Solved papers for VMMC VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2008

VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2008 Total Questions - 200

1) How many seconds are there in a light fermi?

A)

\[{{10}^{-15}}g\]

B)

                       \[3.0\,\times {{10}^{8}}s\]

C)

       \[3.33\,\times {{10}^{-24}}s\]

D)

       \[3.3\,\times {{10}^{-7}}s\]

View Answer
2) A machine is delivering constant power to drive a body along a straight line. What is the relation between the distance travelled by the body against time?

A)

\[{{s}^{2}}\propto {{t}^{3}}\]

B)

       \[{{s}^{2}}\propto {{t}^{-3}}\]

C)

       \[{{s}^{3}}\propto {{t}^{2}}\]

D)

       \[s\propto {{t}^{3}}\]

View Answer
3) The square of resultant of two equal forces is three times their product. Angle between the forces is

A)

\[\pi \]

B)

                       \[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{\pi }{4}\]

D)

       \[\frac{\pi }{3}\]

View Answer
4) An object placed on a ground is in stable equilibrium. If the object is given a slight push then initially the position of centre of gravity

A)

moves nearer to ground

B)

rises higher above the ground

C)

remains as such

D)

may remain at same level

View Answer
5) How much work must be done by a force on 50 kg body in order to accelerate it from rest to 20 m/s in 10 s ?

A)

\[{{10}^{3}}J\]

B)

\[{{10}^{4}}J\]

C)

\[2\times {{10}^{3}}J\]

D)

\[4\times {{10}^{4}}J\]

View Answer
6) Moment of inertia of circular loop of radius R about the axis of rotation parallel to horizontal diameter at a distance R/2 from it is

A)

\[M{{R}^{2}}\]

B)

       \[\frac{1}{2}M{{R}^{2}}\]

C)

\[2M{{R}^{2}}\]

D)

       \[\frac{3}{4}M{{R}^{2}}\]

View Answer
7) What will happen to the weight of the body at the South Pole, if the earth stops rotating about its polar axis?

A)

No change

B)

Increases

C)

Decreases but does not become zero

D)

Reduces to zero

View Answer
8) A beam of metal supported at the two ends is loaded at the centre. The depression at the centre is proportional to

A)

\[{{Y}^{2}}\]

B)

                       \[Y\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{Y}\]

D)

       \[\frac{1}{{{Y}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
9) A common hydrometer reads specific gravity of liquids. Compared to the 1.6 mark of the stem the mark 1.5 will be

A)

upwards

B)

downwards

C)

in the same place

D)

may be upward or downward depending upon the hydrometer

View Answer
10) A balloon contains \[500\,\,{{m}^{3}}\] of Heat \[27{}^\circ C\] and 1 atmospheric pressure. The volume of Heat \[-3{}^\circ C\] and 0.5 atmospheric pressure will be

A)

\[700\,{{m}^{3}}\]

B)

                       \[900\,{{m}^{3}}\]

C)

       \[1000\,{{m}^{3}}\]

D)

       \[500\,{{m}^{3}}\]

View Answer
11) Which of the following is different from others?

A)

Wavelength

B)

       Velocity

C)

       Frequency

D)

       Amplitude

View Answer
12) Two pendulums have time periods T and 5T/4. They starts SHM at the same time from the mean position. What will be the phase difference between them after the bigger pendulum completed one oscillation?

A)

\[45{}^\circ \]

B)

       \[90{}^\circ \]

C)

\[60{}^\circ \]

D)

       \[30{}^\circ \]

View Answer
13) A balloon is filled with hydrogen. For sound waves, this balloon behaves like

A)

a converging lens

B)

a diverging lens

C)

a concave mirror

D)

None of the above

View Answer
14) Each of the two point charges are doubled and their distance is halved. Force of interaction becomes n times, where n is

A)

4

B)

                       1

C)

1/16

D)

       16

View Answer
15) Two soap bubbles have radii in the ratio of 2:1. What is the ratio of excess pressures inside them?

A)

1 : 2

B)

                       1 : 4

C)

2 : 1

D)

       4 : 1

View Answer
16) The phenomenon of Brownian movement may be taken as evidence of

A)

kinetic theory of matter

B)

EMT of radiation

C)

corpuscular theory of light

D)

photoelectric phenomenon

View Answer
17) Two sound waves of slightly different frequencies propagating in the same direction produce beats due to

A)

interference

B)

       diffraction

C)

       reflection

D)

       refraction

View Answer
18) An ice block floats in a liquid whose density is less than water. A part of block is outside the liquid. When whole of ice has melted, the liquid level will

A)

rise

B)

       go down

C)

       remain same

D)

       first rise then go down

View Answer
19) Two bodies of different masses of 2 kg and 4 kg moving with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s towards each other due to mutual gravitational attraction. What is the velocity of their centre of mass?

A)

5 m/s

B)

       6 m/s

C)

       8 m/s

D)

       Zero

View Answer
20) Given that the displacement of an oscillating particle is given by y = A sin (Bx + Ct + D). The dimensional formula for (ABCD) is

A)

\[\left[ {{M}^{0}}{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{0}} \right]\]

B)

                       \[\left[ {{M}^{0}}{{L}^{0}}{{T}^{-1}} \right]\]

C)

       \[\left[ {{M}^{0}}{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{-1}} \right]\]

D)

       \[\left[ {{M}^{0}}{{L}^{0}}{{T}^{0}} \right]\]

View Answer
21) Two waves having intensities in the ratio of 9:1 produce interference. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is equal to

A)

10: 8

B)

                                       9 : 1

C)

       4 : 1

D)

       2:1

View Answer
22) Four wires each of same length, diameter and material are connected to each other to form a square. If the resistance of each wire is R, then equivalent resistance across the opposite comers is

A)

R

B)

                                       R/2

C)

       R/4

D)

       None of these

View Answer
23) An electric motor runs on DC source of emf 200 V and draws a current of 10 A. If the efficiency be 40% then the resistance of armature is

A)

\[2\Omega \]

B)

                                       \[8\Omega \]

C)

       \[12\Omega \]

D)

       \[16\Omega \]

View Answer
24) A capacitor having capacity of 2.0 (\[\mu \]F is charged to 200 V and then the plates of the capacitor are connected to a resistance wire. The heat produced in joule will be

A)

\[2\times {{10}^{-2}}\]

B)

                                       \[4\times {{10}^{-2}}\]

C)

       \[4\times {{10}^{4}}\]

D)

       \[4\times {{10}^{10}}\]

View Answer
25) A voltmeter of range 2V and resistance 300 Q cannot be converted into ammeter of range

A)

1 A

B)

                       1 mA

C)

       100 mA

D)

       10 mA

View Answer
26) If a magnet is suspended at angle \[30{}^\circ \] to the magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes angle of \[45{}^\circ \] with the horizontal. The real dip is

A)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\,\left( \sqrt{3}\,/2 \right)\]

B)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \sqrt{3} \right)\]

C)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\,\left( \sqrt{3}\,/2 \right)\]

D)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( 2/\sqrt{3} \right)\]

View Answer
27) Which quantity is increased in step-down transformer?

A)

Current

B)

                       Voltage

C)

       Power

D)

       Frequency

View Answer
28) The ratio of intensity at the centre of a bright fringe to the intensity at a point distant one fourth of the distance between two successive bright fringes will be

A)

                                           4

B)

                                                       3

C)

       2

D)

       1

View Answer
29) Which has more luminous efficiency?

A)

A 40 W bulb

B)

       A 40 W fluorescent tube

C)

       Both have same

D)

       Cannot say

View Answer
30) When a ray of light enters from one medium to another, then its velocity in second medium becomes double. The maximum value of angle of incidence, so that total internal reflection may not take place will be

A)

\[60{}^\circ \]

B)

                                       \[180{}^\circ \]

C)

       \[90{}^\circ \]

D)

       \[30{}^\circ \]

View Answer
31) What should be the velocity of an electron so that its momentum becomes equal to that of a photon of wavelength \[5200\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]?

A)

700 m/s

B)

1000 m/s

C)

1400m/s

D)

2800 m/s

View Answer
32) A radioactive element has half-life period of 600 years. After 3000 years, what amount will remain?

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

B)

                                                       \[\frac{1}{16}\]

C)

       \[\frac{1}{8}\]

D)

       \[\frac{1}{32}\]

View Answer
33) Beyond which frequency, the ionosphere bends any incident electromagnetic radiation but do not reflect it back towards the earth?

A)

50 MHz

B)

                                       40 MHz

C)

       30 MHz

D)

       20 MHz

View Answer
34) In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature number of electrons and holesare

A)

equal

B)

                                       zero

C)

       unequal

D)

       infinite

View Answer
35) The unit of thermal conductance is

A)

\[W{{K}^{-1}}\]

B)

                                       \[J{{K}^{-1}}\]

C)

       WK

D)

       JK

View Answer
36) The value of P so that the vectors\[2\mathbf{\hat{i}}-\mathbf{\hat{j}}+\mathbf{\hat{k}}\],\[\mathbf{\hat{i}}-2\mathbf{\hat{j}}+3\mathbf{\hat{k}}\]and \[3\mathbf{\hat{i}}-P\mathbf{\hat{j}}+5\mathbf{\hat{k}}\] are coplanar should be

A)

16

B)

                                       -4

C)

       4

D)

       -8

View Answer
37) A capacitor of capacitance C has charge Q and stored energy is W. If the charge is increased to 2Q the stored energy will be

A)

\[\frac{W}{4}\]

B)

                                       \[\frac{W}{2}\]

C)

       2 W

D)

       4 W

View Answer
38) Pure silicon at 300 K has equal electron \[{{n}_{e}}\] and hole (\[{{n}_{h}}\]) concentration of \[1.5\times {{10}^{16}}{{m}^{-3}}\]. Doping by indium increases \[{{n}_{h}}\] to \[4.5\times {{10}^{22}}{{m}^{-3}}\]. The \[{{n}_{e}}\] in the doped silicon is

A)

\[9\times {{10}^{5}}\]

B)

                                       \[5\times {{10}^{9}}\]

C)

       \[2.25\times {{10}^{11}}\]

D)

                       \[3\times {{10}^{19}}\]

View Answer
39) A cylindrical conductor is placed near another positively charged conductor. The net charge acquired by the cylindrical conductor will be

A)

positive only

B)

       negative only

C)

       zero

D)

       either positive or negative

View Answer
40) If the unit of force is 1 kilo newton, the length is 1 km and time 100 s, what will be the unit of mass?

A)

1, 000 kg

B)

                       1 kg

C)

       10, 000 kg

D)

       100 kg

View Answer
41) The maximum tension which an inextensible ring of mass 0.1 kg/m can bear is 10 N. The maximum velocity in m/s with which it can be rotated is

A)

10

B)

                                       \[\sqrt{10}\]

C)

       20

D)

       15

View Answer
42) If there were a reduction in gravitational effect, which of the following forces do you think would change in some respect?

A)

Magnetic force

B)

                                       Electrostatic force

C)

       Viscous force

D)

       Archimedes uplift

View Answer
43) The breaking force for a wire of diameter D of a material is F. The breaking force for a wire of the same material of radius D is

A)

F

B)

                                       2 F

C)

       \[\frac{F}{4}\]

D)

       4F

View Answer
44) A uniformly tapering vessel is filled with a liquid of density \[900\,kg/{{m}^{3}}\]. The force that acts on the base of the vessel due to the liquid is \[(g=10\,m/{{s}^{2}})\]

A)

3.6N

B)

                       7.2N

C)

       9.0N

D)

       14.4N

View Answer
45) If pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by \[1{}^\circ C\], its initial temperature must be

A)

250 K

B)

\[250{}^\circ C\]

C)

2500 K

D)

\[25{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
46) Assertion: A body is projected vertically upwards with velocity 10 ms-1. It reaches the maximum vertical height h in time t. In the height covered is\[\frac{3h}{4}\] Reason :\[t=\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}\,and\,\,{{v}^{2}}={{u}^{2}}+2gh\]

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

       If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

       If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

       If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
47) Assertion: A person in the lift experiences weightless, when the lift starts going down with some acceleration. Reason: The gravitational acceleration gets reduced.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

       If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

       If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

       If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
48) Assertion: A rain drop after falling through some height attains a constant velocity. Reason: At constant velocity the viscous drag is just equal to its weight.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

       If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

       If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

       If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
49) Assertion: The torque on the coil is maximum, when coil is suspended in a radial magnetic field. Reason: The torque tends to rotate the coil about its own axis.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

       If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

       If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

       If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
50) Assertion: It one gram of ice is mixed with 1 g of water at , then the final temperature of mixture is zero. Reason: Latent heat of ice is 80 cal/g.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

       If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

       If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

       If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
51) Ethyl acetate is obtained when methyl magnesium bromide reacts with

A)

ethyl formate

B)

ethyl chloroformate

C)

acetyl chloride

D)

carbon dioxide

View Answer
52) The most stable hydride is

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

       \[P{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

       \[As{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

       \[Sb{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
53) The ratio of amounts of \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\]needed to precipitate all the metal ions from 100 mL of \[\text{1}\,\text{M}\,\text{AgN}{{\text{O}}_{3}}\]and 100 mL of \[\text{1}\,\text{M}\,\text{CuS}{{\text{O}}_{4}}\] will be

A)

1 : 1

B)

1 : 2

C)

2 : 1

D)

       None of these

View Answer
54) If the electronegativity difference between two atoms A and B is 2.0, then the percentage of covalent character in the molecule is

A)

54%

B)

46%

C)

23%

D)

       72%

View Answer
55) Which of the following reaction defines \[\Delta H_{f}^{o}?\]

A)

\[{{C}_{(diamond)}}+{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{2}{{H}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{F}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}HF(g)\]

C)

\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}2N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]

D)

\[CO(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

View Answer
56) Formaldehyde polymerizes to form glucose according to the reaction \[6HCHO{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{12}}{{O}_{6}}\] The theoretically computed equilibrium constant for this reaction is found to be \[6\times {{10}^{22}}.\] If 1 M solution of glucose dissociates according to the above equilibrium, the concentration of formaldehyde in the solution will be

A)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-2}}M\]

B)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-4}}M\]

C)

\[1.6\,\times {{10}^{-6}}M\]

D)

\[1.6\,\times {{10}^{-8}}\,M\]

View Answer
57) The electronic configuration of a dipositive ion \[{{\text{M}}^{\text{2+}}}\]is 2, 8, 14 and its mass number is 56. The number of neutrons present is

A)

32

B)

       42

C)

30

D)

       34

View Answer
58) If X is the total number of collisions which a gas molecule register with others per unit time under particular conditions, then the collision frequency of the gas containing N molecules per unit volume is

A)

X/N

B)

                       NX

C)

2 NX

D)

       NX/2

View Answer
59) A hypothetical reaction \[{{A}_{2}}+{{B}_{2}}\to 2AB\]follows the mechanism as given below, \[{{A}_{2}}A+A(fast)\] \[A+{{B}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}AB+B(slow)\] \[A+B\xrightarrow{{}}AB(fast)\] The order of the overall reaction is

A)

2

B)

       1

C)

\[1\frac{1}{2}\]

D)

       0

View Answer
60) The mass of helium atom of mass number 4 is 4.0026 amu, while that of the neutron and proton are 1.0087 and 1.0078 respectively on the same scale. Hence, the nuclear binding energy per nucleon in the helium atom is nearly

A)

\[5MeV\]

B)

       \[7MeV\]

C)

       \[10\,MeV\]

D)

       \[14\,MeV\]

View Answer
61) Which of the following statements is correct? Dielectric constant of \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]

A)

increases with dilution

B)

decreases with dilution

C)

is unaffected on dilution

D)

None of the above

View Answer
62) For the square planar complex \[[M(a)(b)(c)(d)]\] (where, M = central metal and , Jb, c and d are monodentate ligands), the number of possible geometrical isomers are

A)

1

B)

       2

C)

3

D)

       4

View Answer
63) Potash alum dissolves in water to give a/an

A)

acidic solution of \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

alkaline solution

C)

acidic solution of \[HCl\]

D)

neutral solution

View Answer
64) The discovery of which of the following group of elements gave death blow to the Newlands law of octaves?

A)

Inert gases

B)

       Alkaline earths

C)

       Rare earths

D)

       Actinides

View Answer
65) Vant Hoff factor more than unity indicates that the solute in solution has

A)

dissociated

B)

associated

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

cannot say anything

View Answer
66) How many number of atoms are there in a cube based unit cell having one atom on each comer and two atoms on each body diagonal of cube?

A)

8

B)

6

C)

4

D)

       9

View Answer
67) Bleeding due to a cut can be stopped by applying ferric chloride solution in the laboratory. This is due to

A)

co-agulation of negatively charged blood particles by \[\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{3+}}}\] ions

B)

co-agulation of positively charged blood particles by\[\text{C}{{\text{l}}^{-}}\] ions

C)

reaction taking place between ferric ions and the haemoglobin forming a complex

D)

common element, iron, in both \[\text{FeC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{3}}}\] and haemoglobin

View Answer
68) Which one of the following solutions will have highest conductivity?

A)

\[0.1\,M\,C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

B)

\[0.1\,M\,NaCl\]

C)

\[0.1\,M\,KN{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[0.1\,M\,HCl\]

View Answer
69) One of the following metals forms a volatile compound and this property is taken advantage for its extraction. This metal is

A)

iron

B)

       nickel

C)

       cobalt

D)

                       tungsten

View Answer
70) If \[\text{N}{{\text{a}}^{\text{+}}}\] ion is larger than \[\text{M}{{\text{g}}^{\text{2+}}}\] ion and \[{{\text{S}}^{2-}}\] ion is larger than \[\text{C}{{\text{l}}^{-}}\] ion, which of the following will be stable soluble in water?

A)

Sodium chloride

B)

Sodium sulphide

C)

Magnesium chloride

D)

Magnesium sulphide

View Answer
71) Impurities of Cu and Ag from gold are removed by

A)

boiling impure gold with dil. \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{4}}}\]

B)

boiling impure gold with conc. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

electrolytically

D)

Both (b) and (c)

View Answer
72) Which of the following salt would give \[\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\] with hot and dil. \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{4}}}\] also decolourises \[\text{B}{{\text{r}}_{2}}\] water?

A)

\[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

       \[NaHS{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

       \[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

       \[N{{a}_{2}}S\]

View Answer
73) If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different molecular formulae, they must have

A)

different percentage composition

B)

different molecular weights

C)

same viscocity

D)

same vapour density

View Answer
74) Among the following which one has weakest carbon-halogen bond?

A)

Benzyl bromide

B)

Bromobenzene

C)

Vinyl bromide

D)

Benzyl chloride

View Answer
75) Petrochemicals can be used to prepare

A)

synthetic fibres

B)

       pesticides

C)

       plastics

D)

       All of these

View Answer
76) tert-butyl methyl ether on heating with anhydrous HI in ether gives

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH+{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}Cl\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}I+{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}COH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}I+{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}Cl\]

D)

None of the above

View Answer
77) The correctly reported answer of the addition of 4.523, 2.3 and 6.24 will have significant figures

A)

two

B)

       three

C)

       four

D)

       five

View Answer
78) What happens if \[\text{CC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{4}}}\] is treated with \[\text{AgN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}?\]

A)

A white ppt. of \[\text{AgCl}\] will form

B)

\[\text{N}{{\text{O}}_{2}}\] will be evolved

C)

\[\text{CC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{4}}}\] will dissolve in \[\text{AgN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]

D)

Nothing will happen

View Answer
79) \[{{\,}^{\text{23}}}\text{Na}\] is more stable isotope of Na. Find out the process by which \[_{\text{11}}^{\text{24}}\text{Na}\] can undergo radioactive decay

A)

\[\beta -\] emission

B)

\[\alpha -\] emission

C)

\[{{\beta }^{+}}\] emission

D)

K electron capture

View Answer
80) The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid at constant volume is -321.30 kJ at \[\text{27}{{\,}^{\text{o}}}\text{C}\] The heat of combustion at constant pressure is

A)

\[-321.30-300\text{ }R\]

B)

\[-321.30+300R\]

C)

\[-321.30-150\text{ }R\]

D)

\[-\text{ }321.30\text{ }+\text{ }900\text{ }R\]

View Answer
81) In which of the following compounds ?OH group is least reactive?

A)

B)

C)

D)

All are equally reactive.

View Answer
82) lodoform is obtained when ethanol is heated with

A)

\[\text{KI}\] and \[aq\,KOH\]

B)

\[{{I}_{2}}\] and \[aq\,KOH\]

C)

       \[{{I}_{2}}/aq\,KI\]

D)

       \[HI\] and \[HI{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
83) The total number of acylic isomers including the stereoisomers (geometrical and optical), with the molecular formula \[{{C}_{4}}{{H}_{7}}Cl\] is

A)

12

B)

       11

C)

10

D)

       9

View Answer
84) The alkyl halides that can be made by free radical halogenation of alkanes are

A)

\[RCl,\] and \[RBr\] but not RF or \[RI\]

B)

\[RF,RCl\] and \[R\,Br\] but not \[RI\]

C)

\[RF,\text{ }RCl,\text{ }RBr,\text{ }RI\]

D)

\[RF,RCl\]and \[RI\]but \[RBr\]

View Answer
85) Silica is a/an

A)

acidic flux only

B)

gangue only

C)

basic flux only

D)

Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
86) The nodes present in 3p-orbitals are

A)

one spherical, one planar

B)

two spherical

C)

two planar

D)

one planar

View Answer
87) The number of \[\alpha -\] and \[\beta -\] particles emitted in nuclear reaction \[_{90}T{{h}^{228}}\xrightarrow{{}}{{\,}_{83}}B{{i}^{212}}\] are respectively

A)

4, 1

B)

       3, 7

C)

8, 1

D)

       4, 7

View Answer
88) Two bottles A and B contains 1 M and 1 m aqueous solution of sulphuric acid respectively

A)

A is more concentrated than B

B)

B is more concentrated than A

C)

concentration of A is equal to concentration of B

D)

it is not possible to compare the concentrations

View Answer
89) A salt on treatment with dil. \[\text{HCl}\] gives a pungent smelling gas and a yellow precipitate. The salt gives green flame test and a yellow precipitate with potassium chromate the salt is

A)

\[NiS{{O}_{4}}\text{ }\]

B)

       \[Ba{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

       \[Pb{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

       \[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
90) Which of the oxide of manganese is amphoteric?

A)

\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

       \[M{{n}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

       \[M{{n}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

D)

       \[MnO\]

View Answer
91) Which of the following alkenes is most reactive towards cationic polymerization?

A)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CHC{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}C=CHCl\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}C=CH{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}C=CHC{{O}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
92) An organic compound, \[{{\text{C}}_{\text{3}}}{{\text{H}}_{\text{6}}}\text{O}\]does not give a precipitate with 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine reagent and does not react with metallic sodium. It could be

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}CHO\]

B)

\[~C{{H}_{2}}=CHC{{H}_{2}}OH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-O-C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
93) Oxidation of 1-butene with hot \[\text{KMn}{{\text{O}}_{\text{4}}}\]solution produces

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\text{ }+\text{ }HCOOH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\text{ }+\text{ }C{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH+C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\text{ }C=O\text{ }+\text{ }C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
94) A mixture of 1-chlorobutane and 2-chloro- butane when treated with alcoholic KOH gives

A)

1-butene

B)

2-butene

C)

isobutylene

D)

mixture of 1-butene +2-butene

View Answer
95) Out of the two compounds shown below, the vapour pressure of B at a particular temperature is expected to be

A)

higher than that of A

B)

lower than that of B

C)

same as that of A

D)

can be higher lower depending upon the size of the vessel

View Answer
96) Assertion : Bond energy has order like: \[C-C<C=C<C\equiv C\] Reason: Bond energy increases with increase in bond order.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
97) Assertion: \[\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{3+}}}\] is more stable than \[\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{2+}}}.\] Reason: \[\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{2+}}}\]ions are easily oxidized to \[\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{3+}}\] ions.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
98) Assertion: Benzene reacts with \[\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{Cl}\] using \[\text{AlC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{3}}}\]as catalyst to form methyl benzene. This reaction is called Perkin reactions. Reason: \[\text{AlC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{3}}}\]acts as an electrophile in the reaction.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
99) Assertion: The order of reaction may be negative. Reason: In some cases, the rate of reaction decreases as the concentration of the reaction.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
100) Assertion: Fructose reduces Fehlings solution and Tollens reagent. Reaction: Fructose does not contain any aldehydic group.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
101) Correct sequence of stages in evolution of modem man/Homo sapiens is

A)

Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-magnon man, Homo erectus, modem man

B)

Australopithecus, Homo erectus, Neanderthal man, Cro-magnon man, Modem man

C)

Neanderthal man, Australopithecus Cro-magnon man, Homo erectus, modem man

D)

Homo erectus, Australopithecus, Neanderthal man, Cro-magnon man, modem man

View Answer
102) Allopatric speciation occurs when

A)

genetically related population inhabit widely separated geographical area

B)

genetically unrelated population inhabit widely separated geographical area

C)

genetically related population inhabit the same geographical area

D)

genetically mixed population inhabit the geographical area

View Answer
103) Symplast

A)

is living component of cell

B)

consist of cytoplasm and cell membrane

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

None of the above

View Answer
104) Astral rays are formed of

A)

micro-filaments

B)

Microtubules

C)

intermediate filaments

D)

mircrovilli

View Answer
105) Which of the following cannot be isolated from plants ?

A)

                Vitamin-\[{{B}_{12}}\]

B)

Niacin

C)

Vitamin-C

D)

       Riboflavin

View Answer
106) Progesterone level falls during

A)

gestation

B)

menopause

C)

       lactation

D)

       menstruation

View Answer
107) Endangered plants species are conserved through

A)

herbarium

B)

       gene library

C)

       gene bank

D)

       reducing pollution

View Answer
108) The intensity of noise pollution is measured in

A)

mach

B)

hertz

C)

decibels

D)

       noy

View Answer
109) Which one depicts nitrogen fixation ?

A)

\[{{N}_{2}}\to N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

       \[{{N}_{2}}\to N{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

       \[{{N}_{2}}\to A\min oacids\]

D)

       Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
110) Glycolysis is

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{12}}{{O}_{6}}+6{{O}_{2}}\to 6C{{O}_{2}}+6{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{12}}{{O}_{6}}\to 2{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH+2C{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{12}}{{O}_{6}}\to 2{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{4}}{{O}_{3}}+4H\]

D)

\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{4}}{{O}_{3}}+NADH\to {{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH+C{{O}_{2}}+NA{{D}^{+}}\]

View Answer
111) Most of the biological energy is supplied by mitochondria through

A)

breaking of proteins

B)

reduction of NADP

C)

breaking of sugar

D)

oxidizing TCA substrate

View Answer
112) Photolysis of water by isolated chloroplasts was demonstrated by

A)

Hill

B)

Liebig

C)

Von Niel

D)

       Calvin

View Answer
113) Yellowish edges appear in leaves deficient in

A)

\[C{{a}^{++}}\]

B)

\[M{{g}^{++}}\]

C)

\[{{K}^{+}}\]

D)

Sulphur

View Answer
114) Which one is responsible for opening and closing of stomata ?

A)

Rise in pH of guard cell causes hydrolysis of starch

B)

Cytokinins and cAMP are requireds

C)

Abscisic acid promotes closure

D)

All of the above

View Answer
115) Connecting link between Echinodermata and Chordata is

A)

Peripatus

B)

Archaeopteryx

C)

       Balanoglossus

D)

       None of these

View Answer
116) Scientists pin pointed the location of colour processing centres in human visual cortex by means of

A)

PET scanning

B)

       NMR scanning

C)

CT scanning

D)

       Ultra sound imaging

View Answer
117) AZT is the treatment of

A)

Malaria

B)

       AIDS

C)

TB

D)

       Kala-azar

View Answer
118) What is interferon ?

A)

Secretion in response to viral infection by the cell

B)

Secretion in response to bacterial infection

C)

Secretion in response to fungi infection

D)

None of the above

View Answer
119) Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about by certain species of

A)

Pencillium

B)

Azotobacter

C)

       Saccharomyces

D)

                       Lactobacillus

View Answer
120) The stimulant present in tea coca and coffee is

A)

cocaine

B)

       tannin

C)

       astringent

D)

       caffeine

View Answer
121) Which is true ?

A)

Umbel is racemose inflorescence where- stalked flower aggregate on a flat receptacle

B)

In raceme the main axis is shortened and flowers are borne acropetally

C)

Spadix is a pendulous spike with main axis much flattened

D)

Spike is a racemose inflorescence having sessile flowers

View Answer
122) The chief anatomical feature of the family Cruciferae is the presence of

A)

latex

B)

pectin

C)

alkaloides

D)

       myrosin

View Answer
123) Winged fruits are found is

A)

Moringa

B)

Pinus

C)

Dioscorea

D)

       Argemone

View Answer
124) Inflorescence is edible in Brassica oleracea

A)

var. botrytes

B)

       var. capitata

C)

       var. gangyloides

D)

      var. germifera

View Answer
125) Alternate phyllotaxy in which the sixth leaf lies above the first leaf after completing two circles is known as

A)

distichous

B)

tristichous

C)

       pentastichous

D)

       octastichous

View Answer
126) Nephridia of earthworm are analogous to

A)

nematoblasts of Hydra

B)

tracheae of insects

C)

flame cells of Planaria

D)

gills of prawn

View Answer
127) Cockroach blood does not contain respiratory pigment. It means

A)

it does not respire

B)

cockroach respire anaerobically

C)

oxygen passes to all the tissue through diffusion

D)

oxygen reaches tissue through tracheoles

View Answer
128) Frog is

A)

ammonolitic

B)

ureotelic

C)

       uricotelic

D)

       None of these

View Answer
129) Structure present in man but absent in frog

A)

salivary gland

B)

pancreas

C)

       adrenal gland

D)

       thyroid gland

View Answer
130) Respiration without distinct respiratory oxgan occur in

A)

cockroach

B)

       frog

C)

earthworm

D)

       fish

View Answer
131) Aristotles lantern is connected with

A)

respiration

B)

mastication

C)

       excretion

D)

       support

View Answer
132) Brunners glands occur in

A)

sub-mucosa of duodenum

B)

sub-mucosa of stomach

C)

mucosa of oesophagus

D)

mucosa of ileum

View Answer
133) Vitamin needed for blood coagulation is

A)

E

B)

D

C)

K

D)

C

View Answer
134) During expiration diaphragm becomes

A)

flattened

B)

       dome shaped

C)

oblique

D)

normal

View Answer
135) \[C{{O}_{2}}\] is carried in blood as

A)

sodium bicarbonate

B)

sodium carbonate

C)

potassium carbonate

D)

magnesium carbonate

View Answer
136) Pace maker of heart is

A)

AV node

B)

Bundle of His

C)

       SA node

D)

       Purkinje fibre

View Answer
137) Alary muscles of cockroach are associated with

A)

Malpighian tubules and excretion

B)

trachea and respiration

C)

heart and circulation

D)

None of the above

View Answer
138) Uric acid gets deposited in small joints to produce

A)

rheumatid arthritis

B)

gout

C)

osteoarthritis

D)

       bursitis

View Answer
139) Number of vertebrae in human skeleton is

A)

30

B)

32

C)

33

D)

       35

View Answer
140) Pelvic girdle consist of

A)

ilium

B)

ilium, ischium and pubis

C)

ilium and ischium

D)

ischium and pubis

View Answer
141) Foramen of Monro is an aperture between

A)

third and 4th ventricles

B)

rhinocoel and diacoel

C)

lateral and third ventricle

D)

diacoel and metacoel

View Answer
142) The sequence of ear ossicles from outside (tympanum) to inside is

A)

stapes, incus and malleus

B)

malleus, incus and stapes

C)

stapes, malleus and incus

D)

incus, malleus and stapes

View Answer
143) Organ of Golgi is the sensing structure formed at the junction of

A)

two nerves

B)

two bones

C)

nerve and muscles

D)

muscles and tendon

View Answer
144) Which is aminated hormone?

A)

Progesterone

B)

       Epinephrine

C)

       Estrogen

D)

       Relaxin

View Answer
145) Ancestors of mammals belongs to

A)

Uherapsida

B)

Omithischia

C)

       Silusoidea

D)

       Chelonea

View Answer
146) Besides bats, echolocation also occurs in

A)

primates

B)

wild cat

C)

       whales and dolphins

D)

beavers

View Answer
147) Kaziranga national park is famous for

A)

one homed rhinocerose

B)

tiger leopard

C)

nilgai and samber

D)

sandpiper

View Answer
148) Linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit fly has 66 map units with yellow body gene (y) at one end and bobbed hair (b) at the other end. The recombination frequency between y and b gene would be

A)

66%

B)

\[\le 50%\]

C)

       >50%

D)

       100%

View Answer
149) A living fossil is

A)

coelacanth

B)

sphenodon

C)

       limulus

D)

       All of these

View Answer
150) Which of the following is not functionally analogous with other in the group?

A)

Anthridium

B)

Archegonium

C)

       Oogonium

D)

       Ovule

View Answer
151) Appearance of teeth in the embryos of birds is an example of

A)

vestigial organs

B)

ontogeny repeats phylogeny

C)

Atavism

D)

speciation

View Answer
152) Which is the most recent in human evolution?

A)

Mesolithic

B)

Upper Palaeolithic

C)

Neolithic

D)

       Middle Palaeolithic

View Answer
153) An enzyme carrier protein associated with cell membrane

A)

lipase

B)

       amylase

C)

       permease

D)

       catalase

View Answer
154) Ultraphagocytosis (colloidopexy) is intake by cell of

A)

chromagen particles

B)

small colloidal particles

C)

large colloidal particles

D)

it is very quick phagocytosis

View Answer
155) Meiosis was discovered by

A)

Strasburger

B)

Hofmerster

C)

       Sutton

D)

       Van Beneden

View Answer
156) Plastids of an etiolated plant possess

A)

Phycobilins

B)

carotenoids and xanthophylls

C)

chlorophylloid and carotenoids

D)

chlorophyll and carotenes

View Answer
157) In an ecosystem, bacteria are considered as

A)

micro-consumers

B)

macro-consumers

C)

primary consumers

D)

secondary consumers

View Answer
158) Wilting occurs when there is

A)

transpiration higher than absorption

B)

absorption higher than transpiration

C)

higher relative humidity of atmosphere

D)

excess root pressure

View Answer
159) Hydroponics is growing plants in

A)

water

B)

soil culture

C)

solution of mineral nutrients

D)

tissue culture medium

View Answer
160) The process of photophosphorylation was discovered by

A)

Calvin

B)

       Arnon

C)

Priestley

D)

       Warburg

View Answer
161) First reaction in photosynthesis is

A)

photolysis of water

B)

excitation of chlorophyll molecules

C)

formation of ATP

D)

fixation of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
162) Oxidation of pyruvate to \[C{{O}_{2}}\] and \[{{H}_{2}}O\] occur through

A)

citric acid cycle

B)

tricarboxylic acid

C)

                       Krebs cycle

D)

       All of these

View Answer
163) High milk yielding crossbreed Frieswal cow is product of

A)

Brown Swiss and Sahiwal

B)

Friesian and Sahiwal

C)

Holstein and Tharpaikar

D)

Brown Swiss and Red Sindhi

View Answer
164) A plant having nitrogen fixing bacteria is

A)

cotton

B)

wheat

C)

gram

D)

       mustard

View Answer
165) Which of the following is correct for LSD morphine and charas respectively?

A)

Claviceps, Papaver somniferum, Cannabis

B)

Claviceps, Cannabis, Papaver somniferum

C)

Claviceps, Cannabis, Rauwolffia

D)

Claviceps, Fusarium, Cannabis

View Answer
166) Biopesticides do not control

A)

viruses

B)

nematodes

C)

       Both (a) and (b)

D)

       fungi and bacteria

View Answer
167) What is true of plasmids ?

A)

They are found in viruses

B)

They are main parts of chromosomes

C)

They are widely used in gene transfer

D)

They contain genes for vital activities

View Answer
168) The type of immunoglobulin present in the colostrum secreted by mammary glands is

A)

IgD

B)

IgE

C)

IgG

D)

       IgA

View Answer
169) Cornea transplantation is quite common because

A)

it is easily available

B)

it is easily transplanted

C)

it does not invite immune response due to absence of blood

D)

None of the above

View Answer
170) Genes involved in cancer are

A)

cancer gene

B)

oncogenes

C)

       tumour genes

D)

       regulater genes

View Answer
171) The aleurone layer in maize grain is especially rich in

A)

lipids

B)

       auxin

C)

protein

D)

       starch

View Answer
172) Dispersal of fruits in opium (poppy) occurs through shaking by wind by

A)

explosive mechanism

B)

parachute mechanism

C)

cencer mechanism

D)

jacular mechanism

View Answer
173) Sepals (calyx) are modified into wings in the fruits called samaroid. One such example is

A)

Shorea (sal)

B)

Dodonaea

C)

       Acer

D)

       Morenga

View Answer
174) Ovary in Solanaceae is

A)

bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior

B)

monocarpellary, syncarpous, superior

C)

tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior

D)

multicarpellary, syncarpous, superior

View Answer
175) Elongated peduncle bearing pedicellate flower continuously in acropetal order is

A)

corymb

B)

                       umbel

C)

raceme

D)

       head

View Answer
176) In Pheretima, septa are absent between segments

A)

5/6 and 10 and 11

B)

absent in first four

C)

5/6 and 7/8

D)

7/8 and 6/7

View Answer
177) Peritrophic membrane is associated with a part of digestive system in

A)

Ascaris

B)

Neries

C)

Antedon

D)

       Periplanata

View Answer
178) Abdomen of cockroach has segments

A)

6

B)

       10

C)

11

D)

       12

View Answer
179) In frog, two phalanges occur in

A)

pollex

B)

       hallux

C)

third finger

D)

       third toe

View Answer
180) In frog jelly around the eggs is deposited

A)

in water after fertilization

B)

in water during fertilization

C)

in the oviduct

D)

in the ovary

View Answer
181) The hormone secretin is produced by

A)

pancreas and influence the conversion of glycogen to glucose

B)

adrenal gland and accelerate heart beat

C)

testis and produces male secondary sex character

D)

small intestine and stimulate pancreas

View Answer
182) Triple "F" or gland for flight, fight and fright/lifesaving/emergency gland is

A)

thyroid

B)

thymus

C)

pituitary

D)

adrenal

View Answer
183) A serious eye defects which can lead to blindness is

A)

myopia

B)

       hyper metropia

C)

       presbyopia

D)

       glaucoma

View Answer
184) Cranial nerve showing maximum branching is

A)

trigeminal

B)

vagus

C)

optic

D)

       facial

View Answer
185) Which one is the spinal nerve ?

A)

Trigeminal

B)

       Hypoglossal

C)

       Olfactory

D)

       None of these

View Answer
186) Haversian system is diagnostic feature of

A)

avian bones

B)

reptilian bones

C)

mammalian bones

D)

bone of all animals

View Answer
187) Hinge joint occur between

A)

humerus and radio-ulna

B)

femur and pelvic girdle

C)

hamerus and pectoral girdle

D)

skull and atlas

View Answer
188) ADH controls water permeability of

A)

collecting tube

B)

proximal convoluted tube

C)

distal convoluted tubule

D)

All of the above

View Answer
189) Rise in heart beat, cardiac output, blood pressure and blood sugar occurs during emergency by hormone

A)

Aldosterone

B)

antidiuretic hormone

C)

Norepinephrine

D)

oxytocin

View Answer
190) Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and deoxyhaemoglobin at

A)

low \[{{O}_{2}}\] pressure in tissue

B)

high \[{{O}_{2}}\] pressure in tissue

C)

equal \[{{O}_{2}}\] pressure inside and outside tissue

D)

all times irrespective of \[{{O}_{2}}\] pressure

View Answer
191) Hydrolytic enzyme which acts at low pH is

A)

\[\alpha \]-amylase

B)

protease

C)

       hydrolases

D)

       peroxidases

View Answer
192) Ornithine cycle is related to

A)

respiration

B)

excretion

C)

       digestion

D)

       nutrition

View Answer
193) Sericteris (silk gland) are modified

A)

intestinal gland

B)

       gastric gland

C)

       salivary gland

D)

       endocrine glands

View Answer
194) Which one is not a larval stage of flatwarm ?

A)

Redia

B)

       Cercaria

C)

Bipinnaria

D)

       Miracedium

View Answer
195) Ascaris larva is called

A)

cysticerus

B)

rhabditiform

C)

hexacanth

D)

       onchosphere

View Answer
196) Assertion: Prokaryotic genome consis of a single circular DNA molecule. Reason: Genetic variations do not occurs in prokaryotes.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
197) Assertion: Enzymes are proteins which catalyse biochemical reactions. Reason: The enzymes itself unchanged in the reaction, its presence allows the reaction to take place.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
198) Assertion: DNA code is copied in the synthesis of mRNA. Reason: tRNA moves out of nucleus and after attaching on ribosomes form the template.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
199) Assertion: Auxin helps in apical dominance. Reason: If a pest of auxin is painted on the cut end of the decapitated shoot. The lateral buads remain inhibited.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
200) Assertion: Fatty liver syndrome occurs by Reason: Alcoholics have a rate of carcinoma 10 times higher than that expected in the general population.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer

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