Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2002

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2002 Total Questions - 225

1) The kinetic energy and potential energy of a re executing simple harmonic motion will be equal, when displacement (amplitude = a) is:

A)

\[a\sqrt{2}\]

B)

\[\frac{a}{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{a\sqrt{2}}{3}\]

D)

\[\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}\]

View Answer
2) When an aeroplane moves at a speed higher, than the velocity of sound in air, a loud bang is heard. This is because :

A)

it explodes

B)

it produces shock wave which is received as the bang

C)

its wings vibrate so violently that the bang is heard

D)

the normal engine noise undergoes a Doppler shift to generate the bang

View Answer
3) Two waves of the same frequency but of amplitudes in the ratio 1 : 3 are superimposed. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is:

A)

4 : 1

B)

1 : 4

C)

3 : 1

D)

1 : 3

View Answer
4) A vessel, whose bottom has round holes with diameter of 1 mm is filled with water. Assuming that surface tension acts only at holes, then the maximum height to which the water can be filled in vessel without leakage is: (Given, surface tension of water is \[75\times {{10}^{-3}}N/m\]and \[g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\])

A)

3 cm

B)

0.3 cm

C)

3 mm

D)

3 m

View Answer
5) The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is :

A)

zero

B)

constant less than zero

C)

directly proportional to distance from the centre

D)

none of the above

View Answer
6) If the distance between the plates of a parallel plate condenser of capacity 10\[\mu F\] is doubled, then new capacity will be :

A)

5 \[\mu F\]

B)

20\[\mu F\]

C)

10\[\mu F\]

D)

15\[\mu F\]

View Answer
7) In the fission of uranium, 0.5 g mass is decayed, then how much energy will be obtained by it?

A)

\[1.25\text{ }kWh\]

B)

\[1.25\times {{10}^{7}}kWh\]

C)

\[0.25\text{ }kWh\]

D)

\[1.25\times {{10}^{4}}kWh\]

View Answer
8) Photocells are used for the :

A)

reproduction of films from the cinema films

B)

reproduction of sound from the cinema films

C)

automatic switching of street light

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
9) Photoelectric effect can be explained by assuming that light:

A)

is a form of transverse wave

B)

is a form of longitudinal wave

C)

can be polarized

D)

consists of quanta

View Answer
10) The work function of a metal 2.8 eV. Its threshold wavelength will be :

A)

4400\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

B)

4433 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

C)

5434 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

D)

433 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

View Answer
11) The stopping potential depends on :

A)

intensity of incident light

B)

frequency of incident light

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

neither nor

View Answer
12) An oil drop of radius \[{{10}^{-6}}m\]carries charge equal to that of 3 electrons. If density of the oil is \[2\times {{10}^{3}}kg-{{m}^{3}},\] then electric field required to keep the drop stationary is:

A)

\[1.71\times {{10}^{5}}V{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[1.71\times {{10}^{3}}V{{m}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[1.71\times {{10}^{6}}V{{m}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[~1.71\text{ }V{{m}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
13) What is the acceleration of an electric field of magnitude \[50\text{ }V-c{{m}^{-1}}\]? [Given that\[\frac{e}{m}\] \[=\text{ }1.76\text{ }x\text{ }{{10}^{11}}C-k{{g}^{-1}}\]]

A)

\[8.8\times {{10}^{16}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[8.8\times {{10}^{14}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[8.8\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[8.8\times {{10}^{20}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
14) Light waves can be polarised because they :

A)

have high frequency

B)

have high wavelength

C)

are transverse

D)

can be reflected

View Answer
15) In which one of the following substances the resistance decreases with increase of temperature?

A)

Carbon

B)

Copper

C)

Silver

D)

Gold

View Answer
16) A heater coil rated at (1000W-200V) is connected to 110 V line. What will be the power consumed?

A)

200 W

B)

300 W

C)

250 W

D)

350 W

View Answer
17) An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as shown in figure. It carries a current of i ampere and the radius of the circular loop is r metre, then the magnetic induction at the centre of the circular part is :

A)

zero

B)

infinite

C)

\[\frac{2{{\mu }_{0}}i(\pi +1)}{4\pi r}\]

D)

\[\frac{2{{\mu }_{0}}i(\pi -1)}{4\pi r}\]

View Answer
18) Field inside a solenoid is :

A)

directly proportional to its length

B)

directly proportional to current

C)

inversely proportional to number of turns

D)

inversely proportional to current

View Answer
19) In the given figure there are two semicircles of radii r1 and r2 in which a current i is flowing. The magnetic induction at centre O will be :

A)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}i({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}{4}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}i({{r}_{1}}-{{r}_{2}})}{4}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}i({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}{4{{r}_{1}}{{r}_{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}i({{r}_{2}}-{{r}_{1}})}{4{{r}_{1}}{{r}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
20) When a magnet is heated :

A)

it loses its magnetism

B)

it gains magnetism

C)

neither loses nor gains magnetism

D)

none of the above

View Answer
21) At Curie point, a ferromagnetic materic becomes :

A)

non-magnetic

B)

diamagnetic

C)

paramagnetic

D)

strongly ferromagnetic

View Answer
22) A capacitor is perfectly insulator for :

A)

direct current

B)

alternating current

C)

direct as well as alternating current

D)

none of the above

View Answer
23) Alternating current is converted into direr current by :

A)

dynamo

B)

motor

C)

transformer

D)

rectifier

View Answer
24) The inductive reactance of an inductor in an AC circuit is :

A)

\[\frac{1}{\omega L}\]

B)

\[\frac{\omega }{L}\]

C)

\[\frac{L}{\omega }\]

D)

\[\omega L\]

View Answer
25) The average power dissipated in a pure inductor of inductance L is :

A)

\[\frac{L{{I}^{2}}}{2}\]

B)

\[L{{I}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{L{{I}^{2}}}{4}\]

D)

zero

View Answer
26) The electromagnetic waves travel with a velocity :

A)

equal to velocity of sound

B)

equal to velocity of light

C)

less than velocity of light

D)

none of the above

View Answer
27) Two sources of light (\[{{S}_{1}}\] and \[{{S}_{2}}\]) of wave ie r: jib 2500\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\] and 3500\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\] respectively are used in Youngs double slit experiment simultaneously Find out at which order of two wave trail pattern the fringes coincide.

A)

Fifth order fringe due to \[{{S}_{1}}\] will coincide with seventh order fringe due to \[{{S}_{2}}\]

B)

Fifth order fringe due to \[{{S}_{2}}\]will coincide with seventh order fringe due to

C)

Seventh order fringe due to \[{{S}_{1}}\] will coincide with sixth order fringe due to \[{{S}_{2}}\]

D)

Seventh order fringe due to \[{{S}_{2}}\] will coincide with sixth order fringe due to \[{{S}_{1}}\]

View Answer
28) Light travels faster in air, than in glass according to :

A)

wave theory of light

B)

corpuscular theory of light

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

neither nor

View Answer

29) Four independent waves are expressed as :

(i) \[{{y}_{1}}={{a}_{1}}\sin (\omega t)\]

(ii) \[{{y}_{2}}={{a}_{2}}\sin (2\omega t)\]

(iii) \[{{y}_{3}}={{a}_{3}}\cos (\omega t)\]

(iv)\[{{y}_{4}}={{a}_{4}}\sin (\omega t+\frac{\pi }{3})\]

The interference is possible between:

(i) and (iii)

(i) and (iv)

(iii) and (iv)

not possible at all

View Answer

30) When light waves suffer reflection at the interface between air and glass, the change of phase of the reflected wave is equal to :

A)

zero

B)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

C)

\[\pi \]

D)

2\[\pi \]

View Answer
31) The power of lens, a short sighted person uses is -2D. Find the maximum distance of an object, which he can see without spectacle.

A)

25 cm

B)

50 cm

C)

100 cm

D)

10 cm

View Answer
32) Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying a current i amperes each. The magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is :

A)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{i}^{2}}}{{{b}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{i}^{2}}}{2\pi b}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}i}{2\pi b}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{i}^{2}}}{2\pi {{b}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
33) The quantity of electricity that deposits 1 g equivalent of substance is called :

A)

farad

B)

faraday

C)

coulomb

D)

none of these

View Answer
34) Kirchhoffs first law, i.e., \[\sum i=0\] at a junction deals with conservation of:

A)

charges

B)

energy

C)

momentum

D)

angular momentum

View Answer
35) To observe diffraction, the size of an obstacle :

A)

should be of the same order as wavelength

B)

should be much larger than the wavelength

C)

have no relation with wavelength

D)

should be exactly

View Answer
36) In a Thomson setup, \[E=30V-c{{m}^{-1}}\]and B = 6 G. Then, speed of the electron that goes undeflected in the common region of the two fields will be :

A)

\[15\times {{10}^{6}}m/s\]

B)

\[25\times {{10}^{6}}m/s\]

C)

\[5\times {{10}^{6}}\text{ }m/s\]

D)

\[1\times {{10}^{6}}\text{ }m/s\]

View Answer
37) In a gas equation, for one mole of real gas\[\left( p+\frac{a}{{{V}^{2}}} \right)(V-b)=RT\], dimensions of constants a and b are :

A)

\[[{{L}^{2}}],[M{{L}^{4}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

B)

\[[L],[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

C)

\[[M{{L}^{5}}{{T}^{-2}}],[{{L}^{3}}]\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
38) The velocity time graph of moving object is given in the figure. Find the maximum acceleration of the body and distance travelled by the body in the interval of time in which this acceleration exists.

A)

\[6\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}},500\text{ }m\]

B)

\[3\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}},200m\]

C)

\[-6\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}},500m\]

D)

\[-3\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}},500m\]

View Answer
39) A cyclist riding at a speed of 9.8 m/s takes a turn around a circular road of radius 19.6 m. What is his inclination to the vertical?

A)

\[30{}^\circ \]

B)

\[45{}^\circ \]

C)

\[10.5{}^\circ \]

D)

\[26.5{}^\circ \]

View Answer
40) A man weighs 60 kg at earth surface. At what height above the earths surface weight becomes 30 kg? (Given, radius of earth is 6400 km.)

A)

2624 km

B)

3000 km

C)

2020 km

D)

none of these

View Answer
41) As we go from the equator to the poles the value of acceleration due to gravity :

A)

remains the same

B)

increases

C)

decreases

D)

decreases upto a latitude of 45° and then increases

View Answer
42) When torque acting upon a system is zero which of the following will be constant?

A)

Force

B)

Linear momentum

C)

Linear impulse

D)

None of the above

View Answer
43) If a gymnast sitting on a rotating stool with his arms outstretched, suddenly lowers his hands :

A)

the angular velocity decreases

B)

his moment of inertia decreases

C)

the angular velocity stays constant

D)

the angular momentum increases

View Answer
44) A force of 40 N is acting between two charges in air. If the space between them is filled with glass with \[{{\varepsilon }_{r}}=8\], what will be the force?

A)

15 N

B)

320 N

C)

5 N

D)

32 N

View Answer
45) Two glass plates having a little water in between cannot be easily separated because of:

A)

viscosity

B)

atmospheric pressure

C)

surface tension

D)

friction

View Answer
46) Good absorbers of heat are :

A)

poor emitters

B)

non-emitter

C)

good emitters

D)

highly polished

View Answer
47) The work done in increasing the temperature of 0.2 mole of nitrogen at constant pressure from \[37{}^\circ C\] to \[337{}^\circ C\] is : \[({{C}_{p}}=7cal/mol-{}^\circ C)\]

A)

1764 J

B)

1600 J

C)

160 J

D)

176 J

View Answer
48) A particle has displacement y given by y = 3 \[\sin (r\pi t+\pi )\], where y is in metre and t in second. What are frequency and period of motion?

A)

0.4 Hz, 2.5 s

B)

2.5 Hz, 0.4 s

C)

2.5 Hz, 2.5 s

D)

0.4 Hz, 0.4 s

View Answer
49) A spring having a spring constant k is loaded with a mass m. The spring is cut into two parts and one of them is loaded again with same mass. The new constant is :

A)

\[\frac{k}{2}\]

B)

k

C)

2k

D)

k2

View Answer
50) In a sonometer wire, the produced waves an

A)

longitudinal

B)

transverse, stationary and unpolarizec

C)

transverse, stationary and polarized

D)

transverse, progressive and polarized

View Answer
51) Beats are the result of:

A)

diffraction

B)

destructive interference

C)

constructive and destructive interferer.:*

D)

superposition of two waves of nearly frequencies

View Answer
52) An electron is sent in electric field of intensity \[9.1\times {{10}^{6}}N/C.\] The acceleration produce:

A)

\[1.6\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{18}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[3.2\times {{10}^{18}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[0.8\times {{10}^{18}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
53) The empty space between the plates capacitor is filled by a liquid of constant K. The capacitance of capacitor:

A)

increases by a factor \[{{K}^{2}}\]

B)

increases by a factor K

C)

decreases by a-factor \[{{K}^{2}}\]

D)

decreases by a factor K

View Answer
54) What is the resistance between the X and Y of the circuit in the figure ? that the resistance of each resistor 25\[\Omega \] .

A)

100 \[\Omega \]

B)

50\[\Omega \]

C)

25 \[\Omega \]

D)

75\[\Omega \]

View Answer
55) At what temperature is rms : molecules double of that at NTP

A)

\[819{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[719{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[909{}^\circ C\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
56) The dimensions of the quantities in one of the following pairs are the same. Identify the pairs.

A)

Torque and work

B)

Angular momentum and work

C)

Energy and Youngs modulus

D)

Light year and time

View Answer
57) Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by \[x=3t-4{{t}^{2}}+{{t}^{3}},\] where x is in metre and t in seconds. Find the average velocity of the particle in the time interval from t = 2 s to 4 s.

A)

7 m/s

B)

9 m/s

C)

13 m/s

D)

none of these

View Answer
58) Velocity is :

A)

scalar

B)

vector

C)

neither scalar nor vector

D)

both scalar and vector

View Answer
59) You are on a frictionless horizontal plane. How can you get off, if no horizontal force is exerted by pushing against the surface?

A)

By jumping

B)

By spitting or sneezing

C)

By rolling your body on the surface

D)

By running on the plane

View Answer
60) At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the directions of its velocity and acceleration are :

A)

perpendicular to each other

B)

parallel to each other

C)

inclined to each other at an angle of 45°

D)

antiparallel to each other

View Answer
61) A car moving at 30 m/s slows uniformly to a speed of 10 m/s in a time of 5 s. Determine the distance moved in the third second.

A)

10 m

B)

20 m

C)

40 m

D)

5m

View Answer
62) The Poiseuille is the unit of:

A)

pressure

B)

friction

C)

surface tension

D)

viscosity

View Answer
63) If the radius of the earth contracts to half of its present day value without change in mass, what will be the length of the day?

A)

24 h

B)

48 h

C)

6 h

D)

12 h

View Answer
64) The gravitational force with which the earth attracts the moon :

A)

is less than the force with which the moon attracts the earth

B)

is equal to the force with which the moon attracts the earth

C)

is twice than the force with which the moon attracts the earth

D)

varies with the phases of moon

View Answer
65) A 2.5 kg mass moving at a speed of 15 m/s collides with 5 kg object initially at rest. They stick together. Find the velocity of the combination after the collision.

A)

15 m/s

B)

5 m/s

C)

20 m/s

D)

none of these

View Answer
66) A geostationary satellite :

A)

revolve about the polar axis

B)

has a time period less than that of the near earth satellite

C)

moves faster than a near earth satellite

D)

is stationary in the space

View Answer
67) What will be the angle of contact of a liquid relative to a solid, if forces of adhesion and cohesion are equal?

A)

\[0{}^\circ \]

B)

\[30{}^\circ \]

C)

\[90{}^\circ \]

D)

none of these

View Answer
68) The electric charge in uniform motion produces:

A)

an electric field only

B)

a magnetic field only

C)

both electric and magnetic fields

D)

neither electric nor magnetic field

View Answer
69) A copper disc with a central hole is heated. The diameter of the hole :

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

first decreases then increases

D)

remains unchanged

View Answer
70) For motion of a simple pendulum to be simple harmonic :

A)

amplitude of motion will be very small

B)

amplitude of motion will be very large

C)

independent of amplitude of motion

D)

none of the above

View Answer
71) The given truth table is of:

A X

0 1

1 0

A)

OR gate

B)

AND gate

C)

NOT gate

D)

none of these

View Answer
72) For a transistor a              = 0.9, the value of p is:

A)

1

B)

0.09

C)

0.9

D)

9

View Answer
73) The p-n junction diode   works a insulator, if connected :

A)

to AC

B)

in forward bias

C)

in reverse bias

D)

none of the above

View Answer
74) When arsenic is added as an impurity to silicon the resulting material is :

A)

n-type conductor

B)

n-type semiconductor

C)

p-type conductor

D)

p-type semiconductor

View Answer
75) Which of the following is not an amorphous substance?

A)

Glass

B)

Polymers

C)

Copper

D)

Rubber

View Answer
76) The radiation with maximum penetration power is:

A)

\[\alpha -\]rays

B)

\[\beta -\]rays

C)

\[\gamma -\]rays

D)

cathode rays

View Answer
77) \[{{N}_{2}}\]and CO are:

A)

isomers

B)

isoelectronic

C)

isotopes

D)

isobars

View Answer
78) Which of the following is the strongest Lewis acid?

A)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

B)

\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[BB{{r}_{3}}\]

D)

\[B{{I}_{3}}\]

View Answer
79) Which of the following is diamagnetic?

A)

\[{{[Mn{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[{{[Cu{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

D)

\[{{[Co{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
80) Non-Ianthanide element is:

A)

\[La\]

B)

\[Lu\]

C)

\[Pr\]

D)

\[Pm\]

View Answer
81) Which of the following is a Lewis base?

A)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

B)

\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[Al{{(OH)}_{3}}\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
82) In which of the solutions containing following solutes, its normality is equal to its molarity?

A)

Boric acid

B)

Sodium carbonate

C)

Sulphuric acid

D)

Phosphoric acid

View Answer
83) Enthalpy of\[N{{H}_{3}}\]is\[-\,46\text{ }kJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}},\text{ }\Delta H\]for the reaction:\[2N{{H}_{3}}(g)\to {{N}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}(g)\]is:

A)

46 kJ

B)

92 kJ

C)

\[-\,92\text{ }kJ\]

D)

\[-\,23\text{ }kJ\]

View Answer
84) Which one of the following in presence of sunlight will react with chlorine to give benzyl chloride?

A)

Benzene

B)

Toluene

C)

Benzoicacid

D)

None of these

View Answer
85) Which of the following is formed when pent-1-ene reacts with\[HCl\]?

A)

3-chloropentane

B)

2-chloropentane

C)

1,2-dichloropentane

D)

1-chloropentane

View Answer
86) The reaction of formaldehyde with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis yields:

A)

a primary alcohol

B)

a secondary alcohol

C)

a tertiary alcohol

D)

a phenol

View Answer
87) Which is the correct order of decreasing strength?

A)

\[ClC{{H}_{2}}COOH>C{{H}_{3}}COOH>HCOOH>\]\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

B)

\[ClC{{H}_{2}}COOH>HCOOH>C{{H}_{3}}COOH>\]\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

C)

\[ClC{{H}_{2}}COOH>HCOOH>{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH>\]\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

D)

\[ClC{{H}_{2}}COOH>C{{H}_{3}}COOH>{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH>\]\[HCOOH\]

View Answer
88) Which of the following is the strongest base?

A)

Methylamine

B)

Ammonia

C)

Dimethylamine

D)

Triethyl amine

View Answer
89) Which of the following does not react with ammoniacal\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]but decolourises bromine water?

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{8}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
90) The general molecular formula for a cycloalkyl group is:

A)

\[{{C}_{n}}{{H}_{2n+1}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{n}}{{H}_{2n-1}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{n}}{{H}_{2n}}\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
91) Which of the following is the true value of the gas constant R in joule/degree/mol?

A)

8.314

B)

\[6.023\times {{10}^{23}}\]

C)

\[8.314\times {{10}^{7}}\]

D)

6.023

View Answer
92) Which of the following hybridization corresponds to trigonal bipyramidal geometry?

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{2}}\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{2}}d\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}d\]

View Answer
93) Which of the following ligands can yield linkage isomerism?

A)

\[{{[C{{O}_{3}}]}^{2-}}\]

B)

\[{{[N{{O}_{3}}]}^{-}}\]

C)

\[{{[S{{O}_{3}}]}^{2-}}\]

D)

\[{{[SCN]}^{-}}\]

View Answer
94) \[r=k[C][D]\]for the reaction\[C+D\to \]products. If D is taken in excess, the order of reaction would be:

A)

1

B)

0

C)

2

D)

unpredictable

View Answer
95) The rate constant of a first order reaction, where half-life is 8 min, is:

A)

\[1.44{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[0.72\times {{10}^{-3}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[1.44\times {{10}^{-3}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[2.88\times {{10}^{-3}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
96) Choose the false statement from the following:

A)

The order and the molecularity of an elementary reaction are equal

B)

The rate constant of a reaction varies with temperature

C)

The order of a reaction is a theoretical concept

D)

The hydrolysis of an ester in basic medium is second order reaction

View Answer
97) Which of the following is not an ideal solution?

A)

\[CC{{l}_{4}}\]and\[SiC{{l}_{4}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]and \[{{C}_{4}}{{H}_{9}}OH\]

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Br\]and\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}I\]

D)

n-hexane and n-heptane

View Answer
98) At a given temperature isotonic solutions have the same:

A)

density

B)

volume

C)

normality

D)

molar concentration

View Answer
99) On denaturation of protein:

A)

its primary structure changes

B)

its secondary/tertiary structure changes

C)

hydrolysis takes place

D)

none of the above happen

View Answer
100) The reaction of chloroform with ethylamine in alcoholic alkali gives:

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}CN\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Cl\]

C)

\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{7}}Cl\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}NC\]

View Answer
101) Butanenitrile is prepared by heating:

A)

propyl alcohol with KCN

B)

butyl alcohol with KCN

C)

butyl chloride with KCN

D)

propyl chloride with KCN

View Answer
102) Which one of the following is produced by reduction of RCN in sodium ethanol?

A)

\[RCON{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[RCOON{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

\[RC{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{(RC{{H}_{2}})}_{3}}N\]

View Answer
103) Which one of the following on reaction with excess of\[MeMgI\]would give a tertiary alcohol?

A)

Methyl acetate

B)

Benzaldehyde

C)

Ethyl formate

D)

None of the above

View Answer
104) Weight-of 4 L of\[{{N}_{2}}\]gas at NTP is:

A)

56 g

B)

2.5 g

C)

5 g

D)

28 g

View Answer
105) Purification of the muddy water by alum takes place through:

A)

dialysis

B)

electrophoresis

C)

coagulation

D)

filtration

View Answer
106) A colloidal system in which a liquid is dispersed in a liquid is called:

A)

precipitate

B)

emulsion

C)

gel

D)

sol

View Answer
107) Electrophoresis is the movement of colloidal particles under the effect of:

A)

light

B)

gravity

C)

magnetic field

D)

electric field

View Answer
108) IUPAC name of\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CH(C{{H}_{3}})COC{{H}_{3}}\]is:

A)

isohexanone

B)

heptanone

C)

hexanone-5

D)

3-methylhexanone-2

View Answer
109) Which one of the following has an aromatic character?

A)

Cyclopentadiene

B)

Cycloheptatrienylium cation

C)

Cyclopropyne

D)

Cycloheptatrienyl anion

View Answer
110) In the presence of Lewis acid toluene reacts with chlorine to give:

A)

m-chlorotoluene

B)

o/p-chlorotoluene

C)

benzylchloride

D)

none of the above

View Answer
111) But-2-ene could exist as:

A)

E and Z isomers

B)

R and S isomers

C)

geometrical isomers

D)

only one compound

View Answer
112) Which of the following on addition of water in presence of acid gives a ketone?

A)

Propene

B)

Butene-2

C)

Propyne

D)

None of these

View Answer
113) Phenol on treatment with bromine water in the absence of a Lewis acid gives:

A)

o/p-bromophenol

B)

m-bromophenol

C)

tribromophenol

D)

none of the above

View Answer
114) Which of the following on oxidation with\[Cr{{O}_{3}}\]would give a product that would give iodoform test?

A)

Butanol-2

B)

Methanol

C)

t-butanol

D)

None of these

View Answer
115) The reaction of chloroform and sodium hydroxide with phenol to form salicylaldehyde is called:

A)

aldol condensation

B)

Cannizaro reaction

C)

Claisen reaction

D)

Reimer-Tiemann reaction

View Answer
116) Which one of the following can be converted to\[C{{H}_{3}}CH=CHCHO\]?

A)

Acetone

B)

Acetaldehyde

C)

Propanaldehyde

D)

Formaldehyde

View Answer
117) Phenylethyl ether when boiled with concentrated\[HBr\]gives:

A)

phenol and ethyl bromide

B)

p-bromophenol and ethyl bromide

C)

p-bromophenylethyl ether

D)

none of the above

View Answer
118) Which of the following non-metal possesses the atomicity half that of sulphur?

A)

Nitrogen

B)

Oxygen

C)

Phosphorus

D)

Arsenic

View Answer
119) Which of the following has maximum unpaired electrons?

A)

Scandium

B)

Chromium

C)

Manganese

D)

Iron

View Answer
120) Which of the following compounds is square planar and does not have any unpaired electron?

A)

\[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}\]

B)

\[{{[Ni{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[{{[NiC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

D)

\[{{[Ni{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

View Answer
121) Which is insoluble in water?

A)

Sodium carbonate

B)

Sodium bicarbonate

C)

Calcium carbonate

D)

Calcium bicarbonate

View Answer
122) Which of the following is magnetite?

A)

\[FeC{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[F{{e}_{3}}{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}.3{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
123) Which of the following is the smallest anion?

A)

\[{{O}^{2-}}\]

B)

\[{{S}^{2-}}\]

C)

\[C{{l}^{-}}\]

D)

\[B{{r}^{-}}\]

View Answer
124) In which of the following compounds manganese has oxidation number equal to that of iodine in\[KI{{O}_{4}}\]?

A)

Potassium manganite

B)

Potassium permanganate

C)

Manganous chloride

D)

Manganese chloride

View Answer
125) Which of the following compounds is expected to yield a white precipitate with \[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]solution?

A)

\[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]

B)

\[CC{{l}_{4}}\]

C)

\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}C{{l}_{3}}]\]

D)

\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}C{{l}_{2}}]Cl\]

View Answer
126) How much\[FeS{{O}_{4}}.7{{H}_{2}}O\]will be oxidised by an acidified solution containing\[9.48\text{ }g\text{ }KMn{{O}_{4}}\]?

A)

83.4 g

B)

16.7 g

C)

1.67 g

D)

8.3 g

View Answer
127) The oxidation number of sulphur is\[-1\]in:

A)

\[FeS\]

B)

\[Fe{{S}_{2}}\]

C)

\[NaO-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ ONa \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} O \\ || \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{S}}}\,=O\]

D)

\[\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ ONa \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} O \\ || \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{S}}}\,-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} O \\ || \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{S}}\,-ONa\]

View Answer
128) The extraction of metal from ore is called:

A)

refining

B)

metallurgy

C)

leaching

D)

bleaching

View Answer
129) Calculate\[{{t}_{1/2}}\]for a radioactive species having \[A=2.09\times {{10}^{-4}}mi{{n}^{-1}}\]:

A)

23 days

B)

230 days

C)

0.23 days

D)

2.3 days

View Answer
130) Which of the following represents Zeises salt?

A)

\[{{K}_{2}}[PtC{{l}_{4}}({{\eta }^{2}}-{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}})]\]

B)

\[K[PtC{{l}_{4}}{{({{\eta }^{2}}-{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}})}_{2}}]\]

C)

\[K[PtC{{l}_{3}}({{\eta }^{2}}-{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}})]\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}[PtC{{l}_{4}}{{({{\eta }^{2}}-{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}})}_{2}}]\]

View Answer
131) Which of the following atomic models involve the concept of stationary orbitals?

A)

Bohrs model

B)

Thomson model

C)

Rutherford model

D)

Wave model

View Answer
132) How much\[N{{a}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}-5{{H}_{2}}O\]is required for making 100 mL of its 0.5 N solution?

A)

12.4 g

B)

6.2.g

C)

124 g

D)

62 g

View Answer
133) Which of the following compounds has colour but no unpaired electrons?

A)

\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[{{K}_{2}}Mn{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[MnS{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[MnC{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
134) Which of the following is metaphosphoric acid?

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}{{P}_{3}}{{O}_{9}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{5}}{{P}_{3}}{{O}_{10}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{9}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
135) Which of the following has lowest thermal stability and maximum acid strength?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}Se\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}Te\]

View Answer
136) Which of the following molecules have unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals?

A)

\[{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{B}_{2}}\]

View Answer
137) In which of the following lanthanides, oxidation state +2 is most stable?

A)

\[Ce\]

B)

\[Eu\]

C)

\[Tb\]

D)

\[Dy\]

View Answer
138) The species containing shortest\[OO\]bond length is:

A)

\[{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[O_{2}^{-}\]

C)

\[O_{2}^{2-}\]

D)

\[O_{2}^{+}\]

View Answer
139) In the reaction\[{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{N}_{2}}(g)2NO(g);\]\[\Delta H=80kJ\]. The decomposition of NO is favoured by:

A)

increasing concentration of\[{{N}_{2}}\]

B)

increase in pressure

C)

increase in temperature

D)

decrease in temperature

View Answer
140) If\[[{{H}^{+}}]\]of a solution of\[pH=6\]is decreased to 100 times, the solution will be:

A)

more acidic

B)

basic

C)

neutral

D)

of the same pH

View Answer
141) Which of the following species is amphoteric in nature?

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}\]

B)

\[HSO_{3}^{-}\]

C)

\[SO_{3}^{2-}\]

D)

\[SO_{4}^{2-}\]

View Answer
142) Which of the following salts has value of the vant Hoffs factor equal to that of \[{{K}_{3}}[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]?

A)

\[A{{l}_{2}}{{(S{{O}_{4}})}_{3}}\]

B)

\[NaCl\]

C)

\[Al{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{3}}\]

D)

\[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
143) The factor which does not affect the heat of reaction is:

A)

physical state of the reactants and products

B)

temperature of the reaction

C)

whether the reaction is carried out in an open vessel or a closed vessel

D)

whether the reaction is carried out directly or indirectly

View Answer
144) Which of the following is a disproportionation reaction?

A)

\[2C{{u}^{+}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}C{{u}^{2+}}+Cu\]

B)

\[Cu\xrightarrow[{}]{-e}C{{u}^{+}}\]

C)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\xrightarrow[{}]{+2e}C{{l}^{-}}\]

D)

\[2Mg+{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}2MgO\]

View Answer
145) For the process\[{{H}_{2}}O(l){{H}_{2}}O(g)\]at\[{{100}^{o}}C,\] atm pressure:

A)

\[\Delta H=T\Delta S\]

B)

\[\Delta H=0\]

C)

\[\Delta H=\Delta E\]

D)

\[\Delta E=0\]

View Answer
146) A tightly closed dessicator in action is an example of:

A)

open system

B)

isolated system

C)

closed system

D)

none of these

View Answer
147) Which of the following metals can displace any of the remaining three from their respective salt solution?

A)

Ag

B)

Cu

C)

Zn

D)

Fe

View Answer
148) On electrolysis of dilute\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]using platinum electrodes, the gas evolved at the anode is:

A)

\[{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[S{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
149) Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?

A)

\[HCN\]

B)

\[Ca{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{4}}OH\]

View Answer
150) The electrolysis of\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]deposits 22.5 g of the metal. The number of Faradays passed must be:

A)

1.0

B)

1.5

C)

2.0

D)

2.5

View Answer
151) Cellulose is :

A)

hexose polysaccharide

B)

heptose polysaccharide

C)

hetero polysaccharide

D)

pentosan polysaccharide

View Answer
152) Purines in RNA are :

A)

adenine and guanine

B)

thiamine and cytosine

C)

thymine and uracil

D)

uracil and cytosine

View Answer
153) The model of DNA was proposed by :

A)

Watson and Crick

B)

Roebert Hooke

C)

Schleiden and Schwann

D)

None of the above

View Answer
154) DNA and RNA are different molecules as :

A)

DNA has cytosine and RNA has guanine

B)

DNA has uracil and RNA has thiamine

C)

DNA is a micromolecule and RNA is a macromolecule

D)

DNA has thymine and RNA has uracil

View Answer
155) A nucleoside differs from nucleotide in not having the :

A)

sugar

B)

nitrogen base

C)

glucose

D)

phosphate group

View Answer
156) Nucleic acid can be fragmented by the enzyme:

A)

polymerases

B)

nucleases

C)

proteases

D)

ligases

View Answer
157) Prokaryotic cells occur in :

A)

PPLO

B)

bacteria

C)

cyanobacteria

D)

all of these

View Answer
158) Prokaryotic ribosomes are:

A)

30S

B)

50S

C)

70S

D)

80S

View Answer
159) Flagella with single strand and composed of flagellin is found in:

A)

prokaryotes

B)

eukaryotes

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of the above

View Answer
160) Animal cell differs from plant cells in not having the :

A)

Cell wall

B)

plastids

C)

glyoxysomes

D)

all of these

View Answer
161) Which one of the following is absent from the plant cell?

A)

Cell wall

B)

Dictyosomes

C)

Centrioles

D)

Plastids

View Answer
162) Mitochondria and chloroplast are regarded : endosymbionts because :

A)

they do not have de-novo origin

B)

they both possess nucleic acids

C)

their membranes are like those : prokaryotes

D)

all of the above

View Answer
163) The Ipomea batatas (sweet potato) is :

A)

underground root

B)

underground stem

C)

modified leaf

D)

modified phylloclade

View Answer
164) Phylloclades are :

A)

modified succulent stems

B)

modified succulent leaves

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of the above

View Answer
165) Cork cambium is :

A)

apical meristem

B)

lateral meristem

C)

promeristem

D)

intercalary meristem

View Answer
166) Vessels and fibres are found in :

A)

xylem of angiosperms

B)

xylem of gymnosperms

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of the above

View Answer
167) Conducting part of phloem according to Haberlandt (1914) is :

A)

hadrom

B)

leptom

C)

sterom

D)

bark

View Answer
168) Secondary xylem is :

A)

wood

B)

bark

C)

cork

D)

best

View Answer
169) Callus is :

A)

material used for healing of injuries in phloem

B)

an undifferentiated mass of cells

C)

secondary tissue developed by woody plants over a wound

D)

all of the above

View Answer
170) The most widely accepted theory of ascent of sap is :

A)

capillarity

B)

pulsatory movement of living tissue

C)

role of atmospheric pressure

D)

transpiration pull and cohesion theory

View Answer
171) Which of the following is most important factor in regulation of transpiration?

A)

Humidity

B)

Light

C)

Temperature

D)

Wind

View Answer
172) Which is true for fully turgid cell?

A)

OP = 0

B)

DPD      = 0

C)

OP = DPD

D)

TP =      0

View Answer
173) Salt respiration is :

A)

secretion of salt through respiratory channels

B)

decrease in respiration during salt absorption

C)

active increase in respiration during mineral absorption

D)

linking of ion movement with respiratory chain

View Answer
174) Bending of tentacles of Drosera over the insects is :

A)

thigmonasty

B)

thigmotropism

C)

chemotropism

D)

phototropism

View Answer
175) First natural cytokinin, zeatin was discovered by:

A)

Letham

B)

Skoog and Miller

C)

Bensen

D)

Thinman and Went

View Answer
176) First transitory chemical formed by reaction between \[C{{O}_{2}}\]and RuBP is :

A)

PGAL/GAP

B)

2 carboxy, 3 keto, 1-5 phosphoribotol

C)

PGA

D)

dihydroxy acetone phosphate

View Answer
177) The zygospore in Rhizopus develops into :

A)

zygospore

B)

progametangium

C)

promycelium

D)

gametangium

View Answer
178) Cell wall of Chlamydomonas contains :

A)

cellulose

B)

glycoproteins

C)

protein

D)

hemicelluloses

View Answer
179) The rhizoids of Funaria are :

A)

Green branched thread like structures

B)

unbranched root

C)

branched and multicellular with oblique septa

D)

unicellular growth structure

View Answer
180) In Dryopteria:

A)

sporophyte is independent

B)

gametophyte is independent

C)

both sporophyte and gametophyte are dependent

D)

sporophyte is dependent upon gametophyte for its nutrition

View Answer
181) Seed of Pinus possesses:

A)

parent sporophyte as seed coat, perisperm etc.

B)

gametophyte like endosperm

C)

future sporophyte like embryo

D)

all of the above

View Answer
182) A flower which can be divided into two equal parts by only one plane is :

A)

actinomorphic

B)

zygomorphic

C)

regular

D)

perfect

View Answer
183) Inflorescence with universal sessile flower is :

A)

spike

B)

spikelet

C)

catkin

D)

spadix

View Answer
184) Contrivances for self-pollination are :

A)

bisexuality

B)

homogamy

C)

cleistogamy

D)

all of these

View Answer
185) Berries, drupes and pomes are :

A)

simple dry fruits

B)

simple succulent fruits

C)

aggregate fruits

D)

composite fruits

View Answer
186) Explants are :

A)

exploited part of a plant

B)

a small part grown for tissue culture

C)

uprooted plant part for transpiration

D)

a plant collected after harvest

View Answer
187) Nitrogen fixers in Azolla are :

A)

Nostoc

B)

Anabaena

C)

Aulosira

D)

Azospirillum

View Answer
188) Bio fertilizers include :

A)

nitrogen fixing bacteria

B)

nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria

C)

mycorrhiza

D)

all of the above

View Answer
189) The full form of IPGRI is :

A)

Indian Plant Genetic Resource Institute

B)

International Plant Genetic        Resource Institute

C)

International     Potato Genetic                Resource Institute

D)

International Pine Genetic          Resource Institute

View Answer
190) Recombination of genes occur at:

A)

prophase in mitosis

B)

prophase-I in meiosis

C)

prophase-II in meiosis

D)

metaphase-H in meiosis

View Answer
191) Polydactyly in man is due to :

A)

autosomal dominant gene

B)

autosomal recessive gene

C)

sex-linked dominant gene

D)

sex-linked recessive gene

View Answer
192) Variation in character are brought about by :

A)

duplication of chromosomes during mitosis

B)

mutations

C)

crossing over during meiosis

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
193) At which stage of the meiosis, the bivalents are formed?

A)

Leptotene

B)

Pachytene

C)

Zygotene

D)

Diplotene

View Answer
194) Mutation at the chromosomal level, with an addition of individual chromosome is referred to as:

A)

polyploidy

B)

polysomy

C)

structural mutation

D)

point mutation

View Answer
195) A sequence of three bases code along the DNA molecule is called :

A)

genetic code

B)

gene pool

C)

genetic drift

D)

genome

View Answer
196) Endocrine glands :

A)

do not posses ducts

B)

sometimes do not have ducts

C)

pour their secretion into blood through ducts

D)

always have ducts

View Answer
197) Serum is :

A)

plasma

B)

plasma minus fibrinogen

C)

plasma minus \[C{{a}^{+}}\] ions

D)

plasma minus gamma globulins

View Answer
198) Which of the following process does not take place when glucose is eaten?

A)

Digestion

B)

Ingestion

C)

Assimilation

D)

Absorption

View Answer
199) The intestine and stomach in mammals are lined by :

A)

cuboidal epithelium

B)

columnar epithelium

C)

squamous epithelium

D)

stratified epithelium

View Answer
200) Uric acid is formed in human from :

A)

purines

B)

proteins

C)

glucose

D)

pyrimidines

View Answer
201) The delicious food generally makes mouir watery. It is due to :

A)

hormonal response

B)

neural response

C)

olfactory response

D)

optic response

View Answer
202) Night blindness is a deficiency disease due : vitamin :

A)

A

B)

\[{{B}_{12}}\]

C)

C

D)

K

View Answer
203) Ligaments :

A)

bind one organ to another

B)

attach muscles to bone

C)

attach bone to bone

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
204) The thinnest skin is present on the :

A)

eyelids

B)

soles of feet

C)

back of the hand

D)

forehead

View Answer
205) Mammary glared is enlarged and modified :

A)

sweat glands

B)

sebaceous tissue

C)

adipose tissue

D)

hair bulb

View Answer
206) Bile is secreted by :

A)

liver

B)

gall bladder

C)

pancreas

D)

duodenal wall

View Answer
207) What distinguishes an insect from crustacean?

A)

Number of eyes

B)

Arrangement of nerve cords

C)

Number of appendages

D)

Presence of wings

View Answer
208) The joint of the hip and shoulders are called :

A)

hinge joint

B)

ball and socket joint

C)

pivot joint

D)

ellipsoid joint

View Answer
209) The nature of exoskeleton in echinoderms is :

A)

calcareous

B)

chitinous

C)

siliceous

D)

tunicin

View Answer
210) Which of the following takes food but has no alimentary canal ?

A)

Ascaris

B)

leech

C)

Taenia

D)

liver fluke

View Answer
211) Salamander is :

A)

Mollusca

B)

Annelida

C)

Bird

D)

Amphibian

View Answer
212) Which of the following respires by gills?

A)

Prawn

B)

Frog

C)

Crocodile

D)

Whale

View Answer
213) The dinosaurs were maximum during the period of:

A)

Jurassic

B)

Triassic

C)

Cretaceous

D)

Palaeocene

View Answer
214) The gas that killed large number of people in Bhopal included :

A)

phosgene

B)

methyl isocyanide

C)

DDT

D)

none of the above

View Answer
215) Haemophilia is :

A)

sex-linked disease

B)

autosomal disease

C)

bacterial disease

D)

viral disease

View Answer
216) Polio causes :

A)

measles

B)

paralysis

C)

mumps

D)

malaria

View Answer
217) Causative agent of tuberculosis (TB) is :

A)

Salmonella

B)

Pneumococcus

C)

Mycobacterium

D)

Streptococcus

View Answer
218) The universal donor is :

A)

blood group A

B)

blood group B

C)

blood group AB

D)

blood group O

View Answer
219) The Rh factor is concerned with :

A)

monkey

B)

gorilla

C)

apes

D)

pig

View Answer
220) Body cavity lined by mesoderm is :

A)

coelom

B)

coelenterons

C)

blastocoel

D)

all of these

View Answer
221) Charles Darwins evolutionary theory is :

A)

theory of inheritance of acquired characters

B)

mutation theory

C)

theory of natural selection

D)

use and disuse theory

View Answer
222) Fossil evidences of evolution are called :

A)

embryology

B)

anatomy

C)

paleontology

D)

biogeography

View Answer
223) The origin of species from pre-existing species is:

A)

isolation

B)

speciation

C)

polyploidy

D)

mutation

View Answer
224) Wax is obtained from :

A)

jojoba

B)

guayie

C)

leucaena

D)

subabul

View Answer
225) Chitin is found in :

A)

Mollusca

B)

Arthropoda

C)

Echinodermata

D)

Coelenterata

View Answer

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Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2002

done J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2002 Total Questions - 225

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J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2002 Total Questions - 225