)

Which of the following powers of the Prime Minister with regard to the conduct of foreign relations are incorrect?

1. He represents the Country in various International Conferences

2. He receives the diplomatic envoys of other countries

3. He always heads the Foreign Affairs Ministry

4. He is the only spokesman of the Government on External Affairs in the Parliament

Codes:

A)

1, 2, 3

B)

2, 3, 4

C)

1, 3, 4

D)

1, 2, 3, 4

View Answer

6)

When President submits his resignation to the Vice-President, who is informed first by the Vice- President?

A)

The Prime Minister

B)

The Chief Justice of India

C)

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

D)

The Chief Election Commissioner

View Answer

7)

The Prime Minister is said to hold office during the pleasure of the President, but in reality he stays in office as long as he enjoys the confidence of

A)

The electorate

B)

The Lok Sabha

C)

The party to which he belongs

D)

Parliament

View Answer

8)

Consider the following statements:

The President of India has power to address both Houses of Parliament at the commencement of

1. The first session after the general elections

2. Each session

3. The first session of each year

4. The budget session each year

Which of these are correct?

A)

2 and 3

B)

1 and 4

C)

1 and 3

D)

2 and 4

View Answer

9)

Which one of the following is NOT correct in relation to the Council of Ministers?

A)

It is recognized by the Constitution

B)

Number of its members is not specified in Constitution

C)

Its working is as per the provisions in the Constitution

D)

Its members and their ranks are decided by the Prime Minister

View Answer

10)

The oath of office is conducted to the President by

A)

The Speaker of Lok Sabha

B)

The Chief Justice of India

C)

The Vice President of India

D)

None of above

View Answer

11)

Which of the following groups take/takes part in the election of the President of India?

I. All Members of Parliament

II. Members of State Legislative Assemblies

III. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies

IV. Elected members of State Legislative Councils

Codes:

A)

I and III

B)

I and II

C)

I, II and III

D)

III only

View Answer

12)

Given below are two statements, one-labeled as Assertion and the other labeled as Reason (R). Assertion : The Directive Principles of state policy enshrined in the Constitution aim at providing democracy. Reason (R): The Directive Principles are merely directives which the Government has to keep in mind while framing policy and are not enforceable through courts of law. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct:

A)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B)

Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

A is false but R is true.

View Answer

13)

The Fundamental Duties

(I) were introduced by the 44th Amendment.

(II) are incorporated in Part-Ill A.

(Ill) are not justiciable.

Codes:

A)

I and II are correct

B)

I and III are correct

C)

II and III are correct

D)

III is correct

View Answer

14)

Who said to the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles are like "Cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank?"

A)

J. L. Nehru

B)

K T. Shah

C)

B. R. Ambedkar

D)

K M. Munshi

View Answer

15)

The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution:

A)

To make the fundamental rights more effective

B)

To further national integration and contribute towards a better society

C)

To accord priority to the directive principles over fundamental rights

D)

To achieve all the above objectives

View Answer

16)

Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution?

(I) To preserve the heritage of our composite culture

(II) To abide by the Constitution

(III) To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame

(IV) To render national service when called upon to do so

A)

I II and III

B)

I and II

C)

I, II and IV

D)

II, III and IV

View Answer

17)

If the Government of a State fails to enforce the Directive principals of the state Policy, a citizen can move to which among the following courts to file a writ petition to get them enforced?

A)

Chief Judicial Magistrate

B)

District Courts

C)

High Courts

D)

None of the above

View Answer

18)

Which of the following are not among the rights provided only to the citizens of India?

A)

Right against discrimination

B)

Right to vote

C)

Right to equality

D)

Right to hold public office

View Answer

19)

Which among the following was the first programme launched by Government of India to implement the article of the directive principles of state policy?

A)

Integrated rural development programme

B)

Community development programme

C)

National Rural employment programme

D)

Desert development Programme

View Answer

20)

Which one of the following was added to the original list of Fundamental Rights?

A)

21 right to property

B)

right to Constitutional remedies

C)

right to freedom of religion

D)

None of these

View Answer

21)

What is meant by saying that the Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable?

1. In case they are violated the matter cannot be taken to the Court

2. Courts are debarred from consideration of Directive Principles

3. The law of the land does not recognize their existence

4. They are sacrosanct

A)

1 & 2

B)

1 only

C)

1, 2 & 3

D)

1, 2, 3, 4

View Answer

22)

Supreme court ruled that" the fundamental rights and Directive Principles are in fact supplementary to each other and together constitute an integrated scheme". This is known as which of the following?

A)

Doctrine of Pith & Substance

B)

Doctrine of Colorable Legislation

C)

Doctrine of Harmonization

D)

Doctrine of Lapse

View Answer

23)

Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?

A)

It is not enforceable in a Court of law

B)

The Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution

C)

It has been amended twice

D)

All the above are correct

View Answer

24)

The right to freedom guaranteed under Article 19 can be restricted:

A)

In the interest of security of state

B)

In the interest of friendly relations with a foreign state

C)

In the interest of public order, decency and morality

D)

On all the above grounds

View Answer

25)

Which of the following factors do not explain why the rights included in Part III of the Constitution are called 'fundamental'?

I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens

II. They are superior to ordinary law

III. They are fundamental for governing the country

IV. They are not absolute

Codes:

A)

II and IV

B)

I, II and III

C)

I, III and IV

D)

III and IV

View Answer

26)

The uniform civil code which has been recommended in the directive principles is to ensure which of the following?'

A)

National Integration

B)

Economic Equality

C)

Fundamental Rights

D)

Sovereignty

View Answer

27)

The basic condition imposed on the citizen's right-to assemble is that the assembly should be

A)

For constructive aims

B)

Peaceful and unarmed

C)

Non-violent

D)

Peaceful

View Answer

28)

Match the following features of the Indian Constitution and their sources from which they have been incorporated.

	List- I		List- II
A.	Bill of Rights and Judicial review	1.	England
B.	Parliamentary system of democracy	2.	Ireland
C.	Directive Principles	3.	U.S.A
D.	Residuary power with the Centre	4.	Canada

Codes:

A)

A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]3

B)

A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]3, D\[\to \]4

C)

A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]4, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]1

D)

A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]4

View Answer

29)

The Balwant Rai G Mehta team was set up in 1956 by the National Development Council for the purpose of

A)

Suggesting measures for democratic decentralization

B)

Reporting on the working of the village pancbayats at that time

C)

Suggesting measures for better efficiency in the Implementation of the Community Development projects

D)

Investigating the feasibility of setting up the new panchayat machinery

View Answer

30)

The Pitt's India Act of 1784

A)

Rectified the shortcomings of the Regulating Act.

B)

Extended the lease of East India Company for 20 years.

C)

Undid what had been done by the Regulating Act.

D)

None of the above.

View Answer

31)

Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?

I. Preamble enshrines the ideas and philosophy of the constitution and NOT the narrow objectives of the governments.

II. The preamble of the constitution has been amended only once so far through the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act 1976.

III. The words Secular, Socialist and Integrity were added to the constitution.

IV. The Objective resolution was the basis of Preamble.

V. KM Munshi quoted Preamble as "Political Hosrocope"

Codes:

A)

I, II and V

B)

I, III, IV and V

C)

I, III, IV and V

D)

All the above

View Answer

32)

To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for.............immediately before making an application.

A)

six months

B)

one year

C)

three years

D)

seven years

View Answer

33)

The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of the Constitution:

A)

By a majority of vote

B)

By a two-thirds majority

C)

By consensus

D)

Unanimously

View Answer

34)

The appointment of the Pro-tem speaker in Lok Sabha has to be approved by the:

A)

President

B)

Members of Lok Sabha

C)

Council of Ministers

D)

Speaker

View Answer

35)

The Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength of:

A)

250 members

B)

224 members

C)

350 members

D)

500 members

View Answer

36)

Consider the following statements:

1. A bill returned by the President for reconsideration does not lapse on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha

3. A bill under consideration of Lok Sabha lapses when the Lok Sabha is prorogued

4. A bill originating in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha and which is still pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse. Select the correct answer from the following codes given below:

Codes:

A)

2, 3 and 4

B)

1 and 2 only

C)

3 and 4

D)

1, 2 and 4

View Answer

37)

Money from which of the following is credited to the contingency fund of India?

1. Provident fund deposits

2. Disinvestment proceeds

3. Spectrum Auctions

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A)

1 only

B)

2 and 3 only

C)

3 only

D)

None

View Answer

38)

What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of Parliament:

A)

Three Months

B)

Six Months

C)

Seven Months

D)

One year

View Answer

39)

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has been empowered to exercise 'Guillotine'

A)

After demands are discussed

B)

After demands are discussed and passed

C)

When the time allotted for budget discussions is exhausted

D)

When the demands are passed with a cut

View Answer

40)

Which House is better placed with regard to control over the executive?

A)

Lok Sabha

B)

Rajya Sabha

C)

Both are equally placed

D)

It depends from which House the Prime Minister comes

View Answer

41)

In which of the following conditions the speaker & deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha have, to vacate the office?

A)

When Presidents wishes

B)

When they ruling party loses confidence

C)

When they are not MPs

D)

Immediately after dissolution of Lok Sabha

View Answer

42)

How many times has the joint parliamentary committee (JPC) been constituted till date?

A)

Twice

B)

Three times

C)

Four times

D)

Five times

View Answer

43)

The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of Parliament by the

A)

President

B)

Speaker

C)

Vice-President

D)

Finance Minister

View Answer

44)

The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is

A)

Nominated by the Chairman

B)

Elected by elected members of the Rajya Sabha

C)

Nominated by the President

D)

Elected by the Rajya Sabha from amongst its members

View Answer

45)

Which official has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Parliament even without being a member?

A)

The Election Commission

B)

The Vice-President

C)

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

D)

The Attorney General of India

View Answer

46)

Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha consists of 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated by the President from amongst the people having special knowledge and practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service. 2. Presently Rajya Sabha has 245 seats, of which 233 members represent the states and the Union Territories and 12 members are nominated by the President. 3. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution, two-third members retire every third year. Codes:

A)

1 and 2 are correct

B)

Only 1 is correct

C)

1 and 3 are correct

D)

All the above statements are correct

View Answer

47)

Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?

A)

Disputes between the Centre and the States

B)

Disputes between the States inter se

C)

Protection of the Fundamental Rights

D)

Protection against the violation of the Constitution

View Answer

48)

Who among the following are eligible for getting free legal services?

1. Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs.150, 000

2. Members of SC/ST

3. Women and Children

4. Industrial Workmen

Select the correct answer:

A)

1, 2, 3 and 4

B)

1, 2 and 3

C)

2, 3 and 4

D)

1 and 4

View Answer

49)

In one of its judgments, the Supreme Court held that to force an individual to undergo polygraph, brain mapping and narco-analysis tests are violative of .......................the Constitution.

A)

Article 21 and Article 22

B)

Article 21 and Article 20 (1)

C)

Article 21 and Article 20 (2)

D)

Article 21 and Article 20 (3)

View Answer

50)

The right to constitutional remedies in India is available to whom of the following?

A)

Only Citizens of India

B)

All persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right

C)

Any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons

D)

All the above

View Answer

51)

Which of the following falls within the supervisory powers of the High Court?

1. To call for reports from the subordinate courts under its jurisdiction

2. To make general rules and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of lower courts

3. To settle tables of fees to be allowed to sheriff and others practicing before these courts

4. To supervise the working of tribunals constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces

Codes:

A)

1, 3, 4

B)

1, 2, 4

C)

2, 3, 4

D)

1, 2, 3

View Answer

52)

A retired judge of High Court cannot:

A)

Practice in the Supreme Court

B)

Practice in any High Court of India

C)

Practice in the High Court from where he has retired

D)

Practice in any court of India

View Answer

53)

Which of the following statements about the Supreme Court is wrong?

A)

It acts as the guardian of the liberties of the people of India.

B)

It acts as the guardian of the Constitution.

C)

It has the final power to investigate disputes regarding the election' of the President and Vice-President of India.

D)

It acts as the protector of the Directive Principles of the State Policy.

View Answer

54)

The High Court enjoys the power

I. To issue writs for the enforcement of rights conferred on the citizens of India

II. To exercise superintendence over the working of Courts and Tribunals under its jurisdiction

III. To make general rules and prescribe forms regulating the practices and proceeding of Courts under its jurisdiction

Codes:

A)

I, III

B)

II, III

C)

I, III

D)

I, II, III

View Answer

55)

The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with:

I. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

II. Former Chief Justice of the High Court

III. Other Judges of the High Court

IV. Governor of the State concerned

A)

I and II

B)

II and III

C)

1 and IV

D)

I, III and IV

View Answer

56)

Defining Judicial Review, which statement is correct?

A)

The authority of the courts to punish political offenders.

B)

The authority of the courts to interpret the legality of the laws.

C)

The authority of the courts to correct me errors of the government.

D)

The authority of courts to issue various writs.

View Answer

57)

Which among the following can be called a "write of prohibition"?

A)

A writ issued by Supreme Court or High court to inferior court

B)

A writ issued by High Court to Supreme Court or inferior court

C)

A writ issued by a inferior court

D)

None of them

View Answer

58)

Match the following:

List I	List II
1. Jurisdiction to interpret the Constitution	A. Consumer Forum
2. A Supreme Court or High Court Judge shall not be removed except in the manner specified in the Constitution	B. Independence of judiciary
3. Petitions for divorce	C. Family courts and maintenance
4. Consumer disputes	D. High Courts and Supreme Court

A)

A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]3, D\[\to \]4

B)

A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]4, C\[\to \]3, D\[\to \]1

C)

A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]4, D\[\to \]1

D)

A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]3, d\[\to \]1

View Answer

59)

Which of the following reasons have Union Territories been placed under the direct control of the Central Government?

I. Cultural distinctiveness

II. Strategic importance

III. Political and administrative considerations

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A)

II only

B)

I and II

C)

II and III

D)

I, II and III

View Answer

60)

The Provisions of the Constitution relating to the Scheduled Areas may be altered by

A)

Parliament by special majority.

B)

Parliament by simple majority.

C)

President in consultation with the Prime Minister

D)

None of these.

View Answer

61)

Consider the following statements:

1. The President is immune from any civil proceedings against him/her.

2. But after giving two months' notice, criminal proceedings can be instituted against the President. Which of the statement(s) given above is correct regarding the immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her 'personal' acts, during his/her tenure:

A)

Only 1

B)

Only 2

C)

Both 1 and 2

D)

neither 1 nor 2

View Answer

62)

Consider the following statements:

1. Parliament cannot alter the name and territory of J & K without the consent of the State legislature.

2. No proclamation of Emergency can be made by the President under Article 352 on the ground of "internal disturbance" in J&K without the concurrence of J&K Government.

3. The Union shall have the power to suspend the State Constitution on the ground of failure to comply with the directions given by the Union.

4. The Union shall have no power to make a Proclamation of Financial Emergency with respect to the State of J & K. Which of the Statement(s) given above is correct regarding the 'special provisions' for the State of Jammu & Kashmir?

A)

Only 3

B)

Only 4

C)

1, 2 and 4

D)

2, 3 and 4

View Answer

63)

The highest body below the Parliament of India which is responsible for formulating policy matters regarding planning for social and economic welfare and development of our country is:

A)

Planning Commission

B)

Finance Commission

C)

National Advisory Council

D)

National Development Council

View Answer

64)

Match the following

A.	National emergency	1.	Article 356
B.	Constitutional emergency	2.	Article 360
C.	Financial emergency	3.	Article 352

Codes:

A)

A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]3

B)

A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]3

C)

A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]1

D)

A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]2

View Answer

65)

In case of proclamation of Emergency on grounds of war or external aggression

A)

All fundamental rights will be automatically suspended

B)

The right to move a court for enforcement of any fundamental right is suspended.

C)

The president may order the suspension of enforcement of any fundamental right except Article 20-21

D)

Parliament may authorize suspension of all fundamental rights

View Answer

66)

Which of the following statements regarding Panchayati Raj system is not correct?

A)

The Gram Panchayat is headed by the Sarpanch.

B)

The Panchayat Samiti is headed by the Chairman.

C)

The Zilla Parish ad is headed by the Chairman.

D)

The Sarpanch and the Chairman are directly elected by the people.

View Answer

67)

What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?

A)

Single tier structure of local self-government at the village, level

B)

Two the system of local self-government at the village and block levels

C)

Three tier structure of local self-government at the village, block and district levels

D)

Four tier system of local self-government at the village, block, district and state levels

View Answer

68)

The Nagar palika Act envisages

1. Municipal Councils for all areas in transition from rural to uban areas

2. Nagar Panchayats for big villages

A)

1 only

B)

2 only

C)

Both 1 and 2

D)

neither 1 nor 2

View Answer

69)

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the term of Panchayats?

A)

If a Panchayat is dissolved before the expiry of its 5 year duration, election to such Panchayat must be held within a period of 6 months

B)

A Panchayat constituted after a mid-term election shall have remainder of its usual term of five years. It will not have a full term of five years.

C)

Every Panchayat shall have a fixed term of five years.

D)

The Governor of the state can increase the term of years but cannot reduce the term under special circumstances.

View Answer

70)

In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as 'municipal relations'?

A)

Centre's control of the State in the legislative sphere

B)

Centre's control of the State in financial matters

C)

Centre's control of the State in the administrative sector

D)

Centre's control of the State in the planning process

View Answer

71)

'Select the correctly matched option:

A)

Santhanam Committee: Panchayati Raj Finances

B)

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee: Panchayats in Rajasthan

C)

Thungan Committee: Planning at the Block Level

D)

L.M. Singhvi Committee: Administrative arrangement for rural development programmes

View Answer

72)

Consider the following statements:

1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India under which the President of India may entrust, with the consent the Government of a State, to that Government, functions relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.

2. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, only legislature of a State can by law alter the name of that State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A)

1 only

B)

2 only

C)

Both 1 and 2

D)

neither 1 nor 2

View Answer

73)

Given below arc two statements, one labelled as Assertion and other labelled as Reason R: Assertion : The State Council of Ministers may be dismissed by the Governor if he feels that it has lost its majority. Reason R: The Governor is the head of the executive power of a State. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?

A)

Both and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

B)

Both and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of

C)

is true but (R) is false

D)

is False but (R) is true

View Answer

74)

Article 169 of the Constitution refers to :

A)

Creation of Legislative Council

B)

Abolition of Legislative Council

C)

Appointment of Speaker to the Legislative Assembly

D)

Creation and abolition of Legislative Council of the States

View Answer

75)

Which of the following matters can never be discussed in a State Legislature?

I. The autonomy of States

II. The conduct of any High Court judge

III. The conduct of the Governor

A)

I

B)

II

C)

III

D)

II and III

View Answer

76)

Consider the following statements: 1. Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) of a State comprises not more than two-third of the total number of members in legislative assembly of a state and in no case less than 40 members. 2. About one-third of the members of the council are elected by members of legislative assembly from amongst the persons who are not its members, one third by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and other local authorities in the state, one-twelfth, by electorate consisting of persons who have been, for at least three years, engaged in teaching in educational institutions within the state not lower in standard than secondary school and a further one-twelfth by registered graduates of more than three years standing. Codes:

A)

Both 1 and 2 are correct

B)

Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

C)

Only 1 is correct

D)

Only 2 is correct

View Answer

77)

Which one of the following is NOT the duty of District Magistrate?

A)

Maintenance of law and order

B)

Collection of land revenue

C)

Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes

D)

Conduct of local bodies elections

View Answer

78)

The Governor of the State has to take an oath of office before entering upon his office. The path is administered to him by the:

A)

President of India

B)

Chief Justice of India

C)

Chief Justice of the State High Court

D)

Any of the above

View Answer

79)

The members of Legislative Council nominated by the Governor shall have special knowledge or practical experience in respect to such matters as:

A)

Literature, Science, Art, National Movement and Social Service.

B)

Literature, Science, Art and Social Service.

C)

Literature, Science, Arts, Co-operative Movement and Social Service.

D)

Science, Art, Co-operative Movement and Social Service.

View Answer

80)

The portfolios are allocated to the various members of the Council of Ministers by:

A)

The Governor according to his discretion

B)

The Chief Minister

C)

The Governor according to the option indicated by the members

D)

The Governor after consulting the Chief Minister

View Answer

81)

The Governor can reserve

A)

Only Financial Bills for the approval of the President

B)

All Bills passed by State Legislature for the assent of the President

C)

Certain types of Bills passed by State Legislature for the approval of the President

D)

No Bill passed by the State Legislature for the approval of the President

View Answer

82)

The theory of basic structure of Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in

A)

Golak Nath case

B)

Keshavananda Bharati Case

C)

Gopalan vs. State of Madras

D)

None of these

View Answer

83)

Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive principles over fundamental rights?

A)

24th Amendment

B)

39th Amendment

C)

42nd Amendment

D)

40th Amendment

View Answer

84)

Consider the following activities indulged in by a candidate during the election campaign:

1. Giving gifts to voters to induce them to vote

2. Appealing for votes on the grounds of caste or religion

3. False character assassination of other candidates

4. Propagation and glorification of sati. Of the above, the ones that constitute corrupt practices are

Codes:

A)

1, 2 and 4

B)

1, 2, 3 and 4

C)

1, 2 and 3

D)

1 and 3

View Answer

85)

Which one of the following statement about the Political Parties in India is correct?

A)

It is obligatory for Political Parties to get registered under the representation of the Peoples Act

B)

A Political Party which applies for registration has to include a specific provision in its constitution professing allegiance to the constitution and principle of secularism and democracy

C)

The Political Parties in India register themselves with the Election Commission

D)

All the Above.

View Answer

86)

Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various elections in India?

I. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage.

II. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

III. List system of proportional representation.

IV. Cumulative system of indirect elections.

Choose correct answer from codes given below:

A)

I and III

B)

I and II

C)

I, II and III

D)

II, III and IV

View Answer

87)

Which of the following statements about the Election Commission is/are correct?

1. According to a judgment of the Supreme Court, the members of the Election Commission have equal powers with the Chief Election Commissioner

2. The Chief Election Commissioner has overriding authority in the Election Commission

3. The members of the Election Commission are appointed by the Parliament

4. Only those persons who are eligible for appointment as judge of a High Court can be appointed as members of the Election Commission or as Chief Election Commissioner.

Codes:

A)

1, 3 and 4

B)

2, 3 and 4

C)

1 only

D)

1 and 4

View Answer

88)

In case of conflict between the central and state law on a subject in the concurrent list

A)

The law which was passed first prevails.

B)

The law of the state prevails.

C)

The law of the centre prevails.

D)

Both laws stand nullified.

View Answer

89)

The recommendations of the Finance Commission are

A)

Binding on the President.

B)

Not binding on the President.

C)

Generally accepted as a matter of convention.

D)

Accepted or rejected by the Government according to its convenience.

View Answer

90)

When can Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List?

(1) If Lok Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority that it is in national interest to do so.

(2) When the legislature of two or more states request Parliament to legislate on a state subject.

(3) Under the proclamation of Emergency.

A)

1 and 3

B)

2 and 3

C)

1, 2 and 3

D)

1 and 2

View Answer

91)

The main objective of the Zonal Councils is/are:

1. Bringing out national integration

2. Establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the States for successful and speedy execution of development projects.

3. Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies;

A)

1, 2 and 3

B)

1 and 3

C)

1 and 2

D)

1 only

View Answer

92)

Match the following

List-1	List-2
A. Taxes on income other than agricultural income	1. State List
B. Estate duty in respect of agricultural land	2. Residuary power
C. Inter planetary outer space travel	3. Concurrent list
D. Acquisition or requisitioning of property	4. Union List

A)

A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]1

B)

A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]3

C)

A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]1, D\[\to \]4

D)

A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]4, D\[\to \]1

View Answer

93)

Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for SC's

1. The chairperson is a person who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court of a High Court

2. Two persons, who have special knowledge in matters relating to the backward classes

3. Every member shall hold office for a term of two years from the date he assumes office

Choose the correct codes from the given below

A)

2 and 3

B)

1 and 2

C)

1 and 3

D)

None of these

View Answer

94)

Which one of the following statements is true in context with eligibility of Chairman of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?

A)

The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Judge of Supreme Court of India

B)

The Chairman of the NHRC must have been a Judge of a High Court of Indian state or Supreme Court of India

C)

The Chairman of the NHRC must have experience of 15 years of practice as a human rights lawyer in Supreme Court of India

D)

The Chairman of the NHRC must have experience of 10 years of practice as a human rights lawyer in the Supreme Court of India

View Answer

95)

The Consolidated Fund of India is made up of

A)

The excise duty and the income tax

B)

The income tax and the corporate tax

C)

The money raised from all loans

D)

All revenue receipts of the Government of India

View Answer

96)

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A)

Central Government can borrow outside India upon the security of the consolidated Fund of India within limits fixed by the Parliament

B)

State Government can borrow outside India upon the security of Consolidated Fund of State within limits fixed by the Legislature of the State

C)

State cannot raise loan without the consent of the Centre, if there is still outstanding any part of loan made to the state by the Centre in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Centre

D)

None of the above

View Answer

97)

Which one of the following is the main function of the Central Vigilance Commission of India?

A)

To keep watch on the investigating agencies in the country

B)

To expedite the disposal of criminal cases pending in the courts

C)

To scrutinize the utilization of developmental funds sanctioned by the Government

D)