question_answer 1) A particle executing simple harmonic motion has a time of 4s. After how much interval of time from t = 0 will its displacement be half of its amplitude?
A)
\[\frac{1}{3}s\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{2}s\]
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C)
\[\frac{2}{3}s\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{6}s\]
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question_answer 2) A particle executing SHM has amplitude 0.01 m and frequency 60 Hz. The maximum acceleration of particle is
A)
\[60{{\pi }^{2}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[80{{\pi }^{2}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[120{{\pi }^{2}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[144{{\pi }^{2}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 3) The upper end of hanging wire of radius 4 mm and length 100 cm is clamped rigidly. Its lower end is twisted through an angle \[30{}^\circ \]. The angle of shear is
A)
\[12{}^\circ \]
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B)
\[0.12{}^\circ \]
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C)
\[1.2{}^\circ \]
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D)
\[0.012{}^\circ \]
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question_answer 4) Mass of 2 kg is moving with a string in horizontal circle with angular velocity 5 cycle/min keeping the radius constant tension in string is doubled. Now, the angular velocity of the mass will be
A)
14 cycles/min
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B)
10 cycles/min
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C)
2.25 cycles/min
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D)
7 cycles/min
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question_answer 5) Choose the correct statement from the following. Weightlessness of an astronaut moving in a satellite is a situation of
A)
zero
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B)
no gravity
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C)
zero mass
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D)
free fall
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question_answer 6) A voltmeter of resistance 2000 \[\Omega \], 0.5 V/div is to be converted into a voltmeter to make it to read2V/div. The value of high resistance to be connected in series with it is
A)
6000\[\Omega \]
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B)
4000 \[\Omega \]
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C)
5000\[\Omega \]
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D)
1000 \[\Omega \]
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question_answer 7) If number of turns in moving coil galvanometer becomes half, then the deflection for the same current will become
A)
same
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B)
half
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C)
double
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D)
four times
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question_answer 8) The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is \[\chi \] at \[27{}^\circ C\]. At what temperature will its susceptibility be \[\frac{x}{2}\]?
A)
\[327{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[54{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[237{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[1600{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 9) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
A)
from stronger to weaker parts of the field
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B)
perpendicular to the field
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C)
from weaker to stronger parts of the field
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 10) The \[rms\] value of AC current which when passed through a resistor produces heat energy four times that produced by DC of 2 A through the same resistor in same time, is
A)
32 A
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B)
2 A
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C)
4 A
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D)
8 A
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question_answer 11) A square loop of wire of each side 50 cm is kept, so that its plane makes an angle 9 with a uniform magnetic field of induction 1 T. The magnetic field is withdrawn in 0.1 s. It is found that the induced emf across the loop is 125 mV. The angle 0 is
A)
\[90{}^\circ \]
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B)
\[60{}^\circ \]
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C)
\[45{}^\circ \]
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D)
\[30{}^\circ \]
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question_answer 12) An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition \[{{n}_{1}}\to {{n}_{2}}\]where \[{{n}_{1}}\] and \[{{n}_{2}}\] are principal quantum numbers to be valid. The time period of the electron in initial state is eight times that in the final state. Then the ratio of \[{{n}_{1}}\] and \[{{n}_{2}}\] will be
A)
8 : 1
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B)
4 : 1
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C)
2 : 1
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D)
1 : 2
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question_answer 13) If the electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from third orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of the emitted radiation in terms of Rydberg constant is
A)
\[\frac{6}{5R}\]
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B)
\[\frac{36}{5R}\]
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C)
\[\frac{64}{7R}\]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 14) In an insulator the forbidden energy gap between a valence band and conduction band is of the order of
A)
1 MeV
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B)
1 keV
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C)
1 eV
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D)
5 eV
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question_answer 15) A hole in n-type semiconductor is
A)
a missing atom
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B)
an excess electron
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C)
a missing electron
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 16) Silver has a work function of 4.7 eV. When ultraviolet light of wavelength 100 nm is incident on it, a potential of 7.7 V is required to stop the photoelectrons from reaching the collector plate. How much potential will be required to stop photoelectrons when light of wavelength 200 nm is incident on it?
A)
15.4 V
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B)
2.35 V
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C)
3.85 V
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D)
1.5 V
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question_answer 17) Alkali metals are more suited than metals for photoelectron emission, because work function of alkali metals is
A)
less than zero
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B)
just equal to metals
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C)
greater than metals
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D)
quite less than metals
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question_answer 18) A wavefront is represented by the plane y = 3 - x. The propagation of wave takes place at
A)
\[45{}^\circ \] with the x-direction
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B)
\[135{}^\circ \] with the x-direction
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C)
\[60{}^\circ \] with the x-direction
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D)
no sufficient data
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question_answer 19) The wavelength difference of light waves of wave numbers \[2\times {{10}^{6}}\,/m\] and \[2.25\times {{10}^{6}}/m\] is
A)
\[0.556\,\times {{10}^{-6}}\,m\]
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B)
\[0.0556\,\times {{10}^{6}}\,m\]
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C)
\[0.0556\,\times {{10}^{-6}}\,m\]
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D)
\[0.556\,\times {{10}^{6}}\,m\]
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question_answer 20) The resultant of two rectangular simple harmonic motions of the same frequency and unequal amplitudes but differing in phase by \[\frac{\pi }{2}\] is
A)
simple harmonic
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B)
circle
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C)
ellipse
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D)
figure of eight
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question_answer 21) A particle executing SHM has an amplitude of6cm. Its acceleration at a distance of 2 cm from the mean position is \[8\,cm/{{s}^{2}}\]. The maximum speed of the particle in cm/s is
A)
24
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B)
16
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C)
12
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D)
4
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question_answer 22) A 5 g droplet of liquid nitrogen is enclosed in a 50 mL tube which is sealed at very low pressure. When the tube is warmed to 35°C the nitrogen pressure in the tube is (molecular weight of nitrogen = 28 and R = 8.3 J/mol K)
A)
\[1.01\,\times {{10}^{5}}\,N/{{m}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[9.13\,\times {{10}^{4}}\,N/{{m}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[9.13\,\times {{10}^{3}}\,N/{{m}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[18.26N/{{m}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 23) If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by drawing out some gas, the mean free path of the molecules
A)
is decreased
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B)
is increased
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C)
remains unchanged
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D)
increases of decreases according to the nature of gas
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question_answer 24) A solid sphere of radius R made of material of bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a cylindrical container. A massless piston of area A floats on the surface of the liquid. When amass m is placed on the piston to compress the liquid, fractional change in the radius of the sphere\[\frac{\Delta R}{R}\] is
A)
\[\frac{mg}{3\,AR}\]
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B)
\[\frac{mg}{A}\]
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C)
\[\frac{mg}{3AK}\]
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D)
\[\frac{mg}{AK}\]
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question_answer 25) The thermo emf E (in volts) of a certain thermocouple is found to vary with 9 (in \[{}^\circ C\]) according to equation \[E=20\,\theta -{{\theta }^{2}}/20,\] where \[\theta \] is temperature of the hot junction, the cold junction being kept at \[0{}^\circ C\]. Then the neutral temperature of the thermocouple is
A)
\[300{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[400{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[100{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[200{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 26) Inversion temperature of a thermocouple is that temperature of hot junction at which the emf is
A)
maximum
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B)
minimum
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C)
zero
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 27) 40 cal of heat is required to raise the temperature of 2 mol of an ideal gas at constant pressure from \[30{}^\circ C\] to \[35{}^\circ C\]. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the same ample of the gas through the same range of temperature (\[30{}^\circ C\] to \[35{}^\circ C\]) at constant volume will be (gas constant = 2 cal/mol)
A)
30 cal
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B)
50 cal
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C)
60 cal
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D)
80 cal
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question_answer 28) Two samples A and B of a certain gas, which are initially at the same temperature and pressure, are compressed from volume V to V/ 2. A is compressed isothermally, while B is compressed adiabatically. The final pressure of A is
A)
more than that of B
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B)
equal to that of B
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C)
less than that of B
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D)
twice that of B
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question_answer 29) A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate all made of the same material and having the same mass are heated to a temperature of \[200{}^\circ C\],when these are left in the room, then
A)
the sphere reaches at room temperature in the last
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B)
the cube reaches at room temperature in the last
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C)
the circular plate reaches at room temperature in the last
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D)
all will reach the room temperature simultaneously
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question_answer 30) Which of the following statement is wrong?
A)
Stefans constant is same for all black bodies
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B)
Thermal radiations travel with the speed of \[3\times {{10}^{8}}\,m/s\]
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C)
Thermal radiations exhibit diffraction
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D)
Stefans law is applicable for all heated bodies
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question_answer 31) A source and listener are both moving towards each other with speed v/10, where v is the speed of sound. If the frequency of the note emitted by the source is f the frequency heard by the listener would be nearly
A)
1.11\[f\]
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B)
1.22 \[f\]
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C)
\[f\]
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D)
1.27 \[f\]
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question_answer 32) A wave represented by the equation \[y=a\cos (kx-\omega t)\]is superimposed with another wave to form a stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is
A)
\[y=a\sin (kx-\omega t)\]
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B)
\[y=-a\cos (kx+\omega t)\]
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C)
\[y=-a\cos (kx-\omega t)\]
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D)
\[y=-a\sin (kx+\omega t)\]
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question_answer 33) A light emitting diode (LED) has a voltage drop of 2V across it and passes a current of 10 mA. When it operates with a 6V battery through a limiting resistor R, The value of R is
A)
40\[k\Omega \]
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B)
4\[k\Omega \]
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C)
200\[\Omega \]
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D)
400\[\Omega \]
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question_answer 34) A glass convex lens \[(\mu =1.5)\] has a focal length of 8 cm when placed in air. What would be the focal length of lens when it is immersed in water \[({{\mu }_{w}}\,=4\,/3)\]?
A)
2 m
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B)
4 cm
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C)
16 cm
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D)
32 cm
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question_answer 35) Three capacitors of 2.0, 3.0 and 6.0 (J.F are connected in series to a 10 V source. The charge on the \[3.\,0\,\mu F\] capacitor is
A)
5\[\mu C\]
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B)
10\[\mu C\]
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C)
12\[\mu C\]
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D)
15\[\mu C\]
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question_answer 36) In an copper voltameter experiment current is decreased to one-fourth of initial value but it is passed for four times the earlier duration, then the amount of copper deposited will be
A)
same
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B)
\[\frac{1}{4}\]th of the previous value
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C)
4 times the previous value
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D)
\[\frac{1}{16}\]th of the previous value
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question_answer 37) The resistances of two bulbs of the same voltage are in the ratio 1 : 2 on connecting them in parallel the power consumption will be in the ratio
A)
1 : 2
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B)
1 :1
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C)
1 : 4
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D)
2 :1
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question_answer 38) The resistance of a wire at a temperature \[{{t}^{o}}C\] and \[{{0}^{o}}C\] are related by
A)
\[{{R}_{t}}={{R}_{0}}(1+\alpha t)\]
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B)
\[{{R}_{t}}={{R}_{0}}(1-\alpha t)\]
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C)
\[{{R}_{t}}=R_{0}^{2}(1+\alpha t)\]
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D)
\[{{R}_{t}}=R_{0}^{2}(1-\alpha t)\]
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question_answer 39) If current is flowing in a spacing then
A)
it is compressed
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B)
spreads
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C)
executes oscillary motion
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D)
remains same
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question_answer 40) The dimensions of \[\sigma {{b}^{4}}\](\[\sigma \] = Stefans constant and b = Weins constant) are
A)
\[[{{M}^{o}}{{L}^{o}}\,{{T}^{o}}]\]
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B)
\[[M{{L}^{4}}{{T}^{-3}}]\]
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C)
\[[M{{L}^{-2}}T]\]
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D)
\[[M{{L}^{6}}{{T}^{-3}}]\]
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question_answer 41) A car moving with a speed of 25 m/s takes a U-tum in 5 s, without changing its speed. The average acceleration during these 5 s is
A)
\[10\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[5\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[2\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[7\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 42) A body is moving in circular motion of constant radius, then
A)
the net acceleration of the body may towards the centre of the circle
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B)
the net acceleration of the body may not towards the centre of the circle
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C)
the velocity of the body must change
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 43) A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is
A)
16 J
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B)
8 J
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C)
32 J
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D)
24 J
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question_answer 44) The dimensions (velocity)2 + radius are the same as that of
A)
Plancks constant
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B)
gravitational constant
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C)
dielectric constant
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 45) If the liquid neither rises nor falls in a capillary tube, then angle of contact is
A)
\[0{}^\circ \]
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B)
\[180{}^\circ \]
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C)
\[90{}^\circ \]
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D)
\[45{}^\circ \]
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question_answer 46) Assertion In photoelectron emission the velocity of electron ejected from near the surface is larger than that coming from interior of metal. Reason The velocity of ejected electron will be zero.
A)
If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
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B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
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C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
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D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
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question_answer 47) Assertion A hollow metallic closed container maintained at a uniform temperature can act as a source of a black body radiation. Reason All metals act as a black body.
A)
If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
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B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
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C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
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D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
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question_answer 48) Assertion In a stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy. Reason There is no outward motion of the disturbance from one particle to adjoining particle in a stationary wave.
A)
If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
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B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
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C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
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D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
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question_answer 49) Assertion The ratio of inertial mass to gravitational mass is equal to one. Reason The inertial mass and gravitational mass of a body are equivalent.
A)
If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
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B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
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C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
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D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
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question_answer 50) Assertion Mass of moving photon varies inversely as the wavelength. Reason Energy of the particle = mass x (speed of light)2
A)
If the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
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B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
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C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
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D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
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question_answer 51) A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its boiling point. On the average, the molecules in in two phases have equal
A)
intermolecular forces
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B)
potential energy
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C)
kinetic energy
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D)
total energy
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question_answer 52) For the chemical reaction \[3X(g)Y(g)\rightleftharpoons {{X}_{3}}Y(g),\] the amount of \[{{X}_{3}}Y\] at equilibrium is affected by
A)
temperature and pressure
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B)
temperature only
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C)
pressure only
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D)
temperature, pressure and catalyst
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question_answer 53) The compound which reacts most readily with \[\text{NaOH}\] to form methanol is
A)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}{{N}^{+}}{{I}^{-}}\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}OC{{H}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}{{S}^{+}}{{I}^{-}}\]
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D)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}Cl\]
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question_answer 54) \[4.6\times {{10}^{22}}\] atoms of an element weigh 13.8 g. The atomic weight of that element is
A)
290
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B)
180
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C)
34.4
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D)
10.4
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question_answer 55) Which one of the following compounds has \[\text{s}{{\text{p}}^{\text{2}}}\] hybridisation?
A)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[S{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[{{N}_{2}}O\]
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D)
\[CO\]
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question_answer 56) Identify the least stable ion amongst the following.
A)
\[L{{i}^{-}}\]
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B)
\[B{{e}^{-}}\]
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C)
\[{{B}^{-}}\]
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D)
\[{{C}^{-}}\]
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question_answer 57) The starting material used in Solvays process are
A)
sodium sulphate
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B)
brine solution
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C)
camallite
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 58) Which of the following is philosophers wool?
A)
\[ZnO\]
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B)
\[HgO\]
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C)
\[A{{g}_{2}}O\]
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D)
\[CuO\]
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question_answer 59) 2g of mixture of CO and \[\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]on reaction with excess \[{{\text{I}}_{\text{2}}}{{\text{O}}_{\text{5}}}\]produced 2.54 g of \[{{\text{I}}_{2}}\].What would be the mass % of \[\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]in the original mixture?
A)
60
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B)
30
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C)
70
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D)
35
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question_answer 60) Which element has highest electronegativity?
A)
F
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B)
He
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C)
Ne
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D)
Na
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question_answer 61) A current of 12 A is passed through an electrolytic cell containing aqueous \[NiS{{O}_{4}}\] solution. Both Ni and \[{{\text{H}}_{2}}\]gas are formed at the cathode. The current efficiency is 60%. What is the mass of nickel deposited at the cathode per hour?
A)
7.883 g
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B)
3.941 g
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C)
5.91 g
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D)
2.645 g
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question_answer 62)
The correct IUPAC name of
A)
1-cyclopropyl cyclobutane
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B)
1, 1-dicyclobutane
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C)
1-cyclobutane-1-cyclopropane
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 63) the electrochemical reaction, \[2F{{e}^{3+}}+Zn\xrightarrow{{}}Z{{n}^{2+}}+2F{{e}^{2+}}\] increasing the concentration of\[\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{2+}}}\]
A)
increases cell emf
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B)
increases the current flow
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C)
decreases the cell emf
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D)
alter the pH of the solution
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question_answer 64) 20 volume \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\text{ }\!\!\!\!\text{ }\]solution has a strength of about
A)
30%
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B)
6%
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C)
3%
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D)
10%
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question_answer 65) Reaction of \[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]with I, S, P and C gives respectively
A)
\[HI{{O}_{3}},\text{ }{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},\text{ }{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\] and \[\text{ }C{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[HI{{O}_{3}},\text{ }{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},\text{ }{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\] and\[\text{ }C{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[HI{{O}_{2}},\text{ }{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},\text{ }{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\] and CO
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D)
\[{{I}_{2}}{{O}_{5}},S{{O}_{2}},{{P}_{2}}O\]and \[C{{O}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 66) When phenol is treated with \[\text{CHC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{3}}}\]and \[\text{NaOH,}\] the product formed is
A)
benzaldehyde
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B)
salicylaldehyde
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C)
salicylic acid
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D)
benzoic acid
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 67) The Kolbes electrolysis proceeds via
A)
nucleophilic substitution mechanism
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B)
electrophilic addition mechanism
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C)
free radical mechanism
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D)
electrophilic substitution reaction
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 68) Solubility of \[\text{AgCl}\] at \[\text{20}{{\,}^{\text{o}}}\text{C}\] is\[1.435\times {{10}^{-3}}\,g/L\] The solubility product of\[\text{AgCl}\] is
A)
\[1\times {{10}^{-5}}\]
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B)
\[1\times {{10}^{-10}}\]
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C)
\[1.435\times {{10}^{-5}}\]
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D)
\[108\times {{10}^{-3}}\]
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question_answer 69) Dry bleach is done by
A)
\[{{O}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[C{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[S{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 70) Which of the following has maximum value of flocculating power?
A)
\[P{{b}^{2+}}\]
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B)
\[P{{b}^{4+}}\]
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C)
\[S{{r}^{2+}}\]
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D)
\[N{{a}^{+}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 71) In the titration of \[\text{N}{{\text{a}}_{\text{2}}}\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]and \[\text{HCl,}\]the indicator used is
A)
methyl orange
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B)
methylene blue
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C)
phenolphthalein
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D)
litmus
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question_answer 72) Methanol cannot be dried with anhydrous \[\text{CaC}{{\text{l}}_{2}}\]because
A)
\[\text{CaC}{{\text{l}}_{2}}\]dissolves in it
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B)
it is not good dehydrating agent
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C)
it forms as solid\[\text{CaC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{2}}}\text{.4C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{OH}\]
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D)
it reacts with \[\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{OH}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 73) Red P can be obtained by white P by
A)
heating it with a catalyst in an inert atmosphere
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B)
distilling it in an inert atmosphere
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C)
dissolving it in \[\text{C}{{\text{S}}_{\text{2}}}\]and crystallizing
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D)
melting it and pouring the liquid into water
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 74) Which of the following gives oxalic acid?
A)
Heating of acetic acid
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B)
Action of nitric acid on glucose
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C)
Acidic hydrolysis of cyanogen
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D)
Strong heating of sodium formate
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 75) In the following reaction \[\text{X}\xrightarrow{\text{Bromination}}Y\xrightarrow[\text{+HCl}]{\text{NaN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}}Z\xrightarrow[{{\text{C}}_{\text{2}}}{{\text{H}}_{\text{5}}}\text{OH}]{\text{Boiling}}\] tribromo benzenei, X is
A)
benzoic acid
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B)
salicylic acid
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C)
phenol
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D)
aniline
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question_answer 76) Oxidation number of sulphur in Caros acid is
A)
+6
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B)
+4
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C)
+8
done
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D)
+7
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question_answer 77) Liquor ammonia is
A)
ammonium hydroxide
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B)
liquified ammonia gas
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C)
concentrated solution of \[\text{N}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\]in water
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D)
a solution of \[\text{N}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\]in alcohol
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question_answer 78) Edge length of a cube is 400 pm, its body diagonal would be
A)
566 pm
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B)
600 pm
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C)
500 pm
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D)
693 pm
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question_answer 79) The values of observed and calculated molecular masses of \[\text{Ca(N}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}{{\text{)}}_{\text{2}}}\]are 164 and 65.4 respectively. Its degree of dissociation will be
A)
25%
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B)
50%
done
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C)
75%
done
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D)
80%
done
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question_answer 80) The IUPAC name of the compound \[[CuC{{l}_{2}}{{(C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}})}_{2}}]\]is
A)
dichloro bis (dimethyl amine) copper (II)
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B)
dichloro bis (methyl amine) copper (II)
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C)
dimethyl amine copper (II) chloride
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D)
bis (dimethyl amine) copper (II) chloride
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question_answer 81) The electronic configuration of an element is \[1{{s}^{2}},2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}},3{{s}^{2}}3{{p}^{3}}.\] What is the atomic number of the element which is just below the above element in the Periodic Table?
A)
33
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B)
34
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C)
31
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D)
49
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question_answer 82) A mixture of \[\text{C}{{\text{u}}^{\text{2+}}}\]and \[\text{N}{{\text{i}}^{\text{2+}}}\]can be separated for identification by
A)
passing \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\]in acidic medium
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B)
passing \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\]in alkaline medium
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C)
passing \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\]in neutral medium
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D)
passing \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\]in dry mixture
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question_answer 83) Starch iodide paper is used to test the presence of
A)
iodine
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B)
iodide ion
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C)
oxidising agents
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D)
reducing agents
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question_answer 84) What voltage must be applied to an electron microscope to produce electron of wavelength \[\lambda =1.0\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]?
A)
12.27 V
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B)
150 V
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C)
22500 V
done
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D)
4.55 V
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question_answer 85) Chemical reduction is not suitable for
A)
conversion of bauxite to aluminium
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B)
conversion of cuprite into copper
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C)
conversion of haematite into iron
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D)
conversion of zinc oxide to zinc
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question_answer 86) For the third order reaction, \[\text{3A}\to \]Products, with 0.1 M as the initial concentration of \[\text{A,}{{\text{t}}_{\text{1/2}}}\]is 8 h 20 min. The rate constant of the reaction is
A)
\[50\,{{L}^{2}}mo{{l}^{-2}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[5\times {{10}^{-3}}L\,mo{{l}^{-1}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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C)
\[5\times {{10}^{-2}}{{L}^{2}}\,mo{{l}^{-2}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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D)
\[5\times {{10}^{-3}}{{L}^{2}}mo{{l}^{-2}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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question_answer 87) Entropy change \[(\Delta S)\] is positive for the following
A)
\[CaC{{O}_{3}}(s)\xrightarrow{\Delta }CaO(s)+C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]
done
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B)
\[2l(g)\xrightarrow{{}}{{I}_{2}}(g)\]
done
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C)
\[N{{a}^{+}}(g)+C{{l}^{-}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}NaCl(s)\]
done
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D)
\[{{H}_{2}}O(l)\xrightarrow{{}}{{H}_{2}}O(s)\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 88) If one strand of DNA has the sequence ATCGTATG, the sequence in the complementary strand would be
A)
TAGCTTAC
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B)
TCACATAC
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C)
TAGCATAC
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D)
TACGATAC
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question_answer 89) Glyptal is
A)
polyethylene phthalate
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B)
polyethyleneterepthalate
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C)
polyamide
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D)
poly ethyl methacrylate
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question_answer 90) The substance used as an activator in froth floatation process is
A)
potassium ethyl xanthate
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B)
sodium cyanide
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C)
copper sulphate
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D)
pine oil
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question_answer 91) IUPAC name of the compound \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{C{{H}_{2}}}{\mathop{\underset{|\,\,|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-\underset{C{{H}_{2}}}{\mathop{\underset{|\,\,|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]is
A)
3-ethyl-2-methyl buta-1, 3-diene
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B)
2-ethyl-3-methylbuta-1, 3-diene
done
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C)
2, 3-methylidene pentane
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D)
2-methyl-3-methylidene pent-1-ene
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 92) The dipeptide glycylalanine contains
A)
glycine as C-terminal residue
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B)
glycine as N-termmal residue
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C)
calanine as N-terminal residue
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D)
either (a) or (b)
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question_answer 93) In which of the following p-electrons of the halogen are not involved in delocalisation?
A)
Chlorobenzene
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B)
Bromobenzne
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C)
Alkyl chloride
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D)
Vinyl chloride
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question_answer 94) Grignard reagent is an organometallic compound of type
A)
simple
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B)
Simple asymmetrical
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C)
complex
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D)
simple symmetrical
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question_answer 95) Which of the following complex is octahedral in shape?
A)
\[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{-3}}\]
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B)
\[{{[Zn{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]}^{2+}}\]
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C)
\[[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}]\]
done
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D)
\[{{[(CuC{{l}_{4}})]}^{2-}}\]
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question_answer 96) Assertion If the activation energy of a reaction is zero, temperature will have no effect on the rate constant. Reason Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.
A)
If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
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B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
done
clear
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question_answer 97) Assertion Tartaric acid and fumaric acid exhibit geometrical isomerism. Reason They contain carbon-carbon double bond.
A)
If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
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B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 98) Assertion Free radical halogenation of n-butane gives 72% 2-halobutane and 28% 1-halobutane. Reason A secondary hydrogen is abstracted more easily than the primary hydrogen.
A)
If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 99) Assertion Fehlings solution can be used to distinguish acetaldehyde from benzaldehyde. Reason The C?H bond of CHO group in acetaldehyde is stronger than C?H bond of CHO group in benzaldehyde.
A)
If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
done
clear
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question_answer 100) Assertion The two lobes of a p-orbital have opposite sign. Reason The two lobes of a p-orbital lie on the opposite side of the nucleus.
A)
If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
B)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
If Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
If both Assertion and Reason are false
done
clear
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question_answer 101) Which statement is correct for biomolecules?
A)
DNA is a polymer of ribonucleotides
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B)
All carbohydrates break into glucose
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C)
Sequence of amino acids determine primary structure of protein
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D)
RNA is single-stranded and contains different urine bases other than DNA
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question_answer 102) An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
A)
cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
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B)
hexokinase by glucose 6-phosphate
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C)
carbonic anhydrase by \[C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
succinic dehydrogenase by melonic acid
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question_answer 103) Which is a reducing sugar?
A)
Cellulose
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B)
Maltose
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C)
Sucrose
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D)
Starch
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question_answer 104) Tusks of elephants are modified
A)
canines
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B)
incisors
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C)
molars
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D)
premolars
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question_answer 105) The main function of lacteals in the villi of small intestine is the absorption of
A)
glucose and vitamins
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B)
water and mineral salts
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C)
fatty acid and glycerol
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D)
amino acids and glucose
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question_answer 106) Hyposecretion of thyroid during pregnancy causes
A)
goitre
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B)
cretinism
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C)
hypoglycemia
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D)
diabetes mellitus
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question_answer 107) The new oral contraceptive named Saheli for female was developed by the scientists of
A)
CDRI, Lucknow
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B)
IISC Bengaluru
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C)
CSIR, New Delhi
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D)
ICMR, New Delhi
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question_answer 108) Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of
A)
thiamine
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B)
cyanocobalmine
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C)
nicotinic add
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D)
ascorbic acid
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question_answer 109) In human beings 45 chromosomes/ single/X/XO abnormalities causes
A)
Downs syndrome
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B)
Klinefelters syndrome
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C)
Turners syndrome
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D)
Edwards syndrome
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question_answer 110) Which one of the following caused the oriental sore?
A)
Trypanosoma gambiense
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B)
Leishmania brasiliensis
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C)
Leishmania cruzi
done
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D)
Leishmania tropica
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question_answer 111) Which of the following infective stage of Plasmodium transferred to human body and causes malaria?
A)
Mesozoites
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B)
Gametocytes
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C)
Sporozoites
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D)
Schizonts
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question_answer 112) Metastasis is
A)
rapid division in cancer cells
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B)
spread of cancer cells to new sites
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C)
regeneration of cancer cells
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 113) Among the following which one have high risk of getting HIV infection?
A)
Individuals, who have multiple sexual partners
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B)
Drug addicts, who take drugs intravenously
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C)
Individuals, who require repeated blood transfusions
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 114) In gel electrophoresis, DNA is separated according to their
A)
pH
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B)
charge
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C)
concentration
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D)
size
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question_answer 115) Biomagnification of DDT caused decline in bird population by
A)
bringing disturbance in calcium metabolism
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B)
thinning of egg shell
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C)
premature breaking of eggs
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 116) Analogous organs have
A)
different origin but similar functions
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B)
common origin and similar functions
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C)
different origin and different functions
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D)
common origin but different functions
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question_answer 117) Presence of choanocytes is the characteristic feature of
A)
Cnidaria
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B)
Porifera
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C)
Arthropoda
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D)
Mollusca
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question_answer 118) Acoelomates are included in the phylum
A)
Annelida
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B)
Mollusca
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C)
Platyhelminthes
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D)
Echinodermata
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question_answer 119) Placoid scales is the characteristic feature of class
A)
Cyclostomata
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B)
Chondrichthyes
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C)
Osteichthyes
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D)
Amphibia
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question_answer 120) Which of the following forms a strong inextensible attachment of skeletal muscle to a bone?
A)
Tendon
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B)
Ligaments
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C)
Areolar connective tissue
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D)
Adipose tissue
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question_answer 121) The dental formula of adult human is
A)
\[I\frac{2}{2}C\frac{1}{1}PM\frac{2}{2}M\frac{3}{3}\times 2\]
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B)
\[I\frac{3}{3}C\frac{1}{1}PM\frac{3}{2}M\frac{1}{1}\times 2\]
done
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C)
\[I\frac{3}{3}C\frac{1}{1}PM\frac{4}{4}M\frac{2}{3}\times 2\]
done
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D)
\[I\frac{3}{3}C\frac{1}{1}PM\frac{4}{4}M\frac{3}{3}\times 2\]
done
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question_answer 122) What percentage of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] is transported by RBCs?
A)
70%
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B)
20-25%
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C)
97%
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D)
7%
done
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question_answer 123) Second heart sound is
A)
lub during closure of semilunar valves
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B)
lub during closure of atrioventricular valves
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C)
dupp during closure of atrioventricular valves
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D)
dupp during closure of semilunar valves
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question_answer 124) What type of joint is characterized by the presence of a fluid filled cavity that plays a significant role in locomotion?
A)
Fibrous joints
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B)
Cartilaginous joints
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C)
Synovial joints
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D)
All of the above
done
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question_answer 125) The principal cation in alkaline soil, is
A)
\[N{{a}^{+}}\]
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B)
\[{{K}^{+}}\]
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C)
\[C{{a}^{2+}}\]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 126) The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in
A)
green light
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B)
blue light
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C)
red light
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D)
far-red light
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question_answer 127) Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is less than one when the substrate is
A)
protein
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B)
carbohydrate
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C)
organic acid
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 128) Which of the following is present in ecosystem?
A)
Food chain
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B)
Food web
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C)
Both (a) and (b)
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 129) Genes are made up of
A)
carbohydrates
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B)
fats
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C)
proteins
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D)
nucleic acids
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question_answer 130) Morphine is extracted from
A)
Cinchona officinalis
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B)
Papaver somniferum
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C)
Rauwolffia serpentine
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D)
Magnifera indica
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question_answer 131) Which of the following is a fungicide?
A)
DDT
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B)
Bordeaux mixture
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C)
2, 4-D
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D)
DCMU
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question_answer 132) Which of the following is found in animal cell?
A)
Plasmodesmata
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B)
80 S ribosomes
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C)
Centriole
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 133) Which of the following is an exception to cell theory?
A)
Bacteria
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B)
Fungi
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C)
Viruses
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D)
Lichens
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question_answer 134) Which one is chief component of middle lamella?
A)
K
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B)
Ca
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C)
Mg
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D)
Na
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question_answer 135) Fluid mosaic model for cell membrane was proposed by
A)
Singer and Nicholson
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B)
Robert Brown
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C)
Watson and Crick
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D)
Beadle and Tatum
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question_answer 136) The total hereditary material outside the chromosome is called as
A)
plasmogene
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B)
Plasmon
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C)
muton
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D)
recon
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question_answer 137) Synapsis is characteristic feature of
A)
leptotene
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B)
zygotene
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C)
pachytene
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D)
diplotene
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question_answer 138) Which cellular components are found in mycoplasma, spirochaetes and rickettsias?
A)
DNA
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B)
RNA
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C)
Ribsomes
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 139) Which of the following is called milk bacterium?
A)
Lactobacillus
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B)
Acetobacter
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C)
Xanthomonas
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D)
Streptococcus
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question_answer 140) Which species of Pinus produces chilgoza?
A)
P. wallichiana
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B)
P. insularis
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C)
P. gerardiana
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D)
P. roxburgii
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question_answer 141) Which one is smallest unit of classification?
A)
Class
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B)
Order
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C)
Species
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D)
Family
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question_answer 142) In viruses, the protein coat enclosing nucleic acid, is
A)
capsid
done
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B)
plasmid
done
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C)
plastid
done
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D)
Plasmon
done
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question_answer 143) Which of the following is stained by using carmine?
A)
Chromosomes
done
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B)
Bacteria
done
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C)
Viruses
done
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D)
Diatoms
done
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question_answer 144) The alkaloid used for induction of polyploidy, is
A)
auxin
done
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B)
kinetin
done
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C)
ethylene
done
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D)
colchicines
done
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question_answer 145) In mitochondria, the enzyme cytochrome oxidase in present in
A)
outer membrane
done
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B)
matrix
done
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C)
perimitochondrial space
done
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D)
inner membrane
done
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question_answer 146) Which of the following is a total root parasite?
A)
Rafflessia
done
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B)
Santalum
done
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C)
Cuscuta
done
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D)
Monotropa
done
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question_answer 147) Which of the following have living cytoplasm?
A)
Vessels
done
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B)
Tracheids
done
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C)
Sclerenchyma
done
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D)
Companion cells
done
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question_answer 148) Pollen grains are used in fossil study because there cell wall is composed of
A)
sporopollenin
done
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B)
cellulose
done
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C)
pectocellulose
done
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D)
lignin
done
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question_answer 149) DNA replication takes place during
A)
\[{{G}_{1}}\]-phase
done
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B)
S-phase
done
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C)
\[{{G}_{2}}\]-phase
done
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D)
M-phase
done
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question_answer 150) Which of the following cell organelles stores hydrolytic enzymes which act as acidic pH?
A)
Lysosome
done
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B)
Centriole
done
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C)
Chloroplast
done
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D)
Nucleus
done
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question_answer 151) The stage protonema is found in the life cycle of
A)
Cycas
done
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B)
Funaria
done
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C)
Selaginella
done
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D)
Mucor
done
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question_answer 152) Development of an embryo without fertilization is called
A)
polyembryony
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B)
vivipary
done
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C)
parthenogenesis
done
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D)
parthenocarpy
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question_answer 153) The cell organelle(s) involved in photorespiration is/are
A)
mitochondria
done
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B)
chloroplast
done
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C)
peroxisome
done
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D)
All of these
done
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question_answer 154) The diameter of DNA molecule is
A)
\[15\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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B)
\[20\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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C)
\[25\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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D)
\[34\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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question_answer 155) In Funaria capsule, dispersal of spores takes place through
A)
annulus
done
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B)
peristomial teeth
done
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C)
calyptra
done
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D)
operculum
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question_answer 156) Formation of clamp connections is a characteristic feature of
A)
Phycomycetes
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B)
Ascomycetes
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C)
Basidiomycetes
done
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D)
Deuteromycetes
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question_answer 157) In case of incomplete dominance, what will be the phenotypic ratio of \[{{F}_{2}}\] generation?
A)
1 : 2 : 1
done
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B)
1 : 1
done
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C)
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
done
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D)
3 : 1
done
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question_answer 158) Which of the following cell organelles does not contain DNA?
A)
Chloroplast
done
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B)
Mitochondria
done
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C)
Peroxisome
done
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D)
Nucleus
done
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question_answer 159) The trabeculae found in Selaginella are the modification of
A)
epidermal cells
done
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B)
cortical cells
done
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C)
endodermal cells
done
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D)
pericycle cells
done
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question_answer 160) Secondary radial symmetry is found in
A)
Cnidaria
done
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B)
jelly fish
done
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C)
Echinodermata
done
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D)
Hemichordata
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question_answer 161) Which one of the following is connecting link between Annelids and Molluscans?
A)
Peripatus
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B)
Lepidosiren
done
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C)
Neopilina
done
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D)
Protopterus
done
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question_answer 162) Core zone, buffer zone and manipulation zone are found in
A)
National park
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B)
biosphere reserve
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C)
sanctuary
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D)
tiger reserve
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question_answer 163) Tiger population is abundantly found in
A)
Sunderbans National Park
done
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B)
Corbett National Park
done
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C)
Ranthambhor National Park
done
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D)
Kanha National Park
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question_answer 164) If a child is of blood group-O and his father is of blood group-B, the genotype of father will be
A)
\[{{I}^{O}}{{I}^{O}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{I}^{A}}{{I}^{B}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{I}^{O}}{{I}^{B}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{I}^{O}}{{I}^{A}}\]
done
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question_answer 165) Oxyntic cells of gastric gland secrete
A)
\[HCl\]
done
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B)
trypsin
done
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C)
\[NaOH\]
done
clear
D)
pepsinogen
done
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question_answer 166) Menstruation is due to
A)
sudden reduction of FSH
done
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B)
sudden increase of LH
done
clear
C)
sudden reduction of oestrogen and progesterone
done
clear
D)
None of the above
done
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question_answer 167) Which of the following is used to control human population?
A)
Oestrogen and progesterone
done
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B)
IUCD and MTP
done
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C)
Tubectomy and vasectomy
done
clear
D)
All of the above
done
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question_answer 168) In which of the following syndrome, additional X-chromosome is present?
A)
Turners syndrome
done
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B)
Klinefelters syndrome
done
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C)
Super female
done
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D)
Downs syndrome
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question_answer 169) The theory of continuity of germplasm was proposed by
A)
Mendel
done
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B)
Griffith
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C)
Weismann
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D)
Nawaschin
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question_answer 170) Bipolar neurons occurs in
A)
vertebrate embryo
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B)
brain and spinal cord
done
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C)
retina of eye
done
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D)
skeletal muscles
done
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question_answer 171) Production of glucose from amino acids, fatty acids and glycerol is called
A)
glycogenesis
done
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B)
gluconeogenesis
done
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C)
glycogenolysis
done
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D)
glycolysis
done
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question_answer 172) Which foramen is a paired in mammalian brain?
A)
Foramen of Magendie
done
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B)
Foramina of Luschka
done
clear
C)
Foramen of Monro
done
clear
D)
Interventricular foramen
done
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question_answer 173) The non-directional force that alters Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium is
A)
random mating
done
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B)
gene frequency
done
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C)
large population
done
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D)
genetic drift
done
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question_answer 174) Right handedness is dominant over left handedness. Most probable gene types having two right handed parents with a left handed child, is
A)
\[Rr\times RR\]
done
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B)
\[rr\times RR\]
done
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C)
\[rr\times rr\]
done
clear
D)
\[Rr\times Rr\]
done
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question_answer 175) Facial nerve is
A)
sensory
done
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B)
motor
done
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C)
Both (a) and (b)
done
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D)
None of these
done
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question_answer 176) Renal corpuscles of human kidney divided into
A)
PCT and loop of Henle
done
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B)
atria and ventricles
done
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C)
Bowmans capsule and glomerulus
done
clear
D)
All of the above
done
clear
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question_answer 177) The larva of phylum-Annelida is called as
A)
miracidium
done
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B)
trochophore
done
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C)
glochidium
done
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D)
rhabditiform
done
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question_answer 178) The antibiotic penicillin has inhibitory effect through
A)
dissolution of cell wall synthesis
done
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B)
inhibition of protein synthesis
done
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C)
inhibition of DNA replication
done
clear
D)
injury to plasma membrane
done
clear
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question_answer 179) Moti is formed from
A)
Limulus
done
clear
B)
Palaemon
done
clear
C)
Pinctada
done
clear
D)
Plasmodium
done
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question_answer 180) The zone of transition between two communities, is
A)
biome
done
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B)
ecotone
done
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C)
ecological niche
done
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D)
natality
done
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question_answer 181) Germplasm conservation at liquid \[{{N}_{2}}\] temperature \[\left( -196{}^\circ C \right)\] is called
A)
Pasteurization
done
clear
B)
Cryopreservation
done
clear
C)
in situ conservation
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
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question_answer 182) Liver is able to manufacture
A)
vitamin-A
done
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B)
vitamin-E
done
clear
C)
vitamin-C
done
clear
D)
vitamin-\[{{B}_{1}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer 183) The metal component of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase, is
A)
Cu
done
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B)
Mg
done
clear
C)
Mo
done
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D)
Ni
done
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question_answer 184) Agar-agar is obtained from
A)
Ulothrix
done
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B)
Chlorella
done
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C)
Gelidium
done
clear
D)
Spirogyra
done
clear
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question_answer 185) Which of the following is responsible for red colour of tomato?
A)
Chlorophyll
done
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B)
Phycoerythrin
done
clear
C)
Phycocyanin
done
clear
D)
Lycopene
done
clear
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question_answer 186) The underground stem that has contractile roots, is
A)
rhizome
done
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B)
corm
done
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C)
stem tuber
done
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D)
bulb
done
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question_answer 187) Inner lining of blood vessels is formed by
A)
ciliated epithelium
done
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B)
squamous epithelium
done
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C)
cubical epithelium
done
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D)
columnar epithelium
done
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question_answer 188)
Match the items in column I with those of column II.
Column I
Column II
Peritichous flagellation
Ginkgo
Living fossil
Macrocystis
Rhizophore
Escherichia coli
Smallest flowering plant
Selaginella
Largest perennial alga
wolffia
A)
A-3 B-1 C-4 D-5 E-2
done
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B)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 E-5
done
clear
C)
A-2 B-1 C-3 D-5 E-4
done
clear
D)
A-4 B-5 C-2 D-1 E-3
done
clear
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question_answer 189) Which one of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?
A)
Parallel venation
done
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B)
Perennial plants
done
clear
C)
Distinct branches
done
clear
D)
Xylem with vessels
done
clear
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question_answer 190)
Match the items in column I with column II. Column I Column II A. Grana Krebs cycle B. Stroma Light reaction C. Cytoplasm Dark reaction D. Matrix Glycolysis
A)
A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
done
clear
B)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
done
clear
C)
A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
done
clear
D)
A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
done
clear
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question_answer 191) Water is released as droplet, this is known as
A)
root pressure
done
clear
B)
transpiration
done
clear
C)
guttation
done
clear
D)
evaporation
done
clear
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question_answer 192) The most abundant element present in plant, is
A)
nitrogen
done
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B)
manganese
done
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C)
iron
done
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D)
carbon
done
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question_answer 193) Bakanae disease in rice plants is caused by
A)
NAA
done
clear
B)
2, 4-D
done
clear
C)
GA
done
clear
D)
IAA
done
clear
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question_answer 194) In callus culture, roots can be induced by supply of
A)
auxin
done
clear
B)
cytokinin
done
clear
C)
gibberellins
done
clear
D)
ethylene
done
clear
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question_answer 195) Reabsorption of useful substances back into the blood from filtrate in nephron occurs in
A)
PCT
done
clear
B)
loop of Henle
done
clear
C)
DCT
done
clear
D)
collecting duct
done
clear
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question_answer 196) Assertion Adrenal gland is also called as 4-S gland. Reason Hormones of adrenal gland regulate salt retention, sugar metabolism, sex hormone secretion and sources of energy for increased metabolism.
A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
B)
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
Assertion is false but Reason is true
done
clear
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question_answer 197) Assertion Conduction of nerve impulse is an electrochemical event and is an active process. Reason Nerve impulse conduction needs energy during repolarization.
A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
B)
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
Assertion is false but Reason is true
done
clear
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question_answer 198) Assertion In human heart, fossa ovalis is a vestige of an oval-shaped foramen ovale of embryonic heart. Reason Papillary muscles of ventricles of human heart act as anchors and sites of attachment of chordae tendinae.
A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
B)
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
Assertion is false but Reason is true
done
clear
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question_answer 199) Assertion The type of inflorescence in Sphaeranthus is cyathium. Reason In cyathium type of inflorescence, the flowers are achlamydeous.
A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
B)
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
Assertion is false but Reason is true
done
clear
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question_answer 200) Assertion Passive process like diffusion and osmosis do not require energy. Reason Because the plasma membrane is a static structure.
A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
B)
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
done
clear
C)
Assertion is true but Reason is false
done
clear
D)
Assertion is false but Reason is true
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow