Manipal Engineering Manipal Engineering Solved Paper-2013

  • question_answer
    If\[\mathbf{a}\cdot \mathbf{i}=\mathbf{a}\cdot (\mathbf{j}+\mathbf{i})=\mathbf{a}\cdot (\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{j}+\mathbf{k})\], then\[\mathbf{a}\]is equal to

    A) \[\mathbf{i}\]                                  

    B) \[\mathbf{k}\]

    C) \[\mathbf{j}\]                  

    D)        \[(\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{j}+\mathbf{k})\]

    Correct Answer: A

    Solution :

    Let\[\mathbf{a}=x\mathbf{i}+y\mathbf{j}+z\mathbf{k}\] then,\[\mathbf{a}\cdot \mathbf{i}=(x\mathbf{i}+y\mathbf{j}+z\mathbf{k})\cdot \mathbf{i}=x\] and\[\mathbf{a}\cdot (\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{j})=(x\mathbf{i}+y\mathbf{j}+z\mathbf{k})\cdot (\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{j})=x+y\] and\[\mathbf{a}\cdot (\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{j}+\mathbf{k})=(x\mathbf{i}+y\mathbf{j}+z\mathbf{k})\cdot (\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{j}+\mathbf{k})\]                 \[=x+y+z\] Given that\[\mathbf{a}\cdot \mathbf{i}=\mathbf{a}\cdot (\mathbf{j}+\mathbf{i})=\mathbf{a}\cdot (\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{j}+\mathbf{k})\] \[\because \]\[x=x+y=x+y+z\] Now,\[x=x+y\]                 \[y=0\] and\[x+y=x+y+z\]           \[\Rightarrow z=0\] Hence;      \[x=1\] \[\therefore \]  \[\mathbf{a}=i\]


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