Solved papers for WB JEE Medical WB JEE Medical Solved Paper-2006

WB JEE Medical Solved Paper-2006 Total Questions - 300

1) The SI unit of gravitational potential is:

A)

\[J\]

B)

\[J-k{{g}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[J-kg\]

D)

\[J-k{{g}^{2}}\]

View Answer
2) The magnitude of a vector, on the addition of two vectors \[6\vec{i}+7\vec{j}\] and \[3\vec{i}+4\vec{j},\] is :

A)

\[\sqrt{132}+\]

B)

\[\sqrt{136}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{136}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{202}\]

View Answer
3) The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as \[V=\left( \frac{A\sqrt{x}}{x+B} \right);\] where A and B are constants. The dimensions of A B are:

A)

\[[M{{L}^{5/2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

B)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

C)

\[[{{M}^{3/2}}{{L}^{3/2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

D)

\[[M{{L}^{7/2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

View Answer
4) The acceleration experienced by a moving boat after its engine is cut off, is given by \[a=-k{{v}^{3}},\] where k is a constant. If \[{{v}_{0}}\] is the magnitude of velocity at cut off, then the magnitude of the velocity at time t after the cut off is :

A)

\[\frac{{{v}_{0}}}{2ktv_{0}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{v}_{0}}}{1+2ktv_{0}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{v}_{0}}}{\sqrt{1-2kv_{0}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{v}_{0}}}{\sqrt{1+2kt\,v_{0}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
5) A passenger train is moving at \[5\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}.\] An express train is travelling at \[30\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}},\] on the same track and rear side of the passenger tsrain at some distance. The driver in express train applied brakes to avoid collision. If the retardation due to brakes is \[4\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-2}},\] the time in which the accident is avoided after the application of brakes is :

A)

4.25 s

B)

5.25 s

C)

6.25 s

D)

7.25 s

View Answer
6) A weightless thread can bear tension upto 37 N. A stone of mass 500 g is tied to it and revolved in a circular path of radius 4 m in a vertical plane. If \[g=10\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-2}},\]         then the maximum angular velocity of the stone will be:

A)

\[2\,\text{rad}\,{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[4\,\text{rad}\,{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[8\,\text{rad}\,{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[16\,\text{rad}\,{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
7) The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to remain in equilibrium, the angle \[\theta \] should be:

A)

\[{{0}^{o}}\]

B)

\[{{30}^{o}}\]

C)

\[{{45}^{o}}\]

D)

\[{{60}^{o}}\]

View Answer
8) A force-time graph for a linear motion of a body is shown in the figure. The change in linear momentum between 0 and 7 s is :

A)

\[2\,N-s\]

B)

\[3\,N-s\]

C)

\[4\,N-s\]

D)

\[5\,N-s\]

View Answer
9) Figure shows two blocks A and B pushed against the smooth wall with the force F. The wall is smooth but the surfaces in contact of A and B are rough. Which of the following is true for the system of blocks?

A)

The system can not be in equilibrium

B)

F should be equal to weight of A and B

C)

F should be less than the weight of A and B

D)

F should be more than the weight of A and B

View Answer
10) A small block is shot into each of the four tracks as shown below. Each of the frictionless track rises to the same height. The speed, with which the block enters the tracks, is same in all cases. At the highest point of the track, normal reaction is maximum in :

A)



B)



C)



D)

View Answer
11) A particle is placed at the origin and a force \[F=k\text{ }x\] is acting on it (where k is positive constant). If u (0) = 0, the graph of \[u(x)\] versus \[x\] will be (where u is potential energy function) :

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
12) Two blocks of equal masses m are released from the top of a smooth fixed wedge as shown in the figure. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the two blocks is :

A)

g

B)

\[\frac{g}{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{3g}{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{g}{\sqrt{2}}\]

View Answer
13) The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is :

A)

\[M{{R}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{2}M{{R}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{3}{2}M{{R}^{2}}\]

D)

\[\frac{7}{2}M{{R}^{2}}\]

View Answer
14) Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision, is :

A)

1.5R

B)

2.5R

C)

\[4.5\,R\]

D)

  7.5 R

View Answer
15) A satellite orbiting the earth in a circular orbit of radius R completes one revolution in 3 h. If orbital radius of geostationary satellite is 36,000 km, orbital radius of earth is :

A)

6000 km

B)

9000 km

C)

12000 km

D)

15000 km

View Answer
16) A wire can be broken by applying a load of 200 N. The force required to break another wire of the same length and same material, but double in diameter, is :

A)

200 N

B)

400 N

C)

600 N

D)

800 N

View Answer
17) A cube of side 40 mm has its upper face displaced by 0.1 mm by a tangential force of 8 kN. The shearing modulus of cube is :

A)

\[2\times {{10}^{9}}\,N{{m}^{-2}}\]

B)

\[4\times {{10}^{9}}\,N{{m}^{-2}}\]

C)

\[8\times {{10}^{9}}\,N{{m}^{-2}}\]

D)

\[16\times {{10}^{9}}\,N{{m}^{-2}}\]

View Answer
18) The neck and bottom of a bottle are 3 cm and 15 cm in radius respectively. If ±e cork is pressed with a force 12 N in the neck of the bottle, then force exerted on the bottom of the bottle is :

A)

30 N

B)

150 N

C)

300 N

D)

600 N

View Answer
19) A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in the figure. The distances \[h\] and \[l\] are shown there. After sometime, the coin falls into the water. Then :

A)

both \[l\] and h increase

B)

both \[l\] and h decrease

C)

\[l\] decreases and h increases

D)

\[l\] increases and h decreases

View Answer
20) A square wire frame of size L is dipped in a liquid. On taking out a membrane is formed. If the surface tension of liquid is T, then force acting on a frame will be :

A)

2T L

B)

4T L

C)

8T L

D)

16 T L

View Answer
21) A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up to 8 cm. If entire arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator, the length of water column in the capillary tube will be :

A)

4 cm

B)

8 cm

C)

10cm

D)

20 cm

View Answer
22) A metal plate of area \[\text{1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{3}}}\,\text{c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\]rests on a layer of oil 6 mm thick. A tangential force of \[{{10}^{-2}}\,\text{N}\]is applied on it to move it with a constant velocity of \[6\,\text{cm}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}.\] The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is :

A)

0.1 poise

B)

0.5 poise

C)

0.7 poise

D)

0.9 poise

View Answer
23) Sixty four spherical rain drops of equal size are falling vertically through air with a terminal velocity \[1.5\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}.\] If these drops coalesce to form a big spherical drop, then terminal velocity of big drop is :

A)

\[8\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[16\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[24\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

  \[32\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
24) A cylinder of height 20 m is completely filled with water. The velocity of efflux of water (in \[\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}\]through a hole on the side wall of the cylinder near its bottom, is :

A)

10

B)

20

C)

25.5

D)

5

View Answer
25) A liquid flows through a pipe of non-uniform cross-section. If \[{{\text{A}}_{\text{1}}}\]and \[{{\text{A}}_{2}}\]arc the cross-sectional areas of the pipe at two points, the ratio of velocities of the liquid at these points will be :

A)

\[{{A}_{1}}{{A}_{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{A}_{1}}}{{{A}_{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{A}_{2}}}{{{A}_{1}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{{{A}_{1}}{{A}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
26) A particle executes simple harmonic motion between \[x=-A\]and \[x=+A.\]The time taken for it to go from 0 to A/2 is \[{{T}_{1}}\]and to go from A/2 to A is \[{{T}_{2}}.\]Then :

A)

\[{{T}_{1}}<{{T}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{T}_{1}}>{{T}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{T}_{1}}={{T}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{T}_{1}}=2{{T}_{2}}\]

View Answer
27) A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential energy (PE), kinetic energy (KE) and total energy (TE) are measured as a function of displacement y. Which of the following statements is true?

A)

TE is zero when \[x=0\]

B)

PE is maximum when \[x=0\]

C)

KE is maximum when \[x=0\]

D)

KE is maximum when \[x\] is maximum

View Answer
28) If mass-energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the mass of water should

A)

increase

B)

remain unchanged

C)

decrease

D)

first increase then decrease

View Answer
29) The equation of a wave is \[y=5\sin \left( \frac{t}{0.04}-\frac{x}{4} \right);\] where \[x\] is in cm and t in seconds. The maximum velocity of the wave will be :

A)

\[1\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[2\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[1.5\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[1.25\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
30) When the two waves \[{{y}_{1}}=a\sin \omega t\]and V \[{{y}_{2}}=a\cos \omega t\] are superimposed, then resultant amplitude is:

A)

a

B)

\[2a\]

C)

\[\sqrt{2}a\]

D)

\[\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}\]

View Answer
31) A train moves towards a stationary observer with speed \[34\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}.\] The train sounds a whistle and its frequency registered by the observer is \[{{v}_{1}}.\]If the trains speed is reduced to \[17\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}},\] the frequency registered is \[{{v}_{2}}.\] If the speed of sound is \[340\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}},\] then the ratio \[{{v}_{1}}/{{v}_{2}}\]is:

A)

2

B)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{18}{19}\]

D)

\[\frac{19}{18}\]

View Answer
32) Two vibrating strings of the same material but lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r respectively. They are stretched under the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their fundamental modes, the one of length L with frequency \[{{v}_{1}}\]and the other with frequency \[{{v}_{2}}.\]The ratio \[{{v}_{1}}/{{v}_{2}}\]is :

A)

2

B)

4

C)

8

D)

1

View Answer
33) The temperature, at which centigrade and Fahrenheit scales give the same reading, is:

A)

\[~-\,{{40}^{o}}\]

B)

\[~{{40}^{o}}\]

C)

\[~-\,{{30}^{o}}\]

D)

\[~\,{{30}^{o}}\]

View Answer
34) A brass rod of length 500 mm and diameter 3 mm is joined to a steel rod of same length and diameter at \[\text{50}{{\,}^{\text{o}}}\text{C}\text{.}\]If the coefficients of linear expansion of brass and steel are \[2.5\times {{10}^{-5}}{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}}\]and \[1.25\times {{10}^{-5}}{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}},\] then change in length of the combined rod at \[200{{\,}^{o}}C\]is :

A)

2.4 mm

B)

2.8 mm

C)

3.2 mm

D)

3.6 mm

View Answer
35) A copper block of mass 4 kg is heated in a fumance to a temperature \[\text{425}{{\,}^{\text{o}}}\text{C}\]and then placed on a large ice block. The mass of ice that will melt in this process will be (Specific heat of copper\[=500\,J\,k{{g}^{-1}}-{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}}\] and heat of fusion of ice\[=336\,kJ\,k{{g}^{-1}}\]):

A)

0.5 kg

B)

1 kg

C)

1.5 kg

D)

2.5 kg

View Answer
36) A block of ice at \[-\text{10}{{\,}^{\text{o}}}\text{C}\]is slowly heated and converted to steam at \[\text{100}{{\,}^{\text{o}}}\text{C}\text{.}\]Which of the following curves represents this phenomenon qualitatively?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
37) The pressure and density of a diatomic gas\[\left( \gamma =\frac{7}{5} \right)\] change adiabatically from \[({{P}_{1}},{{\rho }_{1}})\] to\[({{P}_{2}}{{\rho }_{2}}).\] IF \[\frac{{{\rho }_{2}}}{{{\rho }_{1}}}=32,\]then \[\frac{{{P}_{2}}}{{{P}_{1}}}\]should be:

A)

16

B)

32

C)

64

D)

128

View Answer
38) One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, then final temperature of the gas will be :

A)

(T - 4) K

B)

(T + 4) K

C)

(T - 2.4) K

D)

(T + 2.4) K

View Answer
39) In which mode Of transmission, the heat waves travel along Straight line with the speed of light?

A)

thermal radiation

B)

forced convection

C)

natural convection

D)

thermal conduction

View Answer
40) Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal lengths, thicknesses and thermal conductivities K and 2K respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is :

A)

\[\sqrt{2}K\]

B)

\[3K\]

C)

\[\frac{4}{3}K\]

D)

\[\frac{2}{3}K\]

View Answer
41) An ideal black body at room temperature is thrown into a fumance. It is observed that:

A)

it is the darkest body at all times

B)

it cannot be distinguished at all times

C)

initially it is the darkest body and later it becomes brightest

D)

initially it is the darkest body and later it cannot be distinguished

View Answer
42) If temperature of the sun were to increase from T to 2 T and its radius from R to 2 R, then how many times the radiant energy will be received on the earth?

A)

4

B)

16

C)

32

D)

64

View Answer
43) A black body has a wavelength of\[\lambda \] at temperature 2000 K.   Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be :

A)

\[\frac{2\lambda }{3}\]

B)

\[\frac{3\lambda }{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{4\lambda }{9}\]

D)

\[\frac{9\lambda }{4}\]

View Answer
44) According to first law of thermodynamics:

A)

energy is conserved

B)

mass is conserved

C)

heat is constant in isothermal process

D)

heat neither enters nor leaves system First law of thermodynamics is equivalent to conservation of energy.

View Answer
45) Ten moles of an ideal gas at constant temperature 500 K is compressed from 50 L to 5 L. Work done in the process is (Given, \[R=8.31\,J-mo{{l}^{-1}}-{{K}^{-1}}\]) :

A)

\[-1.2\times {{10}^{4}}J\]

B)

\[-2.4\times {{10}^{4}}J\]

C)

\[-\,4.8\times {{10}^{4}}J\]

D)

\[-\,9.6\times {{10}^{4}}J\]

View Answer
46) A plane mirror produces a magnification of:

A)

zero

B)

-1

C)

+1

D)

between 0 and +1

View Answer
47) In a pond of water, a flame is held 2 m above the surface of water. A fish is at depth of 4 m from water surface. Refractive index of warer is \[\frac{4}{3}.\] The apparent height of the flame from the eyes of fish is :

A)

5.5 m

B)

6 m

C)

\[\frac{8}{3}m\]

D)

\[\frac{20}{3}m\]

View Answer
48) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air, as shown in the figure. If green light is just totally and internally reflected, then the emerging ray in air contains :

A)

all colours

B)

yellow, orange and red

C)

violet, indigo and blue

D)

all colours except green

View Answer
49) A convex lens made up of a material of refractive index \[{{\mu }_{1}}\]is immersed in a medium of refractive index \[{{\mu }_{2}}\]as shown in the figure. The relation between \[{{\mu }_{1}}\]and\[{{\mu }_{2}}\] is :

A)

\[{{\mu }_{1}}<{{\mu }_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{\mu }_{1}}>{{\mu }_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{\mu }_{1}}={{\mu }_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{\mu }_{1}}=\sqrt{{{\mu }_{2}}}\]

View Answer
50) If a flint lens glass of dispersive power 0.066 renders achromatic to a convex lens of crown glass of focal length 60 cm and dispersive power 0.033, then its focal length is:

A)

- 60 cm

B)

+ 60 cm

C)

-120 cm

D)

+ 120cm

View Answer
51) Two coherent light beams of intensity \[I\] and \[4I\]are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are :

A)

\[5I\]and \[I\]

B)

\[5I\]and\[3I\]

C)

\[9I\] and \[I\]

D)

\[9I\]and \[3I\]

View Answer
52) If Youngs double slit experiment is performed in water instead of air, then :

A)

no fringes would be seen

B)

fringe width would decrease

C)

fringe width would increase

D)

fringe width would remain unchanged

View Answer
53) In Youngs double-slit experiment, the angular width of fringe formed on a distance screen is \[\text{0}\text{.}{{\text{1}}^{\text{o}}}\text{.}\] If wavelength of light is \[\text{6000}\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,,\] then spacing between the slits is :

A)

\[3.4\times {{10}^{-4}}\,m\]

B)

\[4.3\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

C)

\[5.4\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

D)

\[6.3\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

View Answer
54) A person uses spectacles of power + 2 D. He is suffering from:

A)

myopia

B)

presbyopia

C)

astigmatism

D)

hypermetropia

View Answer
55) The magnification produced by the objective lens and the eye lens of a compound microscope are 25 and 6 respectively. The magnification of this microscope is:

A)

25

B)

50

C)

150

D)

200

View Answer
56) Two charged spheres separated by a distance d exert some force (F) on each other. If they are immersed in a liquid of dielectric constant 4, then what is the force exerted, if all other conditions are same?

A)

2F

B)

4F

C)

\[\frac{F}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{F}{4}\]

View Answer
57) An uncharged sphere of metal is placed inside a charged parallel plate capacitor. The electric lines of force will look like:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
58) The electric potential at a point on the axis of an electric dipole depends upon the distance \[r(>>a)\] of the point from centre of the dipole as:

A)

\[\propto r\]

B)

\[\propto \frac{1}{r}\]

C)

\[\propto \frac{1}{{{r}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\propto \frac{1}{{{r}^{3}}}\]

View Answer
59) A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any face is :

A)

\[\frac{4\pi q}{6(4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}})}\]

B)

\[\frac{\pi q}{6(4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}})}\]

C)

\[\frac{q}{6(4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}})}\]

D)

\[\frac{2\pi q}{6(4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}})}\]

View Answer
60) Figure shows three spherical and equipotential surfaces A, B and C round a point charge q. The potential difference \[{{V}_{A}}-{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{B}}-{{V}_{C}}.\]If \[{{t}_{1}}\]and \[{{t}_{2}}\] be the distance between them. Then:

A)

\[{{t}_{1}}={{t}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{t}_{1}}>{{t}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{t}_{1}}<{{t}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{t}_{1}}\le {{t}_{2}}\]

View Answer
61) Three capacitors of capacitances \[1\,\mu F,2\mu F\]and 4uF are connected first in a series combination, and then in a parallel combination. The ratio of their equivalent capacitances will be :

A)

2: 49

B)

49:2

C)

4 : 49

D)

49 : 4

View Answer
62) A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C. It is discharged through a small coil of resistance wire embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific heat capacity s and mass m. If temperature of the block is raised by\[\Delta T,\] the potential difference V across the capacitor is :

A)

\[\frac{ms\Delta T}{C}\]

B)

\[\frac{mC\Delta T}{s}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{\frac{2mC\Delta T}{s}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{\frac{2ms\Delta T}{C}}\]

View Answer
63) In the given figure, a hollow spherical capacitor is shown. The electric field will not be zero at

A)

\[r<{{r}_{1}}\]

B)

\[{{r}_{1}}<{{r}_{2}}\]

C)

\[r<{{r}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{r}_{1}}<r<{{r}_{2}}\]

View Answer
64) At room temperature, copper has free electron density of \[8.4\times {{10}^{28}}{{m}^{-3}}.\] The electron drift velocity   in   a   copper   conductor   of cross-sectional area of \[{{10}^{-6}}{{m}^{2}}\]and carrying a current of 5.4 A, will be :

A)

\[4\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[0.4\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[4\,cm\,{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[0.4\,mm\,{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
65) Which of the following set up can be used to verify the Ohms law?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
66) A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4, which are then connected in parallel combination. The effective resistance of the combination will be:

A)

R

B)

4R

C)

\[\frac{R}{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{R}{16}\]

View Answer
67) A capacitor of capacitance \[\text{5 }\!\!\mu\!\!\text{ F}\]is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the cell is \[0.5\Omega .\] The amount of charge on the capacitor plates is :

A)

\[8\mu C\]

B)

\[40\mu C\]

C)

\[20\mu C\]

D)

\[10\mu C\]

View Answer
68) Two identical cells of the same emf and sameinternal resistance give the same currentthrough an external resistance \[2\Omega ,\] regardlessof whether they are connected in series orparallel. The internal resistance of the cell is :

A)

\[1\,\Omega \]

B)

\[2\,\Omega \]

C)

\[3\,\Omega \]

D)

\[4\,\Omega \]

View Answer
69) Six equal resistance are connected betweenpoints P, Q and R as shown in the figure. Thenthe net resistance will be maximum between :

A)

P and Q

B)

Q and R

C)

P and Q

D)

only two points

View Answer
70) The equivalent resistance across A and B is :

A)

\[2\,\Omega \]

B)

\[3\,\Omega \]

C)

\[4\,\Omega \]

D)

\[5\,\Omega \]

View Answer
71) For the post office box arrangement todetermine the value of unknown resistance, the unknown resistance should be connected between:

A)

B and C

B)

C and D

C)

A and D

D)

\[{{B}_{1}}\]and\[{{C}_{1}}\]

View Answer
72) An electric current passes through a long straight copper wire. At a distance 5 cm from the straight wire, the magnetic field is B. The magnetic field at 20 cm from the straight wire would be:

A)

\[\frac{B}{6}\]

B)

\[\frac{B}{4}\]

C)

\[\frac{B}{3}\]

D)

\[\frac{B}{2}\]

View Answer
73) In a hydrogen atom, the electron is making\[6.6\times {{10}^{15}}\]rps in a circular path of radius\[\text{0}\text{.53}\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\text{.}\]What is the magnetic induction produced at the centre of orbit?

A)

6.3 T

B)

12.6 T

C)

18.9 T

D)

25.2 T

View Answer
74) A cell is connected between the points A and C of a circular conductor ABCD with 0 as centre and angle \[\text{AOC}\,\text{= 6}{{\text{0}}^{\text{o}}}\text{.}\]If \[{{\text{B}}_{\text{1}}}\]and \[{{\text{B}}_{2}}\]are the magnitudes of the magnetic fields at O due to the currents in ABC and ADC respectively, then ratio \[\frac{{{B}_{1}}}{{{B}_{2}}}\]is :

A)

1

B)

2

C)

5

D)

6

View Answer
75) An electron of mass m and charge q is travelling with a speed v along a circular path of radius r at right angles to a uniform of magnetic field B. If speed of the electron is doubled and the magnetic field is halved, then resulting path would have a radius of:

A)

\[\frac{r}{4}\]

B)

\[\frac{r}{2}\]

C)

\[2r\]

D)

\[4r\]

View Answer
76) A particle of charge \[-16\times {{10}^{-18}}C\]moving with velocity \[10\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}\] along the \[x-\]axis enters a region where a magnetic field of induction B is along the \[y-\]axis, and an electric field of magnitude \[{{10}^{4}}\,\text{V}{{\text{m}}^{-1}}\] is along the negative\[z-\]axis. If the charged particle continues moving along the \[x-\]axis, then magnitude of B is :

A)

\[{{10}^{-3}}Wb{{m}^{-2}}\]

B)

\[{{10}^{3}}Wb{{m}^{-2}}\]

C)

\[{{10}^{5}}Wb{{m}^{-2}}\]

D)

\[{{10}^{16}}Wb{{m}^{-2}}\]

View Answer
77) The ratio of voltage sensitivity \[({{V}_{S}})\] and current sensitivity \[({{I}_{S}})\] of a moving coil galvanometers:

A)

\[\frac{1}{G}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{{{G}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[G\]

D)

\[{{G}^{2}}\]

View Answer
78) A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have

A)

low resistance in series with its coil

B)

low resistance in parallel with its coil

C)

high resistance in series with its coil

D)

high resistance in parallel with its coil

View Answer
79) In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields are present. These two fields are parallel to each other. A charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path of the particle will be a :

A)

helix

B)

straight line

C)

ellipse

D)

circle

View Answer
80) The coil in a tangent galvanometer is 16 cm in radius. If a current of 20 mA is to produce a deflection of \[\text{4}{{\text{5}}^{\text{o}}},\] then the number of turns wound on it, is (Take horizontal component of earths magnetic field \[=0.36\times {{10}^{-4}}T\]and\[{{\mu }_{0}}=4\pi \times {{10}^{-7}}\,Wb{{A}^{-1}}{{m}^{-1}}\])

A)

229

B)

458

C)

689

D)

916

View Answer
81) A frog can be levitated in magnetic field produced by a current in a vertical solenoid placed below the frog. This is possible because the body of the frog behaves as:

A)

paramagnetic

B)

diamagnetic

C)

ferromagnetic

D)

anti-ferromagnetic

View Answer
82) The magnetic susceptibility of a material of arod is 499. The absolute permeability of vacuum is \[4\pi \times {{10}^{-7}}\,H{{m}^{-1}},\] The absolute permeability of the material of rod is :

A)

\[\pi \times {{10}^{-4}}\,H{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[2\pi \times {{10}^{-4}}\,H{{m}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[3\pi \times {{10}^{-4}}\,H{{m}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[4\pi \times {{10}^{-4}}\,H{{m}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
83) A small piece of metal wire is dragged across the gap between the poles of a magnet in 0.4 s. If change in magnetic flux in the wire is\[8\times {{10}^{-4}}\text{Wb},\] then emf induced in the wire is:

A)

\[8\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]

B)

\[6\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]

C)

\[4\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]

D)

\[2\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]

View Answer
84) The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by the equation : \[\text{o }\!\!|\!\!\text{ =}\,\text{5}{{\text{t}}^{3}}-100t+300.\]The magnitude of emf induced in the coil after 3 s is :

A)

10 V

B)

20 V

C)

35 V

D)

70 V

View Answer
85) In 0.1 s, the current in a coil increases from 1 A to 1.5 A. If inductance of coil is 60 mH, then induced current in external resistance of \[3\Omega \]will be :

A)

1 A

B)

0.5 A

C)

0.2A

D)

0.1A

View Answer
86) The impedance of a circuit, when a resistance R and an inductor of inductance L are connected in series in an AC circuit of frequency \[f,\] is :

A)

\[\sqrt{R+2{{\pi }^{2}}{{f}^{2}}{{L}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{R+4{{\pi }^{2}}{{f}^{2}}{{L}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{{{R}^{2}}+4{{\pi }^{2}}{{f}^{2}}{{L}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{{{R}^{2}}+2{{\pi }^{2}}{{f}^{2}}{{L}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
87) In a series LCR circuit, resistance \[R=10\,\Omega \]and the impedance \[Z=10\,\Omega .\]The phase difference between the current and the voltage is :

A)

\[{{\text{0}}^{\text{o}}}\]

B)

\[\text{3}{{\text{0}}^{\text{o}}}\]

C)

\[{{45}^{\text{o}}}\]

D)

\[{{60}^{\text{o}}}\]

View Answer
88) A circuit consists of an inductance of 0.5 mH and a capacitor of\[\text{20}\,\text{ }\!\!\mu\!\!\text{ F}\text{.}\] The frequency of the LC oscillations is approximately :

A)

400 Hz

B)

88 Hz

C)

1600 Hz

D)

2400 Hz

View Answer
89) Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the smallest wavelength?

A)

\[\gamma -\]rays

B)

X-rays ,

C)

UV waves

D)

infrared rays

View Answer
90) The kinetic energy of an electron, which isaccelerated in the potential difference of 100V, is:

A)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-17}}J\]

B)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-14}}J\]

C)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-10}}J\]

D)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-8}}J\]

View Answer
91) J.J. Thomsons cathode ray tube experimentdemonstrated that:

A)

cathode rays are streams of negativelycharged ions

B)

all the mass of an atom is essentially in thenucleus

C)

the e/m of electrons is much greater thanthee/ mot protons

D)

the e/ m ratio of the cathode ray particleschanges when a different gas is placed inthe discharge tube

View Answer
92) The figure shows variation of photocurrentwith anode potential for a photo-sensitivesurface for three different radiations. Let \[{{I}_{a}},{{I}_{b}}\]and \[{{I}_{c}}\]be the intensities and Vg, v^, and v,; be thefrequencies for the curves a,b and crespectively. Then :

A)

\[{{v}_{a}}={{v}_{b}}\]and\[{{I}_{a}}\ne {{I}_{b}}\]

B)

\[{{v}_{a}}={{v}_{c}}\]and\[{{I}_{a}}={{I}_{c}}\]

C)

\[{{v}_{a}}={{v}_{b}}\]and\[{{I}_{a}}={{I}_{b}}\]

D)

\[{{v}_{b}}={{v}_{c}}\]and\[{{I}_{b}}={{I}_{c}}\]

View Answer
93) Wavelength of light emitted from second orbitto first orbit in a hydrogen atom is:

A)

\[\text{6563}\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[4102\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[4861\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[1215\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
94) If M is atomic mass, A is mass number of anucleus, then \[\frac{M-A}{A}\] is called :

A)

mass defect

B)

fermi energy

C)

binding energy

D)

packing fraction

View Answer
95) The half-life of a radio-isotope is 4 h. If initialmass of the isotope was 200 g, then massremaining after 24 h will be :

A)

1.042g

B)

2.084 g

C)

3.125 g

D)

4.167 g

View Answer
96) A radioactive nucleus A finally transforms intoa stable nucleus B. Then A and B can be :

A)

isobars

B)

isotones

C)

isotopes

D)

none of these

View Answer
97) If \[{{\,}_{92}}{{U}^{206}}\]emits 8 \[\alpha -\]particles and \[6\beta -\]particles,then the resulting nucleus is:

A)

\[{{\,}_{82}}{{U}^{206}}\]

B)

\[{{\,}_{82}}P{{b}^{206}}\]

C)

\[{{\,}_{82}}{{U}^{210}}\]

D)

\[{{\,}_{82}}{{U}^{214}}\]

View Answer
98) Carbon, silicon and germanium atoms havefour valence electrons each. Their valence andconduction bands are separated by energyband gaps represented by \[{{({{E}_{g}})}_{C}},{{({{E}_{g}})}_{Si}},\] and\[{{({{E}_{g}})}_{Ge}}\]respectively. Which one of the followingrelationships is true in their case ?

A)

\[{{({{E}_{g}})}_{C}}>{{({{E}_{g}})}_{Si}}\]

B)

\[{{({{E}_{g}})}_{C}}={{({{E}_{g}})}_{Si}}\]

C)

\[{{({{E}_{g}})}_{C}}<{{({{E}_{g}})}_{Ge}}\]

D)

\[{{({{E}_{g}})}_{C}}<{{({{E}_{g}})}_{Si}}\]

View Answer
99) Then \[n-\]type semiconductors are obtained,when germanium is doped with :

A)

arsenic

B)

phosphorus

C)

antimony

D)

any one of these

View Answer
100) Which logic gate is represented by thefollowing combination of logic gates?

A)

OR

B)

NOR

C)

AND

D)

NAND

View Answer
101) Cadmium rods are used for which purpose?

A)

Emit electrons

B)

Absorb neutrons

C)

Emit neutrons

D)

Absorb electrons

View Answer
102) Propionic acid and KOH reacts to produce which one of the following?

A)

Potassium propionate

B)

Propyl alcohol

C)

Propionaldehyde

D)

Does not react

View Answer
103) What is the effect of dilution on the equivalent conductance of strong electrolyte?

A)

Decrease on dilution

B)

Remains unchanged

C)

Increase on dilution

D)

None of the above

View Answer
104) 35.4 mL of \[\text{HCl}\] is required for the neutralization of a solution containing 0.275 g of sodium hydroxide. The normality of hydrochloric acid is?

A)

0.97 N

B)

0.142 N

C)

0.194N

D)

0.244 N

View Answer
105) When \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\] gas is passed in a metal sulphate solution in presence of \[\text{N}{{\text{H}}_{\text{4}}}\text{OH,}\] a white precipitate is produced. The metal is identified as:

A)

Zn

B)

Fe

C)

Pb

D)

Hg

View Answer
106) The value of amu is which of the following?

A)

\[1.57\times {{10}^{-24}}kg\]

B)

\[1.66\times {{10}^{-24}}kg\]

C)

\[1.99\times {{10}^{-23}}kg\]

D)

\[1.66\times {{10}^{-27}}kg\]

View Answer
107) The molecule having largest dipole moment among the following is :

A)

\[CH{{I}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

\[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

\[CC{{l}_{4}}\]

View Answer
108) When calcium acetate is distilled, it will produce which of the following compound?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

All of these

View Answer
109) Which   of   the   following   electronic configuration represents noble gas?

A)

\[n{{s}^{2}}n{{p}^{6}}\]

B)

\[n{{s}^{2}}n{{p}^{5}}\]

C)

\[n{{s}^{2}}n{{p}^{4}}\]

D)

\[n{{s}^{2}}n{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
110) Sodium pyrophosphate is represented by which of the following formula?

A)

\[N{{a}_{2}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[N{{a}_{4}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

C)

\[N{{a}_{4}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

D)

\[N{{a}_{2}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

View Answer
111) Which one of the following can produce hydrogen when treated with metallic sodium?

A)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}NH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CON{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
112) Which one of the following has unit positive charge and 1 amu mass?

A)

Electron

B)

Neutron

C)

Proton

D)

None of these

View Answer
113) What is the co-ordination number of body centred cube?

A)

8

B)

6

C)

4

D)

12

View Answer
114) Which gas is evolved by the treatment of magnesium with very dilute solution of \[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]?

A)

\[~{{N}_{2}}\]

B)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
115) Which of the following compound shows aromatic properties?

A)

Valine

B)

Leucine

C)

Serine

D)

Tyrosine

View Answer
116) Which one of the following pair shows Buffers solution?

A)

\[NaCl+NaOH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COONa+C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH+C{{H}_{3}}COON{{H}_{4}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+CuS{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
117) \[\text{PC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{3}}}\]and cold water reacts to produce which of the following?

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{a2}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{4}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
118) Which of the following converts carbonyl compounds into hydrocarbons?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}/Pt\]

B)

\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

\[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}/{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[Zn-Hg/HCl\]

View Answer
119) Which of the following chloride is water insoluble?

A)

\[HCl\]

B)

\[AgCl\]

C)

Both a and b

D)

None of these

View Answer
120) How many neutrons are present in tritium nucleus?

A)

2

B)

3

C)

1

D)

0

View Answer
121) The total number of protons in \[10g\] of calcium carbonate is \[({{N}_{0}}=6.023\times {{10}^{23}}):\]

A)

\[3.01\times {{10}^{24}}\]

B)

\[~4.06\times {{10}^{24}}\]

C)

\[2.01\times {{10}^{24}}\]

D)

\[3.02\times {{10}^{24}}\]

View Answer
122) By dissolving 5 g substance in 50 g of water, the decraease in freezing point is \[1.2{{\,}^{o}}C.\] The gram molal depression is \[1.85{{\,}^{o}}C.\] The molecular weight of substance is :

A)

105.4

B)

118.2

C)

137.2

D)

154.2

View Answer
123) The high boiling point of water is due to which reason :

A)

co-ordinate bonding

B)

covalent bond

C)

electrostatic force of attraction

D)

hydrogen bonding

View Answer
124) Which is correct for an enothermic reaction?

A)

\[\Delta H\]is positive

B)

\[\Delta H\]is negative

C)

\[\Delta E\]is negative

D)

\[\Delta H=zero\]

View Answer
125) Acetonitriles on hydrolysis produce which of the following?

A)

Amine

B)

Acid

C)

Amines

D)

Carbonyl compounds

View Answer
126) The radius of hydorgen atom is \[0.53\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] The radius of \[{{\,}_{\text{3}}}\text{L}{{\text{i}}^{\text{2+}}}\] is of:

A)

\[1.27\text{ }\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[0.17\text{ }\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[0.57\text{ }\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[0.99\text{ }\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
127) The purest form of coal is:

A)

peat

B)

anthracite

C)

bituminous

D)

lignite

View Answer
128) The correct sequence of hybridisation of methane, ethene and acetylene is:

A)

\[sp,\text{ s}{{p}^{2}},\text{ s}{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{2}},\text{ s}{{p}^{3}},\text{ }sp\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{3}},\text{ s}{{p}^{2}},\text{ }Sp\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}},\text{ }Sp,\text{ s}{{p}^{2}}\]

View Answer
129) Which phosphorus reacts with KOH solution to produce phosphene gas?

A)

White phosphorus

B)

Red phosphorus

C)

Both and

D)

None of Aese

View Answer
130) Saturated fatty acids are represented by which of the formula?

A)

\[{{C}_{n}}{{H}_{n}}{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{n}}{{H}_{3n}}{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{n}}{{H}_{2n+1}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{n}}{{H}_{2n}}{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
131) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{Sn/HCl}{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}X\]X is identified as:

A)

NO

B)

\[N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

NHOH

D)

none of these

View Answer
132) Acetic acid and \[{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]reacts to produce which of the following?

A)

Acetic anhydride

B)

Acetaldehyde

C)

Phosphoric acid

D)

Acetone

View Answer
133) The test for unsaturation is confirmed by the decolourisation of which of the following?

A)

Iodine water

B)

\[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]solution

C)

Bromine water

D)

All of these

View Answer
134) Which of the following element shows maximum valency?

A)

Carbon

B)

Barium

C)

Nitrogen

D)

Sulphur

View Answer
135) The volume of oxygen necessary for the complete combustion of 20 L of propane is :

A)

40 L

B)

60 L

C)

80 L

D)

100 L

View Answer
136) Which reaction is used for the preparation of acetophenone?

A)

Reimer-Tiemann reaction

B)

Wurtz-Fittig reaction

C)

Friedel-Crafts reaction

D)

Cannizaros reaction

View Answer
137) 0.005 M acid solution has 5 pH. The percentage ionisation of acid is :

A)

0.8%

B)

0.6%

C)

0.4%

D)

0.2%

View Answer
138) PVC polymer can be prepared by which of the monomer?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[~C{{H}_{2}}=C{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CHCl\]

View Answer
139) \[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\] is weaker acid than \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}.\] It is due to:

A)

more ionization

B)

less ionization

C)

covalent bond

D)

electrovalent bond

View Answer
140) The ortho and para hydrogen differ in respect of which of the following?

A)

In the molecular weight

B)

In the nature of spin of protons

C)

In the nature of spin of electrons

D)

In the number of protons

View Answer
141) Which of the following is correct according to adsorption isotherm?

A)

\[\frac{X}{m}\propto {{p}^{o}}\]

B)

\[\frac{X}{m}\propto p\]

C)

\[\frac{X}{m}\propto {{p}^{1/n}}\]

D)

All of these

View Answer
142) \[{{\,}_{\text{84}}}\text{R}{{\text{n}}^{\text{219}}}\] is a member of actinium series. The other member of this series is :

A)

\[{{\,}_{\text{89}}}\text{A}{{\text{c}}^{225}}\]

B)

\[{{\,}_{\text{90}}}T{{h}^{232}}\]

C)

\[{{\,}_{15}}T{{h}^{35}}\]

D)

\[{{\,}_{92}}{{U}^{235}}\]

View Answer
143) The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is :

A)

1

B)

2

C)

4

D)

0

View Answer
144) Soaps can be classified as:

A)

carbohydrates

B)

ether

C)

salts of fatty acids

D)

none of these

View Answer
145) In a chemical reaction two reactants takes part. The rate of reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of one of them and inversely proportional to the concentration of the other. The order of reaction is :

A)

0

B)

1

C)

2

D)

4

View Answer
146) A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of \[{{\text{N}}_{\text{2}}}\text{, 44 g}\] of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]and 16 g of \[C{{H}_{4}}.\]The total pressure of mixture is 720 mm of Hg. The partial pressure of methane is :

A)

75 aim

B)

160 atm

C)

180 atm

D)

215 atm

View Answer
147) The metal used to recover copper from a solution of \[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]is:

A)

Fe

B)

He

C)

Na

D)

Ag

View Answer
148) Amino acids have peptide linkage which is :

A)

\[-CO-NH-\]

B)

\[-C-N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[SO-NH-\]

D)

\[-CO-N-\]

View Answer
149) Phenacetin is used as:

A)

antipyretics

B)

antiseptics

C)

analgesic

D)

antimalarials

View Answer
150) Gravity separation process is used for the concentration of:

A)

calamine

B)

haematite

C)

chalcopyrite

D)

bauxite

View Answer
151) Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?

A)

Magnesite

B)

Dolomite

C)

Gypsum

D)

Carnallite

View Answer
152) The solubility of \[S{{b}_{2}}{{S}_{3}}\]in water is \[1.0\times {{10}^{-5}}\text{mol/L}\]at 298K. What will be its solubility product?

A)

\[108\times {{10}^{-25}}\]

B)

\[1.0\times {{10}^{-25}}\]

C)

\[144\times {{10}^{-25}}\]

D)

\[126\times {{10}^{-24}}\]

View Answer
153) What will be the pH value of 0.05 M \[Ba{{(OH)}_{2}}\]solution?

A)

12

B)

13

C)

1

D)

12.96

View Answer
154) Which of the following will not react with\[\text{NaOH}\]?

A)

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CON{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[CH{{(CN)}_{3}}\]

View Answer
155) Industrial name for \[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\] is :

A)

Pyrosulphuric acid

B)

Marshalls acid

C)

Oleum

D)

all of the above

View Answer
156) \[{{\text{I}}_{\text{2}}}\]dissolves in KI solution due to the formation of:

A)

\[\text{K}{{\text{I}}_{2}}\]and \[{{I}^{-}}\]

B)

\[{{K}^{+}},{{I}^{-}}\]and \[{{I}_{2}}\]

C)

\[\text{I}_{3}^{-}\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
157) Water gas is :

A)

\[CO+{{N}_{2}}\]

B)

\[CO+C{{O}_{2}}+C{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}}+{{N}_{2}}~\]

D)

\[CO+{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
158) Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidised to :

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[COC{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}},\text{ }C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
159) lodoform test is not given by :

A)

\[HCHO\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[~{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

View Answer
160) In Me Arthur forest method, silver is extracted from the solution of \[Na[Ag{{(CN)}_{2}}]\] by the use of:

A)

Fe

B)

Mg

C)

Cu

D)

Zn

View Answer
161) IUPAC name of: \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C(Br)=CH-Cl\]is:

A)

2-bromo-l-chloro butane

B)

1-chloro-2-bromo butane

C)

3-chloro-2-bromo butene-2

D)

none of the above

View Answer
162) Which of the following elements never show positive oxidation number?

A)

0

B)

Fe

C)

Ga

D)

F

View Answer
163) Which of the following is anhydride of perchloric acid?

A)

\[C{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

B)

\[C{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

C)

\[C{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[HClO\]

View Answer
164) Quantitative measurement of nitrogen in an organic compound is done by the method:

A)

Berthelot method

B)

Belstein method

C)

Lassaigne test

D)

Kjheldahl method

View Answer
165) Benedicts solution is not reduced by:

A)

formaldehyde

B)

acetaldehyde

C)

glucose

D)

acetic anhydride

View Answer
166) Which of the following sulphides is yellow in colour?

A)

Cus

B)

Cds

C)

ZnS

D)

CoS

View Answer
167) Which of the following element is a metalloid?

A)

Bi

B)

Sn

C)

Ge

D)

C

View Answer
168) Brown ring in the test of \[\text{NO}_{3}^{-}\] is formed due to the formation of:

A)

\[FeS{{O}_{4}}.NO\]

B)

\[[Fe{{(S{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}.NO]{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[F{{e}_{2}}{{(S{{O}_{4}})}_{3}}.NO\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
169) The vapour pressure will be lowest for :

A)

0.1 M sugar solution

B)

0.1 M KC1 solution

C)

\[0.1\text{ }MCu{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\] solution

D)

\[~0.1\text{ }M\text{ }AgN{{O}_{3}}\] solution

View Answer
170) Which of the following is a false statement?

A)

Fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine

B)

Nitrogen has greater \[\text{I}{{\text{E}}_{\text{1}}}\] than oxygen

C)

Lithium is amphoteric

D)

Chlorine is an oxidising agent

View Answer
171) What is the name of element with atomic number 105?

A)

Kurchatovium

B)

Dubnium

C)

Nobelium

D)

Holmium

View Answer
172) Which kind of fission is favoured by sunlight?

A)

Heterolytic fission

B)

Homolytic fission

C)

Both and

D)

None of these

View Answer
173) The reagent used in Gateman Koch aldehyde synthesis is :

A)

\[Pb/BaS{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

alkaline \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

acidic \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[CO+HCl\]

View Answer
174) Which type of isomerism is shown by propanal and propanone?

A)

Functional group

B)

Metamerism

C)

Tautomerism

D)

Chain isomerism

View Answer
175) lonisation depends upon:

A)

pressure

B)

volume

C)

dilution

D)

none of these

View Answer
176) Which of the following oxide does not form acidic aqueous solution?

A)

\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

D)

NO

View Answer
177) Which of the following is a use of alum?

A)

Making explosives

B)

Bleaching clothes

C)

Water softening

D)

All of the above

View Answer
178) The first ionisation potential is maximum for:

A)

B

B)

N

C)

0

D)

Be

View Answer
179) Which of the following salt does not get hydrolysed in water?

A)

\[KCl{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COONa~\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
180) In the reaction : \[{{H}_{2}}+{{I}_{2}}=2HI\] In a 2 L flask 0.4 moles of each \[{{H}_{2}}\] and \[{{I}_{2}}\] are taken. At equilibrium 0.5 moles of HI are formed. What will be the value of equilibrium constant \[{{K}_{c}}\]?

A)

20.2

B)

25.4

C)

0.284

D)

11.1

View Answer
181) Blood cells will remain as such in :

A)

hypertonic solution

B)

hypotonic solution

C)

isotonic solution

D)

none of the above

View Answer
182) Which among the following elements have lowest value of\[\text{I}{{\text{E}}_{\text{1}}}\]?

A)

Pb

B)

Sn

C)

Si

D)

C

View Answer
183) KI and \[\text{CuS}{{\text{O}}_{4}}\] solution when mixed, give :

A)

\[Cu{{l}_{2}}+{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[C{{u}_{2}}{{I}_{2}}+{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+\text{ }C{{u}_{2}}{{I}_{2}}+{{I}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+Cu{{I}_{2}}+{{I}_{2}}\]

View Answer
184) Which of the following is a Lewis base?

A)

\[NaOH\]

B)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

All of these

View Answer
185) Wave nature of electrons was demonstrated by :

A)

Schrodinger

B)

de-Broglie

C)

Davisson and Garmer

D)

Heisenberg

View Answer
186) Distribution law was given by :

A)

Henry

B)

vant Hoff

C)

Nemst

D)

Ostwald

View Answer
187) When Cu reacts with \[\text{AgN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]solution, the reaction takes place is :

A)

oxidation of Cu

B)

reduction of Cu

C)

oxidation of Ag

D)

reduction of \[NO_{3}^{-}\]

View Answer
188) Cetane is a compound which has very good ignition property. Chemically it is:

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{14}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}C{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{11}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{17}}{{H}_{34}}\]

D)

none of the above

View Answer
189) Aldol condensation will not occur in :

A)

\[HCHO\]

B)

\[~C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}CHO\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

View Answer
190) Which of the following alcohol is used as beverage?

A)

Propanol

B)

2-butanol

C)

Methanol

D)

Ethanol

View Answer
191) The oxidation number of carbon in \[C{{H}_{2}}O\]is :

A)

-2

B)

+2

C)

0

D)

+4

View Answer
192) Which of the following reaction involves oxidation and reduction?

A)

\[NaBr+\text{ }HCl\xrightarrow{{}}\text{ }NaCl+\text{ }HBr\]

B)

\[HBr+AgN{{O}_{3}}\xrightarrow{{}}AgBr+HN{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}+B{{r}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}2HBr\]

D)

\[N{{a}_{2}}O+{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\xrightarrow{{}}N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
193) The electrophile involved in the nitration of benzene is :

A)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[NO_{2}^{+}\]

C)

NO

D)

\[NO_{2}^{-}\]

View Answer
194) The correct order of ease of dehydration of following is :

A)

I > II > III

B)

III > II > I

C)

I > III > II

D)

III > I > II

View Answer
195) Fluorine is the best oxidising agent because it has:

A)

highest elecron affinity

B)

highest \[E_{red}^{o}\]

C)

highest \[E_{oxid}^{o}\]

D)

lowest electron affinity

View Answer
196) The bond order of \[\text{O}_{\text{2}}^{\text{+}}\] is the same as in :

A)

\[\text{N}_{2}^{+}\]

B)

\[C{{N}^{-}}\]

C)

\[CO\]

D)

\[N{{O}^{+}}\]

View Answer
197) When acetamide reacts with \[B{{r}_{2}}\]and caustic soda, then we get:

A)

acetic acid

B)

bromoacetic acid

C)

methyl amine

D)

ethyl amine

View Answer
198) Bleaching action of \[\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]is due to its:

A)

oxidising property

B)

acidic property

C)

basic property

D)

reducing property

View Answer
199) When \[{{\text{I}}_{2}}\] is passed through \[\text{KCl,KF}\]and \[\text{KBr}\]solutions :

A)

\[\text{C}{{\text{l}}_{2}}\]and \[B{{r}_{2}}\]are evolved

B)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\]is evolved

C)

\[C{{l}_{2}},B{{r}_{2}}\]and \[{{F}_{2}}\]are evolved

D)

none of the above

View Answer
200) Which of the following dissolves in hot cone. NaOH solution?

A)

Fe

B)

Zn

C)

Cn

D)

Ag

View Answer
201) A prokaryotic cell lacks:

A)

nucleus

B)

nuclear membrane

C)

membrane bound organelles

D)

all of the above

View Answer
202) Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of the presence of genes in:

A)

ER and mitochondria

B)

lysosomes and ribosomes

C)

ribosomes and chloroplast

D)

mitochondria and chloroplasts

View Answer
203) Vesicles of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) are most likely on their way to:

A)

plastids

B)

lysosomes

C)

nucleolus

D)

Golgi apparatus

View Answer
204) Lysosomes are the store house of:

A)

ATP

B)

sugar

C)

proteins

D)

hydrolytic enzymes

View Answer
205) lipids are insoluble in water, because lipid molecules are:

A)

neutral

B)

Zwitter ions

C)

hydrophobic

D)

hydrophilic

View Answer
206) Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?

A)

Glycine

B)

Alanine

C)

Tyrosine

D)

Asparagine

View Answer
207) Carbohydrates, ingested in the diet, are hydrolyzed by the enzyme:

A)

pepsin

B)

cellulose

C)

a-amylase

D)

glycosidase

View Answer
208) Stomach is the site of digestion mainly for:

A)

fats

B)

proteins

C)

carbohydrates

D)

all of these

View Answer
209) Which proteolytic enzyme induces lysis of fibrin during Hbrinolysis?

A)

Fibrin

B)

Thrombin

C)

Plasmin

D)

Platelet factor-VII

View Answer
210) Which of the following enzymes is used to join bits of DNA?

A)

Ligase

B)

Primase

C)

Endonuclease

D)

DNA polymerase

View Answer
211) All eukaryotic genes contain two kinds of base sequences. Which of the following plays role in protein synthesis?

A)

Introns

B)

Exons

C)

Electrons

D)

Both and

View Answer
212) The genetic material of prokaryotic cell is called:

A)

nucleus

B)

nucleolus

C)

nucleoid

D)

centromere

View Answer
213) In prokaryotes, the genetic material is:

A)

linear DNA with histones

B)

circular DNA with histones

C)

linear DNA without histones

D)

circular DNA without histones

View Answer
214) The direction of DNA replication is from:

A)

amino acid end

B)

3 end towards 5 end

C)

5 end towards 3 end

D)

amino terminus to carboxy terminus

View Answer
215) In operon concept, regulator gene functions as:

A)

represser

B)

regulator

C)

inhibitor

D)

initiator

View Answer
216) The importance of meiosis lies in:

A)

bringing discontinuous variations

B)

addition in the number of chromosomes

C)

reduction in the number of chromosomes

D)

maintaining the number of chromosomes

View Answer
217) In mitotic cell division, the division of centromere and the division of chromatid occurs between:

A)

anaphase and telophase

B)

prophase and metaphase

C)

telophase and interphase

D)

anaphase and metaphase

View Answer
218) In which stage of the first meiotic division, each chromosome undergoes longitudinal division to give rise to two sister chromarids?

A)

Zygotene

B)

Diplotene

C)

Diakinesis

D)

Pachytene

View Answer
219) Mirabilis jalapa is an example of:

A)

complete dominance

B)

supplementary gene

C)

incomplete dominance

D)

complementary gene

View Answer
220) Which of the following is dominant character according to Mendel?

A)

Dwarf plant and yellow fruit

B)

Terminal fruit and wrinkled seed

C)

White testa and yellow pericarp

D)

Green coloured fruit and rounded seed

View Answer
221) Lack of independent assortment of genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to:

A)

repulsion

B)

linkage

C)

crossing-over

D)

recombination

View Answer
222) When two mutations are located in the same functional unit or in different functional units then it is confirmed by:

A)

test cross

B)

back cross

C)

reciprocal cross

D)

complementation test

View Answer
223) Prototherians are the connecting links between:

A)

amphibians and aves

B)

reptiles and mammals

C)

fishes and amphibians

D)

reptiles and amphibinas

View Answer
224) The pioneers in the field of organic evolution are:

A)

Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus

B)

Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley

C)

Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, Hugo de Vries

D)

Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries

View Answer
225) Darwin finches are related to which of the following evidences?

A)

Fossils

B)

Embryology

C)

Anatomy

D)

Geographical distribution

View Answer
226) Allopatric speciation is due to:

A)

geographical separation of population

B)

hybridization between closely related species

C)

migration of the members of a species from one to other population

D)

both and

View Answer
227) Evolutionary convergence is characterized by:

A)

development of characteristics by random mating

B)

replacement of common characteristic in different related groups

C)

development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups

D)

development of a common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestry

View Answer
228) How many sub-phyla are available in Tracheata, according to Tippos classification of kingdom Plantae?

A)

4

B)

6

C)

8

D)

10

View Answer
229) The usage of binomial names, for plant species, was accepted by all after the publication of the works by:

A)

Hooker

B)

Linnaeus

C)

Bentham

D)

Darwin

View Answer
230) What is a key stone species?

A)

A rare species that has minimal impact on biomass and on other species in community

B)

A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of biomass, which affects many other species

C)

A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the communitys organization

D)

A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the communitys organization and survival

View Answer
231) In biotic community, which of the following can be called protective device?

A)

Mimicry

B)

Symbiosis

C)

Competition

D)

Parasitism

View Answer
232) In which of the following population, genetic drift operates?

A)

Island

B)

Smaller

C)

Larger

D)

Continental

View Answer
233) The driving force of an ecosystem is:

A)

producers

B)

biomass

C)

solar energy

D)

grassland

View Answer
234) The correct match of atmospheric gases is:

A)

nitrogen\[-0.03%,\]oxygen\[-78.08%,\] argon\[-\text{ }0.93%\] and \[C{{O}_{2}}-20.95%\]

B)

nitrogen\[-78.08%,\] oxygen\[-20.95%,\]argon\[-0.03%\] and \[C{{O}_{2}}-0.03%\]

C)

nitrogen\[-0.03%,\] oxygen\[-78.08%,\] argon\[-\text{ }20.95%\] and \[C{{O}_{2}}-0.93%\]

D)

nitrogen\[-78.08%,\] oxygen\[-20.95%,\] argon\[-\text{ }0.93%\] and \[C{{O}_{2}}-0.03%\]

View Answer
235) Zooplanktons are:

A)

parasites

B)

primary producers

C)

primary consumers

D)

primary decomposers

View Answer
236) Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of:

A)

hydrocarbons, ozone and \[S{{O}_{X}}\]

B)

hydrocarbons, \[S{{O}_{2}}\]and \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and \[N{{O}_{X}}\]

View Answer
237) Acid rain is due to increase in atmospheric concentration of:

A)

Ozone

B)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]and CO

C)

\[S{{O}_{3}}\]and CO

D)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]and nitrogen oxide

View Answer
238) The true statement about green-house effect is that it is caused by:

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]only

B)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\] only

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]and \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}},\text{ }CFC,\text{ }C{{H}_{4}}\]and \[N{{O}_{2}}\] gases

View Answer
239) Which of the following statement about viruses is correct?

A)

Viruses are obligate parasites

B)

Viruses contain both RNA and DNA

C)

Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid

D)

Viruses possess their own metabolic system

View Answer
240) The virus, that infects bacteria, are made up of:

A)

Protein only

B)

RNA and protein

C)

DNA and lipid

D)

DNA and protein

View Answer
241) The first transgenic crop was:

A)

pea

B)

flax

C)

tobacco

D)

cotton

View Answer
242) One of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect pests is the:

A)

practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas

B)

method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides

C)

predator does not always survive when transferred to a new environment

D)

predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a pest

View Answer
243) Casparian strips are present in:

A)

cortex

B)

epidermis

C)

endodermis

D)

hypodermis

View Answer
244) The function of microvilli is:

A)

cellular movement

B)

specialized uptake of macro molecules

C)

increase in surface area for absorption

D)

extensive movement of substances over cell surface

View Answer
245) Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis, in the chloroplast and mitochondria, is based on:

A)

proton gradient

B)

membrane potential

C)

accumulation of K ions

D)

accumulation of Na ions

View Answer
246) The plants respond to photoperiods due to the presence of:

A)

enzymes

B)

stomatas

C)

phytochromes

D)

phytohormones

View Answer
247) Mesophyll cells, which liberate malic acid at night time, are of:

A)

\[{{C}_{4}}-\] plants

B)

\[{{C}_{3}}-\]plants

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}-\]plants

D)

\[{{C}_{1}}\] plants

View Answer
248) Photorespiration in \[{{C}_{3}}-\] plants starts from:

A)

glycine

B)

glycerate

C)

phosphoglycolate

D)

phosphoglycerate

View Answer
249) Anaerobic respiration is also called:

A)

restoration

B)

fragmentation

C)

multiplication

D)

fermentation

View Answer
250) Biological oxidation in Krebs cycle involves:

A)

\[{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
251) The name of process of aerobic respiration, in which energy is provided in steps in electron transport chain, is:

A)

EMP - pathway

B)

decarboxylation

C)

photophosphorylation

D)

oxidative phosphoryladon

View Answer
252) Asthma is caused due to:

A)

infection of lungs

B)

infection of trachea

C)

bleeding into pleural cavity

D)

spasm in bronchial muscles

View Answer
253) A person breathing normally -at rest, takes in and expels approximately half a litre of air during each respiratory cycle. This is called:

A)

tidal volume

B)

vital capacity

C)

inspiratory reserve volume

D)

expiratory reserve volume

View Answer
254) The Largest quantity of air that can be expired, after maximal inspiration, is called:

A)

tidal volume

B)

vital capacity

C)

residual volume

D)

total lung volume

View Answer
255) Rate of heart beat is determined by:

A)

AV - node

B)

SA - node

C)

Purkinje fibres

D)

Papillary muscles

View Answer
256) The first heart sound is produced when:

A)

diastole begins

B)

semilunar valve close quickly

C)

interventricular pressure decreases

D)

bicuspid and tricuspid valve close quickly

View Answer
257) Which of the following layer of heart wall consists of cardiac muscles?

A)

Endocardium

B)

Myocardium

C)

Epicardium

D)

All of these

View Answer
258) If heart beats 75 beats/ min. then what is time for cardiac cycle?

A)

0.5 sec

B)

0.8 sec

C)

1 sec

D)

1.5 sec

View Answer
259) Blood pressure increases and heart rate decreases in response to:

A)

exercise

B)

haemorrhage

C)

exposure to high altitude

D)

increased intracranial pressure

View Answer
260) P wave of ECG occurs before the:

A)

onset of ventricular ejection

B)

end of atrial contraction

C)

begining of atrial contraction

D)

none of the above

View Answer
261) Liver in our body stores:

A)

vitamin - A

B)

vitamin - D

C)

vitamin \[-\text{ }{{B}_{12}}\]

D)

all of these

View Answer
262) Secrerin hormone is secreted by:

A)

liver

B)

pancreas

C)

intestine

D)

Brunners glands

View Answer
263) The contraction of gall bladder is due to:

A)

gastrin

B)

secretin

C)

enterogasterone

D)

cholecystokinin

View Answer
264) Which of the following is the character of the bile juice?

A)

It has trypsin

B)

It has no enzyme

C)

It has enterogasterone

D)

It has tripophnomide

View Answer
265) Average pH of human urine is:

A)

6.0

B)

9.0

C)

3.0

D)

7.0

View Answer
266) Cells present in the inner lining of kidneys are:

A)

podocytes

B)

choanocytes

C)

pinocytes

D)

nephrocytes

View Answer
267) Which of the following is impermeable to water?

A)

Vertical limb of loop of Henie

B)

Descending limb of loop of Henie

C)

Ascending limb of loop of Henie

D)

Both a and b

View Answer
268) Ducts of Bellini are present in:

A)

liver

B)

kidney

C)

intestine

D)

medulla oblongata

View Answer
269) Human brain has greater development of:

A)

cerebrum

B)

cerebellum

C)

optic lobes

D)

medulla oblongata

View Answer
270) The end organs of Ruffini are receptors of:

A)

heat

B)

cold

C)

pressure

D)

touch

View Answer
271) Which of the following part of human brain is associated with integration of sympathetic and parasympathetic activities?

A)

Cerebrum

B)

Neopallium

C)

Hypothalamus

D)

Medulla oblongata

View Answer
272) The unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibre is due to:

A)

neurotransmitters are released by axon endings

B)

neurotransmitters which are released by dendrites

C)

nerve fibre which is insulated by a medullary sheath

D)

sodium pump which starts operating into the nerve fibre

View Answer
273) In the myopia eye defect, the rays of light:

A)

do not enter the eye at all

B)

meet at a focus in front of the retina

C)

come to a focus at back of retina

D)

come to a focus in between retina and iris

View Answer
274) Sensory receptor of warmth located principally at the tip of fingers is known as:

A)

Webers organ

B)

organ of Giraldes

C)

Ruffinis corpuscles

D)

organ of Zuckerkandl

View Answer
275) Hormones secreted by pancreas are:

A)

ACTH

B)

oxytocin

C)

LH and FSH

D)

insulin and glucagon

View Answer
276) Neurohypophysis secretes:

A)

ADH and oxytocin

B)

oxytocin and estrogen

C)

vasopressin and GH

D)

vasopressin and estrogen

View Answer
277) Secretion of androgens by testes is regulated by:

A)

LTH

B)

FSH

C)

ICSH

D)

Oxytocin

View Answer
278) Pancreatic duct of a healthy dog is blocked. Which of the functions of pancreas will not be affected?

A)

Protein digestion

B)

Carbohydrate digestion

C)

Neutralization of chyme

D)

Maintenance of normal blood sugar level

View Answer
279) Physiologically active thyroxine exists in which of the following form?

A)

Unbound

B)

Bound to albumin

C)

Bound to globulin

D)

All of the above

View Answer
280) A flower characterized by monadelphous tubular stamens belongs to:

A)

Solanaceae

B)

Liliaceae

C)

Malvaceae

D)

Brassicaceae

View Answer
281) In Musa, inflorescence is:

A)

spadix

B)

corymb

C)

capitulum

D)

polychasial cyme

View Answer
282) The formation of gametophyte, from sporophyte, without spore formation or without meiosis is known as:

A)

apospory

B)

apogamy

C)

parthenogenesis

D)

none of these

View Answer
283) Anemophillous flowers have:

A)

sessile stigma

B)

small and smooth stigma

C)

colored flower

D)

large and feathery stigma

View Answer
284) In oogamy, fertilization involves:

A)

a small non-motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete

B)

a large motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete

C)

a large non-motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete

D)

a large non-motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete

View Answer
285) In angiosperms, triple fusion results in the formation of:

A)

zygotic nucleus

B)

polar nucleus

C)

secondary nucleus

D)

primary endosperm nucleus

View Answer
286) During a womans life time, she produces about:

A)

40-50 eggs

B)

300-350 eggs

C)

400-500 eggs

D)

750-850 eggs

View Answer
287) The production and maturation of sperm in testes is known as:

A)

oogenesis

B)

sporogenesis

C)

gametogenesis

D)

spermatogenesis

View Answer
288) The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days, is:

A)

menstruation

B)

luteal phase

C)

ovulatory phase

D)

follicular phase

View Answer
289) Which one of the following statement with regard to the embryonic development in humans is correct?

A)

Cleavage results in a hollow balls of cells called morula

B)

Cleavage in mammalian ova is unequal holoblastic and horizontal

C)

Rearrangement of blastomeres, a central cavity is formed inside the morula

D)

Cleavage bring about considerable increase in the mass of protoplasm

View Answer
290) The most accepted theory of ageing is:

A)

less RBC in blood

B)

thymus gland becomes non - functional

C)

brain cells die with ageing

D)

all of the above

View Answer
291) Which of the following is not immunized by triple antigen?

A)

Typhoid

B)

Tetanus

C)

Diptheria

D)

Whooping cough

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292) A person with the sex chromosomes XXY suffers from:

A)

Downs syndrome

B)

Turners syndrome

C)

Gynandromorphism

D)

Klinefelters syndrome

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293) Which of the following represents Klinefelters syndrome?

A)

XX

B)

XO

C)

XY

D)

XXY

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294) Which is the closest pet of human being?

A)

Cat

B)

Cow

C)

Dog

D)

Buffalo

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295) Th bacterial disease which is found in chickens, is:

A)

rickets

B)

Ranikhets

C)

fowl fox

D)

fowl cholera

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296) Which of the following is a viral disease in silkworm?

A)

Flacherie

B)

Grasserie

C)

Muscardine

D)

Pebrine

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297) Which of the following is not the example of marine fishes?

A)

Labeo

B)

mugil

C)

Hilsa

D)

Sardines

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298) Reproducing new plants by cells, instead of seeds, is known as:

A)

Mutation

B)

antibiotics

C)

biofertilizer

D)

tissue culture

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299) Creosote is used to prevent:

A)

rusts of wheat

B)

dry rot of wood

C)

loose smut of oats

D)

brown rust of barley

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300) Which of the following insecticide is obtained from the roots of Denis elliptica?

A)

Cinerin

B)

Nicotine

C)

Rotenone

D)

Pyrethrum

View Answer