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question_answer1) A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform acceleration of \[5\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]. What would be the reading on the scale? \[(g=10\,\,m/{{s}^{2}})\]
A)
800 N
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B)
1200 N
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C)
Zero
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D)
400 N
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question_answer2) A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is suspended from it but will break if the mass exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration with which the monkey can climb up along the rope? \[(g=10\,\,m/{{s}^{2}})\]
A)
\[25\,\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[2.5\,\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[5\,\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[10\,\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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question_answer3) J.J. Thomson's cathode-ray tube experiment demonstrated that:
A)
the e/m of electrons is greater than the e/m of protons
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B)
the e/m ratio of the cathode-ray particles changes when a different gas is placed in the discharge tube
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C)
cathode rays axe streams of negatively charged ions
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D)
all the mass of an atom is essentially in the nucleus
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question_answer4) Reverse bias applied to a junction diode:
A)
increases the majority carrier current
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B)
increases the minority carrier current
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C)
lowers the potential barrier
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D)
raises the potential barrier
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question_answer5) In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum?
A)
Deuterium atom
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B)
Hydrogen atom
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C)
Doubly ionized lithium
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D)
Singly ionized helium
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question_answer6) A bar magnet is oscillating in the earth's magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period and motion if its mass is quadrupled?
A)
Motion remains SH with time period = 4T
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B)
Motion remains SH and period remains nearly constant
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C)
Motion remains SH with time period = T/2
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D)
Motion remains SH with time period = 2T
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question_answer7) A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the:
A)
acceleration remains unchanged
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B)
velocity remains unchanged
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C)
speed of the particle remains unchanged
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D)
direction of the particle remains unchanged
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question_answer8) A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity \[\omega \]. Four objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of the ring will be:
A)
\[\frac{(M+4m)\,\omega }{M}\]
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B)
\[\frac{(M-4m)\,\omega }{M+4m}\]
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C)
\[\frac{M\,\omega }{4m}\]
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D)
\[\frac{M\,\omega }{M+4m}\]
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question_answer9) A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of rums per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is
A)
2B
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B)
4B
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C)
B/2
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D)
B
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question_answer10)
Following diagram performs the logic function of: 
A)
OR gate
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B)
AND gate
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C)
XOR gate
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D)
NAND gate
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question_answer11) The volume occupied by an atom is greater than the volume of the nucleus by factor of about:
A)
\[{{10}^{10}}\]
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B)
\[{{10}^{15}}\]
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C)
\[{{10}^{1}}\]
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D)
\[{{10}^{5}}\]
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question_answer12) The mass number of a nucleus is:
A)
sometimes equal to its atomic number
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B)
sometimes less than and sometimes more than its atomic number
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C)
always less than its atomic number
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D)
always more than its atomic number
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question_answer13) The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit) The binding energy of \[_{2}H{{e}^{4}}\] is:
A)
28.4 MeV
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B)
0.061 u
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C)
0.0305 J
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D)
0.0305 erg
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question_answer14) Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does not depend on:
A)
forward bias
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B)
doping density
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C)
diode design
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D)
Temperature
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question_answer15) A particle moves along a circle of radius \[\left( \frac{20}{\pi } \right)\] m with constant tangential acceleration. If the velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second revolution after motion has begun, the tangential acceleration is:
A)
\[160\,\pi \,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[40\,\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[40\,\pi \,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[640\,\pi \,m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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question_answer16) An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the coils is connected to an AC source, the water in the kettle boils in 10 min. When the other coil is used the water boils in 40 min. If both the coils are connected in parallel, the time taken by the same quantity of water to boil will be:
A)
25 min
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B)
15 min
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C)
8 min
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D)
4 min
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question_answer17) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is:
A)
\[ut-\frac{1}{2}g\,{{t}^{2}}\]
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B)
(u + gt) t
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C)
ut
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D)
\[\frac{1}{2}g{{t}^{2}}\]
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question_answer18) Two 220 V, 100 W bulbs are connected first in series and then in parallel. Each time the combination is connected to a 220 V AC supply line. The power drawn by the combination in each case respectively will be:
A)
200 W, 150 W
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B)
50 W, 200 W
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C)
50 W, 100 W
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D)
100 W, 50 W
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question_answer19) Fuse wire is a wire of:
A)
low resistance and low melting point
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B)
low resistance and high melting point
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C)
high resistance and high melting point
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D)
high resistance and low melting point
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question_answer20) Solar energy is mainly caused due to:
A)
fusion of protons during synthesis of heavier elements
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B)
gravitational contraction
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C)
burning of hydrogen in the oxygen
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D)
fission of uranium present in the sun
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question_answer21)
An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let \[f,\,f',\,f''\] be the focal lengths of the complete lens, of each half in case (i), and of each half in case (ii), respectively. 
Choose the correct statement from the following:
A)
\[f'=f,\,\,f''=f\]
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B)
\[f'=2f,\,\,f''=2f\]
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C)
\[f'=f,\,\,f''=2f\]
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D)
\[f'=2f,\,\,f''=f\]
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question_answer22) A nuclear reaction given by: \[_{Z}{{X}^{A}}{{\to }_{Z+1}}{{Y}^{A}}{{+}_{-1}}{{e}^{0}}+\overline{v}\] represents:
A)
fusion
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B)
fission
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C)
\[\beta \]-decay
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D)
\[\gamma \]-decay
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question_answer23) A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 10 g at an instant t = 0. The approximate mass of this element in the sample after two mean lives is:
A)
3.70 g
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B)
6.30 g
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C)
1.35 g
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D)
2.50 g
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question_answer24) A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. When the source is shifted to 2 m then:
A)
each emitted electron carries half the initial energy
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B)
number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial number
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C)
each emitted electron carries one quarter of the initial energy
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D)
number of electrons emitted is half the initial number
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question_answer25) The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces:
A)
are not equal to each other in magnitude
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B)
cannot be predicted
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C)
are equal to each other
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D)
are equal to each other in magnitude
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question_answer26) A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its centre of mass is K. If radius of the ball be R, then the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy will be:
A)
\[\frac{{{K}^{2}}}{{{K}^{2}}+{{R}^{2}}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{{{R}^{2}}}{{{K}^{2}}+{{R}^{2}}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{{{K}^{2}}+{{R}^{2}}}{{{R}^{2}}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{{{K}^{2}}}{{{R}^{2}}}\]
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question_answer27) The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2m on the surface of A. What is the height of jump by the same person on the planet B?
A)
6 m
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B)
\[\frac{2}{3}\] m
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C)
\[\frac{2}{9}\] m
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D)
18 m
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question_answer28) When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy in it will be:
A)
10 U
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B)
25 U
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C)
U/5
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D)
5 U
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question_answer29) A particle of mass m oscillates with simple harmonic motion between points \[{{x}_{1}}\] and \[{{x}_{2}}\] the equilibrium position being O. Its potential energy is plotted. It will be as given below in the graph:
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer30) An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force \[\vec{F}\] between the two is:
A)
\[k\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{3}}}\vec{r}\]
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B)
\[-k\,\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{3}}}\vec{r}\]
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C)
\[k\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{2}}}\hat{r}\]
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D)
\[-k\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{3}}}\hat{r}\]
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question_answer31) A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any face is:
A)
\[\frac{\pi q}{6(4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}})}\]
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B)
\[\frac{q}{6(4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}})}\]
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C)
\[\frac{2\pi q}{6(4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}})}\]
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D)
\[\frac{4\pi q}{6(4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}})}\]
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question_answer32) An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are \[\lambda \] and f respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively:
A)
\[f,\,1,\,2\lambda \]
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B)
\[0.8f,\,0.8\lambda \]
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C)
\[1.2f,\,1.2\lambda \]
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D)
\[1.2\,f,\,\lambda \]
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question_answer33) Motion of observer does not affect the wavelength reaching the observer, hence, wavelength remains \[\lambda \]. Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thickneses and thermal conductivities K and 2K, respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is:
A)
3K
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B)
\[\frac{4}{3}K\]
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C)
\[\frac{2}{3}K\]
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D)
\[\sqrt{2}\,K\]
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question_answer34) If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the ripple will be:
A)
70.7 Hz
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B)
100 Hz
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C)
25 Hz
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D)
59 Hz
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question_answer35) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves:
A)
perpendicular to the field
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B)
from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
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C)
from stronger to the weaker parts of the field
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D)
in none of the above directions
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question_answer36) A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will:
A)
become small, but non-zero
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B)
remain unchanged
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C)
become zero
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D)
become infinite
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question_answer37) A n-p-n transistor conducts when:
A)
collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as the base
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B)
both collector and emitter are negative with respect to the base
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C)
both collector and emitter are positive with respect to the base
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D)
collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect to the base
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question_answer38) Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves?
A)
\[\beta \]-rays
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B)
Heat rays
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C)
X-rays
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D)
\[\gamma \]-rays
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question_answer39) A man throws balls with the same speed vertically upwards one after the other at an interval of 2 seconds. What should be the speed of the throw so that more than two balls are in the sky at any time? (Given \[g\]\[=9.8\,m/{{s}^{2}}\])
A)
Any speed less than 19.6 m/s
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B)
Only with speed 19.6 m/s
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C)
More than 19.6 m/s
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D)
At least 9.8 m/s
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question_answer40) Two spheres of masses \[m\] and \[M\] are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is \[F\]. The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be:
A)
\[\frac{F}{3}\]
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B)
\[\frac{F}{9}\]
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C)
3F
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D)
F
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question_answer41) The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle is half way to its end point is:
A)
\[\frac{1}{4}F\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{2}F\]
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C)
\[\frac{2}{3}F\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{8}F\] (where E is the total energy)
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question_answer42) According to Curie's law, the magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance at an absolute temperature T is proportional to:
A)
\[\frac{1}{{{T}^{2}}}\]
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B)
\[{{T}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{T}\]
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D)
T
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question_answer43) The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is T. If the spring is cut into four equal parts and the same mass is suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period will be:
A)
\[\frac{T}{2}\]
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B)
2T
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C)
\[\frac{T}{4}\]
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D)
T
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question_answer44) In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave becomes very sharp when the:
A)
applied periodic force is small
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B)
quality factor is small
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C)
damping force is small
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D)
restoring force is small
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question_answer45) A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of length L and height h What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom?
A)
\[\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}gh}\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{4gh}\]
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C)
\[\sqrt{2gh}\]
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D)
\[\sqrt{\frac{3}{4}gh}\]
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question_answer46) A stationary particle explodes into two particles of masses \[{{m}_{1}}\] and \[{{m}_{2}}\] which move in opposite directions with velocities \[{{v}_{1}}\] and \[{{v}_{2}}\]. The ratio of their kinetic energies \[{{E}_{1}}/{{E}_{2}}\] is:
A)
1
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B)
\[{{m}_{1}}{{v}_{2}}/{{m}_{2}}{{v}_{1}}\]
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C)
\[{{m}_{2}}/{{m}_{1}}\]
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D)
\[{{m}_{1}}/{{m}_{2}}\]
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question_answer47) An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between \[{{227}^{o}}C\] and \[{{127}^{o}}C\]. It absorbs 6 kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to:
A)
1.6
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B)
1.2
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C)
4.8
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D)
3.5
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question_answer48) We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which of the following statements is true?
A)
The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters
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B)
The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible
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C)
The radiation emitted is in the infra-red region
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D)
The radiation is emitted only during the day
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question_answer49) Three capacitors each of capacity \[4\,\mu F\] are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is \[6\,\mu F\]. This can be done by:
A)
connecting two in series and one in parallel
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B)
connecting two in parallel and one in series
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C)
connecting all of diem in series
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D)
connecting all of them in parallel
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question_answer50) In a Wheatstone's bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. If the resistance of the galvanometer arm is also R, the equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is:
A)
R
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B)
2R
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C)
\[\frac{R}{4}\]
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D)
\[\frac{R}{2}\]
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question_answer51) The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline (I), benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is:
A)
II < III > I
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B)
I > II > III
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C)
III > II > I
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D)
II > III > I
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question_answer52) The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 K are 2.25 and \[3.31\,\,g\,\,c{{m}^{-3}},\] respectively. If the standard free energy difference (\[\Delta \]\[{{G}^{\text{o}}}\]) is equal to 1895 J mol-1, the pressure at which graphite will be transformed into diamond at 298 K is:
A)
\[9.92\times {{10}^{6}}\,Pa\]
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B)
\[9.92\times {{10}^{5}}\,Pa\]
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C)
\[9.92\times {{10}^{8}}\,Pa\]
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D)
\[9.92\times {{10}^{7}}Pa\]
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question_answer53) Which one of the following is a free radical substitution reaction?
A)
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO+HCN\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}C{{H}_{3}}CH(OH)CN\]
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer54) The radioisotope, tritium \[(\,_{1}^{3}H)\] has a half-life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it would remain after 49.2 years?
A)
4 mg
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B)
8 mg
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C)
1 mg
done
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D)
2 mg
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question_answer55) The reaction A\[\to \]B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675 mole of B?
A)
0.25 h
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B)
2 h
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C)
1 h
done
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D)
0.5 h
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question_answer56) On the basis of the information available from the reaction \[\frac{4}{3}Al+{{O}_{2}}\to \frac{2}{3}\,A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}},\,\Delta G=-827\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\,of\]\[{{O}_{2}}\], the minimum emf required to carry out an electrolysis of \[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\] is \[(F=96500\,\,C\,mo{{l}^{-1}})\]
A)
6.42 V
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B)
8.56 V
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C)
2.14 V
done
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D)
4.28 V
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question_answer57)
The final product C, obtained in this reaction 
A)
would be:
B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer58) In this reaction: \[\begin{align} & C{{H}_{3}}CHO+HCN\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}C{{H}_{3}}CH(OH)CN \\ & \xrightarrow{H.OH}C{{H}_{3}}CH(OH)COOH \\ \end{align}\] an asymmetric centre is generated. The acid obtained would be:
A)
50% D + 50% L-isomer
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B)
20% D + 80% L-isomer
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C)
D-isomer
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D)
L-isomer
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question_answer59)
Name of the compound given below is: 
A)
2, 3-diethylheptane
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B)
5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
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C)
4-ethyl-3-methyloctane
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D)
3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
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question_answer60) According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increase because:
A)
absorption produces heat which increases the speed of the reaction
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B)
adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction
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C)
the concentration of reactant molecules at the active centres of the catalyst becomes high due to adsorption
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D)
in the process of adsorption, the activation energy of the molecules becomes large
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question_answer61) The emf of a Daniell cell at 298 K is \[{{E}_{1}}\] \[ZN\,\left| \begin{align} & ZnS{{O}_{4}} \\ & (0.01\,M) \\ \end{align} \right|\,\left| \begin{align} & CuS{{O}_{4}} \\ & (1.0\,M) \\ \end{align} \right|Cu\] When the concentration of \[ZnS{{O}_{4}}\] is 1.0M and that of \[CuS{{O}_{4}}\] is 0.01 M, the emf changed to \[{{E}_{2}}\]. What is the relationship between \[{{E}_{1}}\] and \[{{E}_{2}}\]?
A)
\[{{E}_{1}}={{E}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[{{E}_{2}}=0\,\ne {{E}_{1}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{E}_{1}}>E{{ & }_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{E}_{1}}<{{E}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer62) Vitamin \[{{B}_{12}}\] contains:
A)
Zn (II)
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B)
Ca (II)
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C)
Fe (II)
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clear
D)
Co (III)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer63) Which one of the following octahedral complexes will not show geometrical isomerism? (A and B are monodentate ligands)
A)
\[[M{{A}_{4}}{{B}_{2}}]\]
done
clear
B)
\[[M{{A}_{5}}B]\]
done
clear
C)
\[[M{{A}_{2}}{{B}_{4}}]\]
done
clear
D)
\[[M{{A}_{3}}{{B}_{3}}]\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer64) Acrilan is a hard, horny and a high melting material. Which of the following represents its structure?
A)
\[{{\left( \begin{align} & -C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,H- \\ & \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}} \\ \end{align} \right)}_{n}}\,\,\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{\left( \begin{align} & -C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,H- \\ & \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,Cl \\ \end{align} \right)}_{n}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{\left( \begin{align} & C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,H- \\ & \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,CN \\ \end{align} \right)}_{n}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{\left( \begin{align} & \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,C{{H}_{3}} \\ & -C{{H}_{2}}-\overset{|}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,- \\ & \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,COOC{{H}_{3}} \\ \end{align} \right)}_{n}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer65) The molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure, C, is \[75\,\,J{{K}^{-1}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}},\] When 1.0 kJ of heat is supplied to 100 g of water which is free to expand, the increase in temperature of water is :
A)
4.8 K
done
clear
B)
6.6 K
done
clear
C)
1.2 K
done
clear
D)
2.4 K
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer66) The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction \[{{N}_{2}}(g)\,+3{{H}_{2}}(g)\] \[\rightleftharpoons \] \[2N{{H}_{3}}(g)\] is given by \[Q=\frac{{{[N{{H}_{3}}]}^{2}}}{[{{N}_{2}}]\,{{[{{H}_{2}}]}^{3}}}\] . The reaction will proceed towards right side if:
A)
\[Q>{{K}_{c}}\]
done
clear
B)
Q = 0
done
clear
C)
\[Q={{K}_{c}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[Q<{{K}_{c}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer67) What is the entropy change (in \[J{{K}^{-1}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]) when one mole of ice is converted into water at \[{{0}^{\text{o}}}C\]? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is \[6.0\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\] at \[{{0}^{\text{o}}}C\].)
A)
2.198
done
clear
B)
21.98
done
clear
C)
20.13
done
clear
D)
2.013
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer68) The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of:
A)
greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity
done
clear
B)
greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid
done
clear
C)
greater mobility of the pure metal than that of impurity
done
clear
D)
higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer69) According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named as:
A)
sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II)
done
clear
B)
sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
done
clear
C)
sodium nitroferricyanide
done
clear
D)
sodium nitroferrocyanide
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer70) Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with:
A)
one carboxylic acid residue and two phosphate groups
done
clear
B)
three phoshate groups
done
clear
C)
three carboxylic acid residues
done
clear
D)
two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate groups
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer71) The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions \[SO_{3}^{2-},\,{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}\,and\,{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}\] follow the order:
A)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}<SO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}<SO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}<SO_{3}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}\]
done
clear
D)
\[SO_{3}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}\]
done
clear
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question_answer72) The value of Planck's constant is \[6.63\times {{10}^{34}}Js\]. The velocity of light is \[3.0\times {{10}^{8}}m{{s}^{-1}}\]. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometers of a quantum of light with frequency of \[8\times {{10}^{15}}{{s}^{-1}}\]?
A)
\[4\times {{10}^{1}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[3\times {{10}^{7}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[2\times {{10}^{-25}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[5\times {{10}^{-18}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer73) The ions \[{{O}^{2-}},\,{{F}^{-}},\,N{{a}^{+}},M{{g}^{2+}}\,and\,\,A{{l}^{3+}}\]are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show:
A)
an increase from \[{{O}^{2-}}\] to F- and then decrease from \[N{{a}^{+}}\] to \[A{{l}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
B)
a decrease from \[{{O}^{2-}}\] to F- and then increase from \[N{{a}^{+}}\] to \[A{{l}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
C)
a significant increase from \[{{O}^{2-}}\] to \[A{{l}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
D)
a significant decrease from \[{{O}^{2-}}\] to \[A{{l}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer74) The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, \[k=A{{e}^{-E*/RT}}\]. Activation energy \[({{E}^{*}})\] of the reaction can be calculated by ploting:
A)
\[\log \,k\,vs\frac{1}{T}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\log \,k\,vs\,\frac{1}{\log \,T}\]
done
clear
C)
k vs T
done
clear
D)
\[k\,vs\frac{1}{\log \,T}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer75) If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is:
A)
2
done
clear
B)
3
done
clear
C)
0
done
clear
D)
1
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer76) Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene on polymerization?
A)
\[\begin{align} & \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\text{Cl} \\ & \text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{ = }\overset{\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }}{\mathop{\text{C}}}\,-CH=C{{H}_{2}} \\ \end{align}\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{F}_{2}}=C{{F}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{2}}=CHCl\]
done
clear
D)
\[CC{{l}_{2}}=CC{{l}_{2}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer77)
A and B in the following reactions are 
A)
\[A=RR'C{{H}_{2}}CN,\,B=NaOH\]
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer78) Glycolysis is:
A)
oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
done
clear
B)
conversion of glucose to haem
done
clear
C)
oxidation of glucose to glutamate
done
clear
D)
conversion of pyruvate to citrate
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer79) The basic character 6f the transition metal monoxides follows the order:
A)
TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
done
clear
B)
TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
done
clear
C)
VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
done
clear
D)
CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer80) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)
HOCl is a stronger add than HOBr
done
clear
B)
HF is a stronger acid than HCl
done
clear
C)
Among halide tons, iodide is the most powerful reducing agent
done
clear
D)
Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show a variable oxidation state
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer81) The compound \[\begin{align} & \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,C{{H}_{3}} \\ & C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,=CH-C{{H}_{3}} \\ \end{align}\] on reaction with \[NaC{{O}_{4}}\] hi the presence of \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\] gives:
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}+C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO+C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}+C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer82) In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a product C, \[C{{H}_{3}}COOH+PC{{l}_{5}}\to A\xrightarrow[Anh.\,AlC{{l}_{3}}]{{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}}B\underset{Ether}{\mathop{\xrightarrow{{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}MgBr}}}\,C\] product C would be:
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CH(OH){{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} {{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C(OH){{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}}}\,\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CH(OH){{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CO{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer83) Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers?
A)
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer84) In Haber process 30 L of dihydrogen and 30 L of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of gaseous mixture under the aforesaid condition in the end?
A)
20L ammonia, 10L nitrogen, 30L hydrogen
done
clear
B)
20L ammonia, 25L nitrogen, 15L hydrogen
done
clear
C)
20L ammonia, 20L nitrogen, 20L hydrogen
done
clear
D)
10L ammonia, 25L nitrogen, 15L hydrogen
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer85) Which one of the following orders of acid strength is correct?
A)
RCOOH > HOH > HC \[\equiv \] CH > ROH
done
clear
B)
RCOOH >HC \[\equiv \] CH > HOH > ROH
done
clear
C)
RCOOH > ROH > HOH > HC \[\equiv \] CH
done
clear
D)
RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC \[\equiv \] CH
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer86) When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is (are):
A)
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer87) The following equilibria are given: \[\begin{matrix} {{N}_{2}}+3{{H}_{2}}2N{{H}_{3}} & {{K}_{1}} \\ \end{matrix}\] \[\begin{matrix} {{N}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}2NO & {{K}_{2}} \\ \end{matrix}\] \[\begin{matrix} {{H}_{2}}+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}O & {{K}_{3}} \\ \end{matrix}\] The equilibrium constant of the reaction \[2N{{H}_{3}}+\frac{5}{2}{{O}_{2}}\rightleftharpoons 2NO+3{{H}_{2}}O\] in terms of \[{{K}_{1}},\,{{K}_{2}}\] and \[{{K}_{3}}\] is:
A)
\[\frac{{{K}_{1}}K_{3}^{2}}{{{K}_{2}}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{{{K}_{2}}\,K_{3}^{3}}{{{K}_{1}}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{K}_{1}}\,{{K}_{2}}\,{{K}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{{{K}_{1}}\,{{K}_{2}}}{{{K}_{3}}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer88) For which one of the following equations \[\Delta H_{nreact}^{o}\] equal to \[\Delta H_{f}^{o}\] for the product?
A)
\[Xe(g)+2{{F}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}Xe{{F}_{4}}(g)\]
done
clear
B)
\[2CO(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{3}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{4}}(g)+2C{{l}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}(\ell )+2HCl\,(g)\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer89) Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma- and pi-bonds formed between two carbon atoms?
A)
Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
done
clear
B)
Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this regard
done
clear
C)
Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
done
clear
D)
Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer90) Which one of the following compounds is not a protonic acid?
A)
\[SO{{(OH)}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[S{{O}_{2}}{{(OH)}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
* \[B{{(OH)}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[PO{{(OH)}_{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer91) Among the following, which is not the \[\pi \]-bonded organometallic compound?
A)
\[Cr{{({{\eta }^{6}}-{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}})}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}Sn\]
done
clear
C)
\[K[PtC{{l}_{3}}\,({{\eta }^{2}}-{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}})]\]
done
clear
D)
\[Fe{{({{\eta }^{5}}-{{C}_{5}}{{H}_{5}})}_{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer92) The correct order of ionic radii of \[{{Y}^{3+}},\,L{{a}^{3+}},\,E{{u}^{3+}}\] and \[L{{u}^{3+}}\] is:
A)
\[L{{u}^{3+}}<E{{u}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}<{{Y}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[L{{a}^{3+}}<E{{u}^{3+}}<L{{u}^{3+}}<{{Y}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{Y}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}<E{{u}^{3+}}<L{{u}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{Y}^{3+}}<L{{u}^{3+}}<E{{u}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer93) Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic activity?
A)
Colour of hydrated ions
done
clear
B)
Variable oxidation states
done
clear
C)
High enthalpy of atomization
done
clear
D)
Paramagnetic behavior
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer94) The number of unpaired electrons in me complex ion \[{{[Co{{F}_{6}}]}^{3-}}\] is:
A)
4
done
clear
B)
zero
done
clear
C)
2
done
clear
D)
3 (Atomic number Co = 27)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer95) Chargaffs rule states that in an organism:
A)
amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of cytosine (C) and die amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of guanine (G)
done
clear
B)
amounts of all bases are equal
done
clear
C)
amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C)
done
clear
D)
amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of cytosine (C)
done
clear
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question_answer96) The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A \[\to \] B is \[{{E}_{a}}\] in forward direction. The activation energy for reverse reaction:
A)
can be less than or more than \[{{E}_{a}}\]
done
clear
B)
is always double of \[{{E}_{a}}\]
done
clear
C)
is negative of \[{{E}_{a}}\]
done
clear
D)
is always less than \[{{E}_{a}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer97) Formation of a solution from two components can be considered as: (1) pure solvent \[\to \] separated solvent molecules, \[\Delta {{H}_{1}}\] (2) pure solute \[\to \] separated solute molecules, \[\Delta {{H}_{2}}\] (3) separated solvent and solute molecules \[\to \] solution, \[\Delta {{H}_{3}}\] Solution so formed will be ideal if:
A)
\[\Delta {{H}_{so\ln }}=\Delta {{H}_{1}}-\Delta {{H}_{2}}-\Delta {{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\Delta {{H}_{so\ln }}=\Delta {{H}_{3}}-\Delta {{H}_{1}}-\Delta {{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\Delta {{H}_{so\ln }}=\Delta {{H}_{1}}+\Delta {{H}_{2}}+\Delta {{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\Delta {{H}_{so\ln }}=\Delta {{H}_{1}}+\Delta {{H}_{2}}-\Delta {{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer98) The solubility product of Agl at \[{{25}^{\text{o}}}C\] is \[1.0\times {{10}^{-16}}\,mo{{l}^{2}}\,{{L}^{-2}}\]. The solubility of \[AgI\] in \[{{10}^{-4}}N\] solution of KI at \[{{25}^{\text{o}}}C\] is approximately (in mol \[{{L}^{-1}}\]):
A)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-10}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-8}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-16}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-12}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer99) For the reaction, \[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{8}}(g)+5{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}3C{{O}_{2}}(g)+4{{H}_{2}}O\,(l)\] at constant temperature, \[\Delta H-\Delta E\] is
A)
+3RT
done
clear
B)
-RT
done
clear
C)
+RT
done
clear
D)
-3RT
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer100) The pyknometric density of sodium chloride crystal is \[2.165\,\times {{10}^{3}}\,kg{{m}^{-3}}\] while its X-ray density is \[2.178\,\times {{10}^{3}}\,kg\,{{m}^{-3}}\]. The fraction of unoccupied sites in sodium chloride crystal is:
A)
\[5.96\,\times {{10}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[5.96\,\times {{10}^{-3}}\]
done
clear
C)
5.96
done
clear
D)
\[5.96\,\times {{10}^{-2}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer101) Genetic map is one chat:
A)
shows the stages during the cell division
done
clear
B)
shows the distribution of various species in a region
done
clear
C)
establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome
done
clear
D)
establishes the various stages in gene evolution
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer102) Coconut milk factor is:
A)
abscisic acid
done
clear
B)
cytokinin
done
clear
C)
an auxin
done
clear
D)
a gibberellins
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer103) Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as 'start' or 'stop' codon?
A)
UGU?Leucine
done
clear
B)
UAC?Tyrosine
done
clear
C)
UCG?Start
done
clear
D)
UUU?Stop
done
clear
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question_answer104) Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size:
A)
\[300\times 20\,\,nm\]
done
clear
B)
\[700\times 30\,\,nm\]
done
clear
C)
\[300\times 10\,\,nm\]
done
clear
D)
\[300\times 5\,\,nm\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer105) ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is:
A)
DNA probe
done
clear
B)
RNAase
done
clear
C)
alkaline phosphatase
done
clear
D)
catalase
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer106) Convergent evolution is illustrated by:
A)
starfish and cuttle fish
done
clear
B)
dogfish and whale
done
clear
C)
rat and dog
done
clear
D)
bacterium and protozoan
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer107) During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in:
A)
association of 30S, m-RNA with formyl-met-t-RNA
done
clear
B)
association of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
done
clear
C)
formation of formyl-met-t-RNA
done
clear
D)
binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with m-RNA
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer108) Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as:
A)
multicellular with a gastrovascular system
done
clear
B)
multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
done
clear
C)
unicellular or acellular
done
clear
D)
multicellular without any tissue organization
done
clear
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question_answer109) Viruses are no more ?alive? than isolated chromosomes because:
A)
they both require oxygen for respiration
done
clear
B)
both require the environment of a cell to replicate
done
clear
C)
they require both RNA and DNA
done
clear
D)
they both need food molecules
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer110) Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by:
A)
all eukaryotic cells
done
clear
B)
only bacterial cells
done
clear
C)
only gymnosperm cells
done
clear
D)
all plant cells
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer111) Which one of the following concerns photophosphorylation?
A)
ADP + Inorganic \[P{{O}_{4}}\] \[\to \] ATP
done
clear
B)
AMP + Inorganic \[P{{O}_{4}}\xrightarrow[{}]{Light\,energy}ATP\]
done
clear
C)
ADP + AMP \[\xrightarrow[{}]{Light\,energy}ATP\]
done
clear
D)
\[\text{ADP}+\text{Inorganic P}{{\text{O}}_{4}}\xrightarrow{\text{Light energy}}\text{ATP}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer112) What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?
A)
They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
done
clear
B)
These are produced in thyroid
done
clear
C)
There are three main types?cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
done
clear
D)
These originate in lymphoid tissues
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
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question_answer113) In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mt-DNA and Y-chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because:
A)
their structure is known in greater detail
done
clear
B)
they can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
done
clear
C)
they are small and therefore, easy to study
done
clear
D)
they are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
done
clear
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question_answer114) Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits?
A)
Chameleon ? Mimicry
done
clear
B)
Taenia ? Polymorphism
done
clear
C)
Pheretima ? Sexual dimorphism
done
clear
D)
Musca ? Complete metamorphosis
done
clear
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question_answer115) Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher plants?
A)
Red and violet
done
clear
B)
Violet and blue
done
clear
C)
Blue and green
done
clear
D)
Green and red
done
clear
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question_answer116) Species are considered as:
A)
artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms
done
clear
B)
real units of classification devised by taxonomists
done
clear
C)
real basic units of classification
done
clear
D)
the lowest units of classification
done
clear
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question_answer117) Random genetic drift in a population probably results from:
A)
constant low mutation rate
done
clear
B)
large population size
done
clear
C)
highly genetically variable individuals
done
clear
D)
interbreeding within this population
done
clear
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question_answer118) If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected?
A)
The urine will be more concentrated
done
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B)
The urine will be more dilute
done
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C)
There will be no urine formation
done
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D)
There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
done
clear
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question_answer119) During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?
A)
First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids
done
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B)
First proteins, next lipids and lastly carbohydrate
done
clear
C)
First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
done
clear
D)
First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
done
clear
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question_answer120) What used to be described as Nissl granules in a nerve cell are now identified as?
A)
Ribosomes
done
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B)
Mitochondria
done
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C)
Cell metabolites
done
clear
D)
Fat granules
done
clear
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question_answer121) Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in:
A)
nuclear genome
done
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B)
cytosol
done
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C)
chloroplast genome
done
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D)
mitochondrial genome
done
clear
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question_answer122) The apical meristem of the root is present:
A)
only in adventitious roots
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B)
in all the roots
done
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C)
only in radicals
done
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D)
only in tap roots
done
clear
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question_answer123) Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of plants growing in:
A)
temperate climate
done
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B)
tropics
done
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C)
alpine region
done
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D)
cold winter regions
done
clear
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question_answer124) In which one of the following nitrogen is not a constituent?
A)
Invertase
done
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B)
Pepsin
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
Bacteriochlorophyll
done
clear
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question_answer125) Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration?
A)
It is a characteristics of \[{{C}_{4}}\] plants
done
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B)
It is a characteristics of \[{{C}_{3}}\] plants
done
clear
C)
It occurs in chloroplasts
done
clear
D)
It occurs in daytime only
done
clear
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question_answer126) Stomata of a plant open due to:
A)
influx of hydrogen ions
done
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B)
influx of calcium ions
done
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C)
influx of potassium ions
done
clear
D)
efflux of potassium ions
done
clear
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question_answer127) Stomata of CAM plants:
A)
open during the night and close during the day
done
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B)
never open
done
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C)
are always open
done
clear
D)
open during the day and close at night
done
clear
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question_answer128) The major portion of the dry weight of plants comprises of:
A)
carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
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B)
carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
done
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C)
nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
done
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D)
calcium, magnesium and sulphur
done
clear
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question_answer129) In Drosbphtia, the sex is determined by:
A)
the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
done
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B)
whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically
done
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C)
the ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the set of autosomes
done
clear
D)
X and Y-chromosomes
done
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question_answer130) Christmas disease in another name for:
A)
Down's syndrome
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B)
sleeping sickness
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C)
haemophilia B
done
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D)
hepatitis B
done
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question_answer131) When a cluster of genes show linkage behaviour they:
A)
do not show independent assortment
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B)
induce cell division
done
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C)
do not show a chromosome map
done
clear
D)
show recombination during meiosis
done
clear
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question_answer132) Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the:
A)
entire codon
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B)
third member of a codon
done
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C)
first member of a codon
done
clear
D)
second member of a codon
done
clear
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question_answer133) Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them relates to die ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing it is called:
A)
biotic potential
done
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B)
environmental resistance
done
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C)
morbidity
done
clear
D)
fecundity
done
clear
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question_answer134) Fluoride pollution mainly affects:
A)
teeth
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B)
kidney
done
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C)
brain
done
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D)
heart
done
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question_answer135) Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?
A)
Viruses are obligate parasites
done
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B)
Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
done
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C)
Viruses possess their own metabolic system
done
clear
D)
All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
done
clear
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question_answer136) Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows:
A)
morphologically different sex organs
done
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B)
physiologically differentiated sex organs
done
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C)
different sizes of motile sex organs
done
clear
D)
same size of motile sex organs
done
clear
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question_answer137) Phenetic classification is based on:
A)
dendograms based on DNA characteristics
done
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B)
sexual characteristics
done
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C)
the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
done
clear
D)
observable characteristics of existing organisms
done
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question_answer138) In alcohol fermentation:
A)
there is no electron donor
done
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B)
oxygen is the electron acceptor
done
clear
C)
triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
done
clear
D)
triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor
done
clear
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question_answer139) During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the following is left undegraded?
A)
Hemicellulose
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B)
Cellulose
done
clear
C)
Lipids
done
clear
D)
Lignin
done
clear
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question_answer140) Industrial melanism is an example of:
A)
protective resemblance with the surroundings
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B)
defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
done
clear
C)
drug resistance
done
clear
D)
darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
done
clear
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question_answer141) The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by:
A)
dividing regularly to add to the corpus
done
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B)
dividing regularly to add to tunica
done
clear
C)
having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei
done
clear
D)
having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
done
clear
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question_answer142) Differentiation of shoot is controlled by:
A)
high gibberellin : auxin ratio
done
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B)
high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
done
clear
C)
high auxin : cytokinin ratio
done
clear
D)
high cytokinin : auxin ratio
done
clear
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question_answer143) In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to:
A)
wall and die tapetum
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B)
only tapetum and sporogenous cells
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C)
only the wall of the sporangium
done
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D)
both wall and the sporogenous cells
done
clear
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question_answer144) Which one of die following mineral elements plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation?
A)
Zinc
done
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B)
Molybdenum
done
clear
C)
Copper
done
clear
D)
Manganese
done
clear
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question_answer145) Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone:
A)
ethylene
done
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B)
abscisic acid
done
clear
C)
auxin
done
clear
D)
cytokinin
done
clear
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question_answer146) In sugarcane plant \[^{14}C{{O}_{2}}\] is fixed in a malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes \[C{{O}_{2}}\] is:
A)
ribulose phosphate kinase
done
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B)
fructose phosphatase
done
clear
C)
ribulose Diphosphate carboxylase
done
clear
D)
phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
done
clear
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question_answer147) Mycorrhiza is an example of:
A)
endoparasitism
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B)
decomposers
done
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C)
symbiotic relationship
done
clear
D)
ectoparasitism
done
clear
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question_answer148) Which one of the following is categorized under living fossils?
A)
Selaginella
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B)
Metasequoia
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C)
Pinus
done
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D)
Cycas
done
clear
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question_answer149) Boron in green plants assists in:
A)
photosynthesis
done
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B)
sugar transport
done
clear
C)
activation of enzymes
done
clear
D)
acting as enzyme cofactor
done
clear
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question_answer150) Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the:
A)
spore capsule of a moss
done
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B)
pollen tube of Pinus
done
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C)
cytoplasm of Chlarella
done
clear
D)
mycelium of a green mould such as Aspergillus
done
clear
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question_answer151) The term "antibiotic" was coined by:
A)
Selman Waksman
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B)
Alexander Flemming
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C)
Edward Jenner
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D)
Louis Pasteur
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question_answer152) The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially rich in:
A)
lipids
done
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B)
auxins
done
clear
C)
proteins
done
clear
D)
starch
done
clear
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question_answer153) Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?
A)
Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection
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B)
Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size
done
clear
C)
Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection
done
clear
D)
Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection
done
clear
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question_answer154) Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ: (A) silver fish?trachea (B) scorpion ? book lung (C) sea squirt ? pharyngeal gills (D) dolphin ? skin The correct matchings are:
A)
B and D
done
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B)
C and D
done
clear
C)
A and D
done
clear
D)
A, B and C
done
clear
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question_answer155) Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency of:
A)
Mn
done
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B)
Fe
done
clear
C)
Cu
done
clear
D)
Zn
done
clear
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question_answer156) Which of the following discoveries resulted in a Nobel Prize?
A)
Recombination of linked genes
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B)
Genetic engineering
done
clear
C)
X-rays induce sex-linked recessive lethal mutations
done
clear
D)
Cytoplasmic inheritance
done
clear
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question_answer157) The chief advantage of encystment of an Amoeba is:
A)
protection from parasites and predators
done
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B)
the chance to get rid of accumulated waste products
done
clear
C)
the ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
done
clear
D)
the ability to live for some time without ingesting food
done
clear
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question_answer158) Which of the following plants are used as green manure in crop fields and in sandy soils?
A)
Saccharum munja and Lantana camara
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B)
Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla nilotica
done
clear
C)
Crotolaria juncea and Alhagi comelorum
done
clear
D)
Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus niruri
done
clear
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question_answer159) In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms. If the five- kingdom system of classification is used:
A)
Protista
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B)
Monera
done
clear
C)
Plantae
done
clear
D)
Fungi
done
clear
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question_answer160) Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?
A)
Green pod colour
done
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B)
Round seed shape
done
clear
C)
Axial flower position
done
clear
D)
Green seed colour
done
clear
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question_answer161) The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many different chromosome.
A)
Five
done
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B)
Four
done
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C)
Seven
done
clear
D)
Six
done
clear
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question_answer162) Juicy hair-like structures observed in the lemon fruit develop from:
A)
endocarp
done
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B)
mesocarp and endocarp
done
clear
C)
exocarp
done
clear
D)
mesocarp
done
clear
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question_answer163) Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?
A)
Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
done
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B)
Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult
done
clear
C)
Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
done
clear
D)
Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same functions
done
clear
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question_answer164) Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory', did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution?
A)
Struggle for existence
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B)
Discontinuous variations
done
clear
C)
Parasites and predators as natural enemies
done
clear
D)
Survival of the fittest
done
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question_answer165) During its life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively:
A)
metacercaria and cercaria
done
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B)
miracidium and metacercaria
done
clear
C)
redia and miracidium
done
clear
D)
cercaria and redia
done
clear
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question_answer166) Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism to determine pollution of water with:
A)
industrial effluents
done
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B)
pollen of aquatic plants
done
clear
C)
heavy metals
done
clear
D)
faecal matter
done
clear
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question_answer167) Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What percentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by this disorder?
A)
50%
done
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B)
25%
done
clear
C)
100%
done
clear
D)
75%
done
clear
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question_answer168) What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA?
A)
A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
done
clear
B)
A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
done
clear
C)
A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
done
clear
D)
Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
done
clear
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question_answer169) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A)
Vitamin \[{{B}_{12}}\] ? Pernicious anaemia
done
clear
B)
Vitamin \[{{B}_{1}}\] ? Beri-beri
done
clear
C)
Vitamin C ? Scurvy
done
clear
D)
Vitamin \[{{B}_{2}}\] ? Pellagra
done
clear
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question_answer170) Which elements is located at the centre of the porphyrin ring in chlorophyll?
A)
Potassium
done
clear
B)
Manganese
done
clear
C)
Calcium
done
clear
D)
Magnesium
done
clear
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question_answer171) The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as:
A)
constituents of hormones
done
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B)
binder of cell structure
done
clear
C)
co-factors of enzymes
done
clear
D)
building blocks of important amino acids
done
clear
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question_answer172) In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids?
A)
61
done
clear
B)
60
done
clear
C)
20
done
clear
D)
64
done
clear
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question_answer173) Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?
A)
Fiats and Chlamydomonas
done
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B)
Punica and Pinus
done
clear
C)
Fem and Funaria
done
clear
D)
Funaria and Ficus
done
clear
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question_answer174) Systemic heart refers to:
A)
entire heart in lower vertebrates
done
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B)
the two ventricles together in humans
done
clear
C)
the heart that contracts under stimulation from nervous system
done
clear
D)
left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
done
clear
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question_answer175) The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit-fly has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at one end and bobbed hair (b) gene at the other end. The recombination frequency between these two genes (y and b) should be:
A)
\[\le \,50%\]
done
clear
B)
100%
done
clear
C)
66%
done
clear
D)
> 50%
done
clear
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question_answer176) Choromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in number and:
A)
can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell
done
clear
B)
can be circular as well as linear within die same cell
done
clear
C)
are always circular
done
clear
D)
are always linear
done
clear
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question_answer177) Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
A)
Stratified epithelium
done
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B)
Myelinated nerve fibres
done
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C)
Striated muscle
done
clear
D)
Areolar tissue
done
clear
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question_answer178) Bundle of His is a network of:
A)
nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
done
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B)
nerve fibres found throughout the heart
done
clear
C)
muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
done
clear
D)
muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
done
clear
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question_answer179) Which endangered animal is the source of the world's finest, lightest, warmest and most expensive wool the shahtoosh?
A)
Kashmiri goat
done
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B)
Chiru
done
clear
C)
Nilgai
done
clear
D)
Cheetal
done
clear
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question_answer180) Carcinoma refers to:
A)
malignant tumours of the colon
done
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B)
benign tumours of the connective tissue
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C)
malignant tumours of the connective tissue
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clear
D)
malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
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clear
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question_answer181) Which one of the following pairs correctly mathces a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
A)
Parathyroid hormone ? Tetani
done
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B)
Insulin ? Diabetes insipidus
done
clear
C)
Relaxin ? Gigantism
done
clear
D)
Prolactin ? Cretinism
done
clear
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question_answer182) Maximum application of animals cell culture technology today is in the production of:
A)
vaccines
done
clear
B)
edible proteins
done
clear
C)
insulin
done
clear
D)
interferons
done
clear
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question_answer183) Ommatidia serve die purpose of photoreception in:
A)
humans
done
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B)
sunflower
done
clear
C)
cockroach
done
clear
D)
frog
done
clear
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question_answer184) In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of die following brings about a change in gene frequency in non-directional manner?
A)
Selection
done
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B)
Migration
done
clear
C)
Mutations
done
clear
D)
Random drift
done
clear
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question_answer185) In which one of the following options the two names refer to one and the same thing?
A)
Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
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B)
Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
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clear
C)
Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle
done
clear
D)
Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
done
clear
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question_answer186) Test tube baby means a baby born when:
A)
the ovum is fertilized externally ad thereafter implanted in the uterus
done
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B)
it develops from a non-fertilized egg
done
clear
C)
it is developed in a test tube
done
clear
D)
it is developed through tissue culture method
done
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question_answer187) Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work plants?
A)
Bacillus coagulens
done
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B)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
done
clear
C)
Costridium septicum
done
clear
D)
Xanthomonas citri
done
clear
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question_answer188) Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species?
A)
Reptiles
done
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B)
Birds
done
clear
C)
Mammals
done
clear
D)
Fishes
done
clear
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question_answer189) During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called:
A)
receptor
done
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B)
enhancer
done
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C)
promoter
done
clear
D)
regulator
done
clear
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question_answer190) During embryonic development, the establishment of polarity along anterior posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral axis is called:
A)
anamorphosis
done
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B)
pattern formation
done
clear
C)
organizer phenomena
done
clear
D)
axis formation
done
clear
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question_answer191) What does ?lac? refer to in what we call the lac operon?
A)
Lac insect
done
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B)
The number, 1, 00, 000
done
clear
C)
Lactose
done
clear
D)
Lactase
done
clear
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question_answer192) Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is known as:
A)
dihybrid cross
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B)
reverse cross
done
clear
C)
test cross
done
clear
D)
reciprocal cross
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clear
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question_answer193) Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are examples of:
A)
sex differentiating traits
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B)
sex determining traits
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clear
C)
sex linked traits
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clear
D)
sex limited traits
done
clear
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question_answer194) Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from a mosquito home infectious disease?
A)
Pernicious anaemia
done
clear
B)
Leukemia
done
clear
C)
Thalassaemia
done
clear
D)
Sickle cell anaemia
done
clear
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question_answer195) Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term:
A)
sporophytes
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B)
thallophytes
done
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C)
cryptogams
done
clear
D)
bryophytes
done
clear
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question_answer196) Which one pair of examples will correctly represent the grouping spermatophyta according to one of the schemes of classifying plants?
A)
Rhizopus, Triticum
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B)
Ginkgo, Pisum
done
clear
C)
Acacia, sugarcane
done
clear
D)
Pinus, Cycas
done
clear
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question_answer197) Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N. tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be crossfertilized to produce s elf-fertile offspring. What is die best reason for considering N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be separate species?
A)
They are physiologically distinct
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B)
They are morphologically distinct
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clear
C)
They cannot interbreed in nature
done
clear
D)
They are reproductively distinct
done
clear
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question_answer198) Biosystematics aims at:
A)
the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies
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clear
B)
identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characterisitcs
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clear
C)
the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
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clear
D)
delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
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question_answer199) Bartholin's glands are situated:
A)
on either side of vagina in humans
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B)
on either side of vas deference in humans
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clear
C)
on the sides of the head of some amphibians
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clear
D)
at the reduced tail end of birds
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question_answer200) Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorised as:
A)
cellular immunity
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B)
innate non-specific immunity
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C)
active immunity
done
clear
D)
passive immunity
done
clear
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