JEE Main & Advanced Mathematics Functions Question Bank Functions

  • question_answer
    Mapping \[f:R\to R\] which is defined as \[f(x)=\cos x,\ x\in R\] will be [UPSEAT 1999]

    A)            Neither one-one nor onto

    B)            One-one

    C)            Onto

    D)            One-one onto

    Correct Answer: A

    Solution :

               Let \[{{x}_{1}},\,{{x}_{2}}\in R,\] then \[f({{x}_{1}})=\cos {{x}_{1}}\], \[f({{x}_{2}})=\cos {{x}_{2}}\], so \[f({{x}_{1}})=f({{x}_{2}})\]            Þ \[\cos {{x}_{1}}=\cos {{x}_{2}}\] Þ \[{{x}_{1}}=2n\pi \pm {{x}_{2}}\]            Þ \[{{x}_{1}}\ne {{x}_{2}}\], so it is not one-one.            Again the value of f-image of x lies in between ?1 to 1            Þ \[f[R]=\left\{ f(x):-1\le f(x)\le 1) \right\}\]            So other numbers of co-domain (besides ?1 and 1) is not f-image. \[f[R]\in R,\] so it is also not onto. So this mapping is neither one-one nor onto.


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