question_answer 1) A ray of light is incident at an angle of, incidence \[60{}^\circ \] from air to liquid. What is the 1 ratio of width from air to liquid if angle of refraction is\[45{}^\circ \]?
A)
\[\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\]
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C)
\[\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]
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E)
\[\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\]
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question_answer 2) The nature of path of an electron when its moves in transverse electric field is
A)
circle
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B)
ellipse
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C)
parabola
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D)
hyperbola
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E)
straight line
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question_answer 3) In photoelectric emission, one photon is capable of emitting
A)
one electron
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B)
two electrons
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C)
more electrons
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D)
Both (a) and (b)
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 4) Identify the incorrect relation.
A)
\[\alpha =\frac{\beta }{1-\beta }\]
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B)
\[\beta =\frac{\alpha }{1-\alpha }\]
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C)
\[\alpha =\frac{\beta }{1+\beta }\]
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D)
\[1-\alpha =\frac{1}{1+\beta }\]
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E)
\[\beta =\alpha (1+\beta )\]
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question_answer 5) The depletion layer in p - n junction region is caused by
A)
drift of electrons
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B)
migration of impurity ions
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C)
drift of holes
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D)
diffusion of charge carriers
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 6) Dimensional formula for entropy is identical to that of
A)
universal gas constant
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B)
specific heat
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C)
Boltzmann constant
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D)
gravitational potential
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 7) If the velocity of projection is increased by 1% (other things remaining constant), the horizontal range will increase by
A)
1 %
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B)
2 %
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C)
4 %
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D)
8 %
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E)
10 %
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question_answer 8) A mass m is placed on an inclined plane. If the mass is in equilibrium, the maximum inclination of the plane with the horizontal would be: (where \[\mu \] is the coefficient of friction between the mass and surface)
A)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \mu \right)\]
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B)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{\mu }{2} \right)\]
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C)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{\mu }{m} \right)\]
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D)
\[{{\cos }^{-1}}\left( \mu \right)\]
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E)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{m}{\mu } \right)\]
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question_answer 9) Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV successively illuminate a metal of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons will be
A)
1 : 5
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B)
1 : 4
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C)
1 : 2
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D)
1 : 1
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E)
2 : 1
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question_answer 10) The half - life of a radioactive element depends upon
A)
temperature
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B)
pressure
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C)
nature of element
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D)
amount of radioactive element
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 11) The gravitational field in a region is given by\[I=\left( 4\widehat{i}+\widehat{j} \right)\]N/kg. The work done by this field is zero when a particle is moved along the line
A)
\[~x+y=6\]
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B)
\[x+4y=6\]
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C)
\[y+4x=6\]
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D)
\[x-y=6\]
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E)
\[x+y=8\]
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question_answer 12) A satellite with kinetic energy E revolving round the earth in a circular orbit. The minimum additional KE required for it to escape into outer space is
A)
\[\sqrt{2}E\]
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B)
2 E
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C)
\[E/\sqrt{2}\]
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D)
E
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E)
\[\frac{E}{2}\]
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question_answer 13) The magnitude of the force developed by raising the temperature from \[0{}^\circ C\] to \[100{}^\circ C\] of the iron bar 1.0 m long and \[1c{{m}^{2}}\]cross-section, when it is held so that it is not permitted to expand or bend is \[\left( \alpha ={{10}^{5}}{{/}^{0}}C,Y={{10}^{11}}N/{{m}^{2}} \right)\]
A)
\[{{10}^{3}}N\]
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B)
\[{{10}^{4}}N\]
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C)
\[{{10}^{5}}N\]
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D)
\[{{10}^{9}}N\]
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E)
\[{{10}^{2}}N\]
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question_answer 14) The alpha and beta particles cause ionization because of
A)
photoelectric emission
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B)
compton collision
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C)
pair production
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D)
the electrostatic force
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 15) Which one of the following is the weakest kind of bonding in solids?
A)
Ionic
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B)
Metallic
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C)
vander Waals
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D)
Covalent
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 16) A wave travelling along a stretched string is represented by y= 3 cos\[\pi \](100 t - x). Its wavelength is
A)
3 cm
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B)
100 cm
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C)
2 cm
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D)
5 cm
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E)
8 cm
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question_answer 17) A disc of mass 10 g is kept horizontally in air by firing bullets of mass 5 g each at the rate of 10 per second. If the bullets rebound with the same the same speed, what is the velocity with which the bullets are fired?
A)
49 cm/s
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B)
98 cm/s
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C)
147 cm/s
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D)
196 cm/s
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E)
208 cm/s
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question_answer 18) Frequency of the series limit of Balmer series of hydrogen atom in term of Rydberg constant R and velocity of light c is
A)
\[\frac{4}{Rc}\]
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B)
4 Rc
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C)
\[\frac{Rc}{4}\]
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D)
\[Rc\]
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E)
\[\frac{Rc}{2}\]
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question_answer 19) The inductive reactance \[{{X}_{L}}\] of induction is
A)
always constant in AC circuit
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B)
directly proportional to frequency of AC
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C)
inversely proportional to frequency of AC
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D)
directly proportional to time period J
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 20) A 100 mH coil carries 1 A current. Energy stored in its magnetic field is
A)
0.1 J
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B)
0.05 J
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C)
0.5 J
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D)
1 J
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 21) Liquids and gases never show
A)
diamagnetic properties
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B)
paramagnetic properties
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C)
ferromagnetic properties
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D)
Both (a) and (b)
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 22) The deflection of tangent galvanometer is governed
A)
by a horse shoe magnet
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B)
by current in a circular coil
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C)
by current in a rectangular coil placed between the pole pieces of a magnet
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D)
by pole pieces of an external bar magnet
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 23) Two small magnets each of magnetic moment \[10\text{ }A{{m}^{2}}\]are placed in end on position 0.1 m apart from their centres. The force acting between them is
A)
\[0.6\times {{10}^{7}}N\]
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B)
\[0.06\times {{10}^{-7}}N\]
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C)
\[0.6\text{ }N\]
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D)
\[0.06\text{ }N\]
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E)
\[0.06\times {{10}^{-10}}N\]
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question_answer 24) A coil of cross-sectional area \[400\text{ }c{{m}^{2}}\]having 30 turns is making 180 rev/min in a magnetic field of 1 T. The peak value of the induced emf is
A)
0.4 V
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B)
0.6 V
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C)
226 V
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D)
2.26 V
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E)
22.6 V
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question_answer 25) For a thermocouple, the temperature of cold junction\[({{T}_{c}}),\]the neutral temperature \[({{T}_{n}})\] and the temperature of inversion \[({{T}_{i}})\] are \[0{}^\circ C,\] \[285{}^\circ C,\] \[570{}^\circ C\] respectively. If the temperature of cold junction \[({{T}_{c}})\] is raised to \[10{}^\circ C,\] then
A)
\[{{T}_{n}}=275{}^\circ C\] and \[{{T}_{i}}=570{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[{{T}_{n}}=275{}^\circ C\] and \[{{T}_{i}}=560{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[{{T}_{n}}=285{}^\circ C\] and \[{{T}_{i}}=560{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[{{T}_{n}}=295{}^\circ C\] and \[{{T}_{i}}=580{}^\circ C\]
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E)
\[{{T}_{n}}=560{}^\circ C\] and \[{{T}_{i}}=285{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 26) The wires A and B are of same material and same length but their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. They are stretched by the same force. Strain produced in two wires is
A)
2 : 1
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B)
1 : 2
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C)
1 : 4
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D)
4 : 1
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E)
1 : 8
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question_answer 27) Heat is transmitted from higher to lower temperature due to the molecular collision in
A)
conduction
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B)
radiation
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C)
convection
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D)
convection and radiation
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 28) A wire of length 10 cm is placed horizontal on the surface of water and is gently pulled up with a force of \[1.8\times {{10}^{-2}}N\]to keep the wire in equilibrium. The surface tension of water will be
A)
0.99 N/m
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B)
0.09 N/m
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C)
0.59 m
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D)
59 N/m
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 29) A solid sphere rolls down without slipping from rest on a 30° incline. Its linear acceleration is
A)
\[\frac{5g}{7}\]
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B)
\[\frac{5g}{14}\]
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C)
\[\frac{2g}{3}\]
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D)
\[\frac{g}{3}\]
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E)
\[\frac{5g}{17}\]
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question_answer 30) The time period of simple pendulum in a satellite is
A)
4 s
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B)
zero
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C)
cannot be calculated
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D)
infinite
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E)
\[\frac{3}{2}\]s
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question_answer 31) An electric bulb has power rating of 60 W, 220 V. If it is connected to a source of rms voltage 110 V, the power consumed is
A)
125 W
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B)
15 W
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C)
30 W
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D)
60 W
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E)
40 W
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question_answer 32) In an AC circuit, E = 220 sin 100\[\pi t\]. If the impedance is 110\[\Omega \] and phase angle\[\phi =60{}^\circ ,\] the power consumption is
A)
440 W
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B)
220 W
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C)
30 W
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D)
55 W
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E)
1000 W
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question_answer 33) The Lyman series of hydrogen lies in the region
A)
microwave
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B)
infrared
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C)
visible
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D)
ultraviolet
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 34) A radioactive element disintegrates S - h and its 1/16th part remain undisimegrated. Half life of the element will be
A)
0.5 h
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B)
1 h
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C)
8 h
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D)
4 h
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E)
2 h
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question_answer 35) Ozone layer blocks the radiation of wavelength
A)
more than \[3\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]
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B)
less than \[3\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]
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C)
equal to \[3\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]
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D)
equal to \[{{10}^{-7}}m\]
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E)
more than \[{{10}^{6}}m\]
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question_answer 36) The resistance of discharge tube is
A)
non-ohmic
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B)
zero
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C)
ohmic
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D)
one
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 37) A bulb has specifications of 1 kW and 250 V, the resistance of bulb is
A)
625\[\Omega \]
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B)
0.25\[\Omega \]
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C)
6.25\[\Omega \]
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D)
62.5\[\Omega \]
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E)
2.5\[\Omega \]
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question_answer 38) The internal energy of the working substance in any cyclic process
A)
increases
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B)
decreases
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C)
remain constant
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D)
becomes zero
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 39) Out of the following electromagnetic radiations which has the shortest wavelength?
A)
Radio waves
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B)
Infrared
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C)
Ultraviolet
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D)
Visible light
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E)
X-rays
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question_answer 40) The modulus of elasticity is dimensionally equivalent to
A)
strain
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B)
force
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C)
stress
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D)
coefficient of viscosity
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E)
Work
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question_answer 41) A tiger chases a deer 30 m ahead of it and gains 3 m in 5 s after the chase began. The distance gained by the tiger in 10 s is
A)
6 m
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B)
12 m
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C)
18 m
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D)
20 m
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E)
16 m
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question_answer 42) The speed of projection of a projectile is increased by 10% without changing the angle of projection. The percentage increase in the range will be
A)
10%
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B)
20%
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C)
15%
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D)
5%
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E)
25%
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question_answer 43) A sphere is suspended by a thread of length 1. The minimum horizontal velocity which has to be imparted to the sphere for it to reach the height of suspension is
A)
\[2\sqrt{gR}\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{2gl}\]
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C)
2gl
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D)
gl
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E)
\[\sqrt{gl/2}\]
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question_answer 44) A vehicle of mass 120 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h. The force required to step the vehicle in 10 s is
A)
90 N
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B)
180 N
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C)
360 N
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D)
720 N
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E)
810 N
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question_answer 45) The change in potential energy when a body of mass m is raised to a height nR from the centre of earth (R = radius of earth)
A)
\[mgR\frac{\left( n-1 \right)}{n}\]
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B)
\[nmgR\]
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C)
\[mgR\left( \frac{{{n}^{2}}}{{{n}^{2}}+1} \right)\]
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D)
\[mgR\left( \frac{n}{n+1} \right)\]
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E)
mgR
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question_answer 46) A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in SHM with an amplitude 0.02 m and a frequency of 60 Hz. The maximum force in newton acting on the particle is
A)
188\[\pi \]2
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B)
144\[\pi \]2
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C)
288 \[\pi \]2
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D)
12\[{{\pi }^{2}}\]
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 47) The equation of a spherical progressive wave is
A)
y = \[\alpha \]sin \[\omega \]t
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B)
y = \[\alpha \] sin (\[\omega \]t - kr)
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C)
y = \[\frac{a}{\sqrt{r}}\]sin(\[\omega \]t - kr)
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D)
y = \[\frac{a}{r}\] sin(\[\omega \]t - fr)
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 48) The moment of inertia of a rod (length I mass m) about an axis perpendicular to the length of the rod and passing through a J point equidistant from its mid-point and one end, is
A)
\[\frac{m{{l}^{2}}}{12}\]
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B)
\[\frac{7}{48}m{{l}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{13}{48}m{{l}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{19}{48}m{{l}^{2}}\]
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E)
\[\frac{14}{48}m{{l}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 49) At constant volume, temperature is increased, then
A)
collision on walls will be less
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B)
number of collisions per unit time will increase
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C)
collisions will be in straight lines
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D)
collisions will not change
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 50) A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity 1 m/s in the air. The viscosity of air is\[18\times {{10}^{-5}}P.\] The viscous force on it is
A)
\[101.73\times {{10}^{-4}}\]dyne
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B)
\[101.73\times {{10}^{-5}}\]dyne
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C)
\[16.95\times {{10}^{-5}}\]dyne
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D)
\[16.95\times {{10}^{-4}}\]dyne
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E)
\[1.6\times {{10}^{-4}}\]dyne
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question_answer 51) Magnetic field intensity due to a dipole varies as \[{{d}^{n}};\] \[d=\]distance of observation point from dipole, where n is equal to
A)
2
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B)
-2
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C)
3
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D)
-3
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 52) If the photon of energy 12.1 eV is incident on hydrogen gas, the gas will emit per second
A)
few lines in Balmer and Lymen series
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B)
all the lines in Balmer series
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C)
few lines in Balmer series
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D)
Balmer series only
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 53) A body is moving in circular motion of constant radius, then
A)
the net acceleration of the body may be towards the centre of the circle
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B)
the net acceleration of the body may not be towards the centre of the circle
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C)
the velocity of the body must change
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D)
All of the above
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 54) For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in the objects volume \[\left( \frac{\Delta V}{V} \right)\]and its bulk modulus are related as
A)
\[\frac{\Delta V}{V}\propto B\]
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B)
\[\frac{\Delta V}{V}\propto \frac{1}{B}\]
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C)
\[\frac{\Delta V}{V}\propto {{B}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{\Delta V}{V}\propto {{B}^{-2}}\]
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E)
\[\frac{\Delta V}{V}\propto {{B}^{3/2}}\]
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question_answer 55) A person cannot see the object beyond 100 cm. The power of a lens to correct his vision will be
A)
+2 D
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B)
-1 D
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C)
+5 D
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D)
0.5 D
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E)
+6 D
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question_answer 56) The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg\[{{m}^{2}}\]. Initially the body is at rest. In order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 J, an angular acceleration of 25 \[rad\text{/}{{s}^{2}}\]must be applied about that axis for a duration of
A)
4 s
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B)
2 s
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C)
8 s
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D)
10 s
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E)
3 s
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question_answer 57) The following equation represents induced transmutation\[_{4}B{{e}^{9}}{{+}_{2}}H{{e}^{4}}{{\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}}_{6}}{{C}^{12}}+X\]In this equation, X represents
A)
one negative \[\beta \text{-}\]particle
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B)
\[\alpha \]-particle
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C)
a positron
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D)
a neutron
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E)
\[\gamma -\]particle
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question_answer 58) Cyclotron is a device which is used to
A)
measure the charge
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B)
measure the voltage
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C)
accelerate protons
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D)
accelerate electrons
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 59) If boiling point of water is 95 F, what will be the reduction at Celsius scale?
A)
\[7{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[65{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[63{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[35{}^\circ C\]
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E)
\[70{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 60) The refractive indices of violet and red light are 1.54 and 1.52 respectively. If the angle of prism is \[10{}^\circ ,\] the angular dispersion (in degree) is
A)
0.02
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B)
0.20
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C)
3.06
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D)
30.6
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E)
306
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question_answer 61) Which of the following reacts fastest with a mixture of anhydrous \[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\] and cone. \[HCl\]?
A)
Trimethyl carbinol
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B)
Ethanol
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C)
Propanol
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D)
Methanol
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E)
Iso-propanol
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question_answer 62) The reagent with which both acetaldehyde and acetophenone reacts easily are
A)
Fehlings solution
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B)
Schiffs reagent
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C)
Tollens reagent
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D)
sodium bisulphite
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E)
2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
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question_answer 63) The main component of glass which gives heat resistance to laboratory glassware is
A)
\[PbO\]
done
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B)
\[MgO\]
done
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C)
\[{{B}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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E)
\[{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]
done
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question_answer 64) Thomas slag is referred to as
A)
calcium silicate
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B)
calcium phosphate
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C)
barium phosphate
done
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D)
strontium silicate
done
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E)
barium silicate
done
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question_answer 65) Each \[B-H-B\] bridge in \[{{B}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\] is formed by the sharing of
A)
2 electrons
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B)
4 electrons
done
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C)
1 electron
done
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D)
3 electrons
done
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E)
8 electrons
done
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question_answer 66) The one electron species having ionization energy of 54.4 eV is
A)
\[H\]
done
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B)
\[H{{e}^{+}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{B}^{4+}}\]
done
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D)
\[L{{i}^{2+}}\]
done
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E)
\[B{{e}^{2+}}\]
done
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question_answer 67) Density of a crystal remains unchanged as a result of
A)
ionic defect
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B)
Schottky defect
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C)
Frenkel defect
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D)
crystal defect
done
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E)
point defect
done
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question_answer 68) The mass of 11.2 L of ammonia gas at STP is
A)
8.5 g
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B)
85 g
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C)
17 g
done
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D)
1.7 g
done
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E)
4.25 g
done
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question_answer 69) Identify the correct statement from below, concerning the structure of\[C{{H}_{2}}=C=C{{H}_{2}}\].
A)
The molecule is planar
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B)
One of the three carbon atoms is in \[s{{p}^{3}}\]hybridized state
done
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C)
The molecule is non-planar with the two\[-C{{H}_{2}}\] groups being in planes perpendicular to each other
done
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D)
All the carbon atoms are sp-hybridized
done
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E)
The molecule is bent with the\[-C-C-C-\]angle being 120 degrees
done
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question_answer 70) The enthalpy of a monoatomic gas at T Kelvin is
A)
\[\frac{7}{2}RT\]
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B)
\[\frac{3}{2}RT\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{1}{2}RT\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{1}{2}m{{v}^{2}}\]
done
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E)
\[\frac{5}{2}RT\]
done
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question_answer 71) The dissociation constant of acetic acid \[{{K}_{a}}\]is\[1.74\times {{10}^{-5}}\] at 298 K. The pH of a solution of 0.1 M acetic acid is
A)
2.88
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B)
3.6
done
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C)
4.0
done
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D)
1.0
done
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E)
2.0
done
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question_answer 72) In the given reaction,\[2X(g)+Y(g)\rightleftharpoons 2Z(g)+80\,kcal.\] Which combination of pressure and temperature will give the highest yield of Z at equilibrium?
A)
1000 atm and \[200{}^\circ C\]
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B)
500 atm and \[500{}^\circ C\]
done
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C)
1000 atm and \[100{}^\circ C\]
done
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D)
500 atm and \[100{}^\circ C\]
done
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E)
1000 atm and \[500{}^\circ C\]
done
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question_answer 73) \[E_{C{{u}^{\,2+}}/Cu}^{\text{o}}=0.34\,V,\]\[E_{Z{{n}^{\,2+}}/Zn}^{\text{o}}=-\,0.76\,V.\] A Daniell cell contains 0.1 M \[ZnS{{O}_{4}}\]solution and 0.01 M \[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]solution at its electrodes. EMF of the cell is
A)
1.10 V
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B)
1.04 V
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C)
1.16 V
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D)
1.07 V
done
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E)
1.00 V
done
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question_answer 74) A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 8 days. If today 125 mg is left over, what was its original weight 32 days earlier?
A)
6 g
done
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B)
5 g
done
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C)
4 g
done
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D)
2 g
done
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E)
1 g
done
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question_answer 75) On addition of 1 mL solution of 10% \[NaCl\]to 10 mL gold solution in the presence of 0.025 g of starch, the coagulation is prevented because starch has the following gold number
A)
25
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B)
0.025
done
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C)
0.25
done
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D)
2.5
done
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E)
0.0025
done
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question_answer 76) IUPAC name of acraldehyde is
A)
but-3-en-1-al
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B)
propenyl aldehyde
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C)
but-2-ene-1-al
done
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D)
propanal
done
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E)
prop-2-ene-1-al
done
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question_answer 77) A molecule of urea can show
A)
chain isomerism
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B)
position isomerism
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C)
geometrical isomerism
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D)
tautomerism
done
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 78) The presence of\[A{{g}^{+}}\]ion increases the solubility of alkenes due to the formation of
A)
\[d\pi \text{-}d\sigma \] bonding
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B)
\[p\sigma \text{-}p\pi \] bonding
done
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C)
\[p\pi \text{-}d\pi \] bonding
done
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D)
\[p\pi \text{-}p\pi \]bonding
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 79) Glycerine contains
A)
\[1{}^\circ \]carbon
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B)
\[2{}^\circ \]carbon
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C)
\[3{}^\circ \]carbon
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D)
both \[1{}^\circ \] and \[2{}^\circ \]carbon
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E)
both \[2{}^\circ \]and \[3{}^\circ \]carbon
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question_answer 80) \[\alpha \] and \[\beta \text{-}\]glucose differ in the orientation of -OH group around
A)
\[{{C}_{1}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{C}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{C}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{C}_{4}}\]
done
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E)
\[{{C}_{5}}\]
done
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question_answer 81) Which one of the following has the highest molar conductivity?
A)
Diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
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B)
Tetramminedichlorocobalt (III) chloride
done
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C)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
done
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D)
Hexaaquochromium (III) bromide
done
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E)
Pentacarbonyl iron (0).
done
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question_answer 82) The first law of thermodynamic is expressed as
A)
\[Q-W=\Delta E\]
done
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B)
\[\Delta E=Q-p\Delta V\]
done
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C)
\[Q=\Delta E-W\]
done
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D)
\[W=Q+\Delta E\]
done
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E)
None of these
done
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question_answer 83) The Markownikoffs rule is the best applicable to the reaction between
A)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}+HCl\]
done
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B)
\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}+B{{r}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}+HBr\]
done
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D)
\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{8}}+C{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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E)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}+{{I}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 84) Phenol can be distinguished from ethanol by the following reagents except
A)
sodium
done
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B)
\[NaOH\text{/}{{I}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
neutral \[FeC{{l}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[B{{r}_{2}}\text{/}{{H}_{2}}O\]
done
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E)
phthalic anhydride/cone. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] and \[NaOH\]
done
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question_answer 85) The enol form of acetone after treatment with \[{{D}_{2}}O,\]gives
A)
\[{{H}_{3}}C-\underset{OD}{\mathop{\underset{\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,=C{{H}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{H}_{3}}C-\underset{O}{\mathop{\underset{\mathbf{||}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{D}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{H}_{2}}C=\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}D\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{H}_{2}}C=\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-CH{{D}_{2}}\]
done
clear
E)
\[{{D}_{2}}C=\underset{OD}{\mathop{\underset{\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{D}_{3}}\]
done
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question_answer 86) An alkene on reductive ozonolysis gives 2-molecules of \[C{{H}_{2}}{{(CHO)}_{2}}.\] The alkene is
A)
2, 4-hexadiene
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B)
1, 3-cyclohexadiene
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C)
1, 4-cyclohexadiene
done
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D)
1-methyl-1, 3-cyclopentadiene
done
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E)
1, 2-dimethylcyclopropene
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question_answer 87) Identify the compound\[Z\]in this reaction sequence. \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\xrightarrow[\Delta ]{N{{H}_{3}}}X\xrightarrow{B{{r}_{2}}+KOH}\]\[Y\xrightarrow{HN{{O}_{2}}}Z\]
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}OH\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]
done
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]
done
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E)
\[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 88)
The following homogeneous gaseous reactions were experimentally found to be second order overall. I. \[2NO\xrightarrow{{}}{{N}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}\] II. \[3{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}2{{O}_{3}}\] III. \[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\xrightarrow{{}}NO+N{{O}_{2}}\] IV. \[{{H}_{2}}+{{I}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}2HI\]
Which of these are most likely to be elementary reactions that occur in one step?
A)
III only
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B)
I and III
done
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C)
I and IV
done
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D)
III and IV
done
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E)
I, II and III
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question_answer 89) On a humid day in summer, the mole fraction of gaseous \[{{H}_{2}}O\](water vapour) in the air at \[25{}^\circ C\] can be as high as 0.0287. Assuming a total pressure of 0.977 arm, what is the partial pressure of dry air?
A)
94.9 atm
done
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B)
0.949 atm
done
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C)
949 atm
done
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D)
0.648 atm
done
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E)
1.248 atm
done
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question_answer 90) For which of the following sparingly soluble salt, the solubility (s) and solubility product (Kgp) are related by the expression\[s={{({{K}_{sp}}\text{/}4)}^{1/3}}\]?
A)
\[BaS{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{a}_{3}}{{(P{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[H{{g}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[A{{g}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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E)
\[CuS\]
done
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question_answer 91) At certain temperature, a 5.12% solution of cane sugar is isotonic with a 0.9% solution of an unknown solute. The molar mass of solute is
A)
60
done
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B)
46.17
done
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C)
120
done
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D)
90
done
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E)
92.34
done
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question_answer 92) Which of the following is true in respect of adsorption?
A)
\[\Delta G<0;\Delta \,S>0;\,\Delta \,H<0\]
done
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B)
\[\Delta G<0;\Delta \,S<0;\,\Delta \,H<0\]
done
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C)
\[\Delta G>0;\Delta \,S>0;\,\Delta \,H<0\]
done
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D)
\[\Delta G<0;\Delta \,S<0;\,\Delta \,H>0\]
done
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E)
\[\Delta G>0;\Delta \,S>0;\,\Delta \,H>0\]
done
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question_answer 93) The amine which will not liberate nitrogen on reaction with nitrous acid is
A)
trimethyl amine
done
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B)
ethyl amine
done
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C)
sec-butyl amine
done
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D)
\[t\text{-}\]butyl amine
done
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E)
iso-propyl amine
done
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question_answer 94) One mole of acidified \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]on reaction with excess KI will liberate ?... mole(s) of \[{{I}_{2}}\].
A)
6
done
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B)
1
done
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C)
7
done
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D)
2
done
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E)
3
done
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question_answer 95) Which of the following exists as Zwitter ion?
A)
p-aminophenol
done
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B)
Salicylic acid
done
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C)
Sulphanilic acid
done
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D)
Ethanolamine
done
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E)
p-aminoacetophenone
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question_answer 96)
Consider the following halogen containing compounds I. \[CHC{{l}_{3}}\] II. \[CC{{l}_{4}}\] III. \[C{{H}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\] IV. \[C{{H}_{3}}Cl\] V.
The compounds with a net zero dipole moment are
A)
II and V only
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B)
III only
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C)
III and IV only
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D)
I and IV only
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E)
II only
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question_answer 97) Which of the following is bacteriostatic?
A)
Penicillin
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B)
Erythromycin
done
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C)
Amino glycodine
done
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D)
Ofloxacin
done
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E)
Bithional
done
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question_answer 98) Which one of the following set of quantum numbers is not possible for electron in the ground state of an atom with atomic number 19?
A)
\[n=2,\,l=0,\,m=0\]
done
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B)
\[n=2,\,l=1,\,m=0\]
done
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C)
\[n=3,\,l=1,\,m=-1\]
done
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D)
\[n=3,\,l=2,\,m=+\,2\]
done
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E)
\[n=4,\,l=0,\,m=0\]
done
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question_answer 99) The sequence that correctly describes the relative bond strength pertaining to oxygen molecule and its cation or anions is
A)
\[O_{2}^{2-}>O_{2}^{-}>{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{+}\]
done
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B)
\[{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{+}>O_{2}^{-}>O_{2}^{2-}\]
done
clear
C)
\[O_{2}^{+}>{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{2-}>O_{2}^{-}\]
done
clear
D)
\[O_{2}^{+}>{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{-}>O_{2}^{2-}\]
done
clear
E)
\[{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{-}>O_{2}^{2-}>O_{2}^{+}\]
done
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question_answer 100) The hybrid rocket propellant consists of
A)
acrylic rubber and liquid nitrogen tetraoxide
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B)
polyurethane and ammonium perchlorate
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C)
nitroglycerine and nitrocellulose
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D)
liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen
done
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E)
hydrogen peroxide
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question_answer 101) Boric acid is used in carom boards for smooth gliding of pawns because
A)
\[{{H}_{3}}B{{O}_{3}}\] molecules are loosely chemically bonded and hence soft
done
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B)
its low density makes it fluffy
done
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C)
it can be powdered to a very small grain size
done
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D)
it is chemically inert with the plywood
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E)
H-bonding in \[{{H}_{3}}B{{O}_{3}}\] gives it a layered structure
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question_answer 102) The pair of \[[Co(S{{O}_{4}}){{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}]\,Cl\]and\[[CoCl(N{{H}_{3}}){{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}]\,S{{O}_{4}}\] constitutes
A)
optical isomers
done
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B)
linkage isomers
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C)
coordination isomers
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D)
hydrate isomers
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E)
ionisation isomers
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question_answer 103) Which one of the following pairs of elements is called chemical twins because of their very similar chemical properties?
A)
Mn and W
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B)
Mo and Tc
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C)
Fe and Re
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D)
Hf and Zr
done
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E)
Fe and Co
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question_answer 104) The IUPAC name of \[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}ONO]}^{2+}}\]ion is
A)
pentammine nitrito, cobalt (IV) ion
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B)
pentammine nitrito cobalt (III) ion
done
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C)
pentammine nitro cobalt (III) ion
done
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D)
pentammine nitro cobalt (IV) ion
done
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 105) Hydration of different ions in aqueous solution is an example of
A)
ion-induced dipole interaction
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B)
dipole-dipole interaction
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C)
dipole-induced dipole interaction
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D)
attractive dispersion forces between atoms
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E)
ion-dipole interaction
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question_answer 106) The vapour pressure of two liquids X and Y are 80 and 60 Torr respectively. The total vapour pressure of the ideal solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of X and 2 moles of Y would be
A)
68 Torr
done
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B)
140 Torr
done
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C)
48 Torr
done
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D)
72 Torr
done
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E)
54 Torr
done
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question_answer 107) The elements present in the core of earth are collectively known as
A)
lithophiles
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B)
nucleophiles
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C)
chalcophiles
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D)
siderophiles
done
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E)
atmophiles
done
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question_answer 108) Concentrated sulphuric acid can be reduced by
A)
\[NaCl\]
done
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B)
\[NaF\]
done
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C)
\[NaOH\]
done
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D)
\[NaN{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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E)
\[NaBr\]
done
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question_answer 109) Consider the ions : \[{{K}^{+}},\,{{S}^{2-}},C{{l}^{-}}\] and \[C{{a}^{2+}}.\] The radii of these ionic species follow the order
A)
\[C{{a}^{2+}}>{{K}^{+}}>C{{l}^{-}}>{{S}^{2-}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{l}^{-}}>{{S}^{2-}}>{{K}^{+}}>C{{a}^{2+}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{a}^{2+}}>C{{l}^{-}}>{{K}^{+}}>{{S}^{2-}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{K}^{+}}>{{S}^{2-}}>C{{l}^{-}}>C{{a}^{2+}}\]
done
clear
E)
\[{{S}^{2-}}>C{{l}^{-}}>{{K}^{+}}>C{{a}^{2+}}\]
done
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question_answer 110) A compound in which a metal ion\[{{M}^{x+}}(Z=25)\] has a spin only magnetic moment of \[\sqrt{24}\] BM. The number of unpaired electrons in the compound and the oxidation state of the metal ion are respectively
A)
4 and 2
done
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B)
5 and 3
done
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C)
3 and 2
done
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D)
4 and 3
done
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E)
3 and 1
done
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question_answer 111) To an aqueous solution containing anions, a few drops of acidified \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\] are added. Which one of the following anions, if present will not decolourise the \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\] solution?
A)
\[{{I}^{-}}\]
done
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B)
\[CO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
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C)
\[{{S}^{2-}}\]
done
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D)
\[NO_{2}^{-}\]
done
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E)
\[C{{l}^{-}}\]
done
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question_answer 112) The ion that is more effective for the coagulation of \[A{{s}_{2}}{{S}_{3}}\] sol is
A)
\[B{{a}^{2+}}\]
done
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B)
\[N{{a}^{+}}\]
done
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C)
\[PO_{4}^{3-}\]
done
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D)
\[SO_{4}^{2-}\]
done
clear
E)
\[A{{l}^{3+}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 113) Lassaignes test for the detection of nitrogen fails in
A)
\[{{H}_{2}}N-CO-NHN{{H}_{2}}\cdot HCl\]
done
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B)
\[N{{H}_{2}}-N{{H}_{2}}\cdot HCl\]
done
clear
C)
\[N{{H}_{2}}-CO-N{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}-NH-N{{H}_{2}}\cdot HCl\]
done
clear
E)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CON{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer 114) The alkyl halide that undergoes \[{{S}_{N}}1\] reaction more readily is
A)
ethyl bromide
done
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B)
iso-propyl bromide
done
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C)
vinyl bromide
done
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D)
n-propyl bromide
done
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E)
t-butyl bromide
done
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question_answer 115)
Select .R-isomers from the following
A)
I and III
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B)
II, IV and V
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C)
I, II and III
done
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D)
II and III
done
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E)
I, III and V
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question_answer 116) Which of the following is a better reducing I agent for the following reduction? \[RCOOH\xrightarrow{{}}RC{{H}_{2}}OH\]
A)
\[SnC{{l}_{2}}/HCl\]
done
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B)
\[NaB{{H}_{4}}/ether\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{H}_{2}}/Pd\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{N}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}/{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}ONa\]
done
clear
E)
\[{{B}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}/{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer 117) The ore that is concentrated by froth floatation process is
A)
zincite
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B)
cinnabar
done
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C)
bauxite
done
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D)
malachite
done
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E)
corundum
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question_answer 118) The oxide of an element whose electronic configuration is \[1{{s}^{2}},2{{s}^{2}},2{{p}^{6}},3{{s}^{1}}\]is
A)
neutral
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B)
amphoteric
done
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C)
basic
done
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D)
acidic
done
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E)
data insufficient
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question_answer 119) Among the following, the compound that contains ionic, covalent and coordinate linkage is
A)
\[N{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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B)
\[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]
done
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C)
\[NaCl\]
done
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D)
\[CaO\]
done
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E)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CHO\]
done
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question_answer 120) Which of the following is fully fluorinated polymer?
A)
PVC
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B)
Thiokol
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C)
Teflon
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D)
Neoprene
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E)
Saran
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question_answer 121) Plants restricted to certain localities are referred to as
A)
exotic
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B)
endemic
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C)
introduced
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D)
natural
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question_answer 122) Some bacteria are not easily killed by antibiotics or heat treatment because of their
A)
capsule
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B)
chitinous cell wall
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C)
mucopeptides in cell wall
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D)
mesosomes
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question_answer 123) Which type of ribosome is found in Nostoc cells?
A)
70 S
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B)
80 S
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C)
55 S
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D)
30 S
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question_answer 124) Haploid cells can be obtained from
A)
leaf
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B)
stem
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C)
seed
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D)
anther
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question_answer 125) Bromelain is an enzyme extracted from
A)
yeast
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B)
Ficus
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C)
pineapple
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D)
papaya
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question_answer 126) Genes not located within the nucleus are almost always found in
A)
cytosol
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B)
ribosome
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C)
cytoskeleton
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D)
cell membrane
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question_answer 127) Spine formation is found in
A)
Opuntia
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B)
Nepenthes
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C)
Asparagus
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D)
Drosera
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question_answer 128) Which one reproduces vegetatively?
A)
Allium cepa
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B)
Allium sativum
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C)
Pisum sativum
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D)
Zea mays
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question_answer 129) Gall flowers of figs are
A)
staminate
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B)
pistillate
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C)
neutar
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D)
naked
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question_answer 130) Quiescent centre possesses
A)
actively dividing cells
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B)
meristematic cells
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C)
passive cell
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D)
storage cells
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question_answer 131) Stomata are evenly distributed on upper and lower surfaces of leaf in
A)
potato
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B)
mulberry
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C)
Vallisneria
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D)
Eichhornia
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question_answer 132) Cork cells are dead because they do not possess
A)
cellulosic cell wall
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B)
permeable cell wall
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C)
protoplast
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D)
meristematic activities
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question_answer 133) Transfusion tissue is meant for translocation of
A)
organic solutes
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B)
sap
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C)
food materials
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 134) An alcohol- dipped cell kept in hypertonic sucrose solution will
A)
burst
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B)
plasmolysed
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C)
remain unchanged
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D)
become turgid
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question_answer 135) The plant ash is an indication of
A)
mineral salts absorbed by the plant
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B)
organic matter of the plant
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C)
both mineral salts and organic matter
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 136) The smallest known plant having the same pigments as grasses and trees, belongs to
A)
Chlorophyceae
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B)
Schizomycetes
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C)
Bryophyta
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D)
Angiosperms
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question_answer 137) Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria requires
A)
NADP
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B)
FMN
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C)
oxygen
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D)
pyruvic acid
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question_answer 138) Polygonum type 7- celled embryo sac closely resembles to
A)
Allium type
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B)
Drusa type
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C)
Adoxa type
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 139) Fruit formation is directly associated with stimulus of
A)
pollination
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B)
fertilization
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C)
endospore formation
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 140) Hormone related to phototropism is
A)
IAA
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B)
\[G{{A}_{3}}\]
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C)
kinetin
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D)
2, 4-D
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question_answer 141) In mangrove forest, there occur
A)
rich biodiversity
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B)
very severe interspecific competition
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C)
very severe intraspecific competition
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D)
no competition
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question_answer 142) Secondary growth is not seen in
A)
succulents
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B)
xerophytes
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C)
hydrophytes
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D)
mangroves
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question_answer 143) Important Value Index (IVI) is determined using quantitative data of
A)
relative density
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B)
relative frequency
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C)
relative dominance
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 144) Maximum radiant energy is trapped by
A)
algae
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B)
herbs
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C)
shrubs
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D)
trees
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question_answer 145) Which of the weed is most harmful?
A)
Azolla
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B)
Parthenium
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C)
Salvinia
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D)
Salicomia
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question_answer 146) Early blight disease is related to
A)
sugarcane
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B)
potato
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C)
onion
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D)
rose
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question_answer 147) Bioenergy is always
A)
ecofriendly
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B)
cheap
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C)
non-polluting
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D)
Both (a) and (b)
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question_answer 148) Axenic culture means
A)
cell culture
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B)
cell culture free from microorganisms
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C)
cell culture free from plants
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 149) Nif genes are fixing genes for
A)
nitrogen
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B)
oxygen
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C)
carbon
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D)
nitrate
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question_answer 150) A cell having genetically different DNA strands is called
A)
callus
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B)
cybrid
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C)
chimera
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D)
plasmid
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question_answer 151) Glissons capsule is related to
A)
intestine
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B)
liver
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C)
lung
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D)
stomach
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question_answer 152) Crypts of Lieberkuhn have
A)
a-cells
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B)
p-cells
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C)
paneth cells
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D)
Kupffers cells
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question_answer 153) Circulation is closed type in
A)
frog
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B)
human
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C)
monkey
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D)
earthworm
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question_answer 154) Frogs and toads belong to the order
A)
Caudata
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B)
Apoda
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C)
Anura
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D)
Gymnophiona
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question_answer 155) The Vibrissae of a rat is arranged in
A)
2 groups
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B)
3 groups
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C)
4 groups
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D)
5 groups
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question_answer 156) Kwashiorkor is a deficiency disease of
A)
protein
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B)
fat
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C)
carbohydrate
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D)
minerals
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question_answer 157) Which refers to biocatalysts?
A)
Erepsin, amylase, rennin
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B)
Rhodopsin, pepsin, steapsin
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C)
Myosin, oxytocin, adrenaline
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D)
Glucose, amino acids, fatty acids
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question_answer 158) Which of them possess non-elastic lungs which elastic air sacs connected to them?
A)
Birds
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B)
Reptiles
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C)
Mammals
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D)
Amphibians
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question_answer 159) The yellow color of urine is due to
A)
urea
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B)
bilirubin
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C)
uric acid
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D)
urochrome
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question_answer 160) Retinal cells involved in color vision are
A)
cones
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B)
cornea
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C)
neurons
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D)
neuroglial cells
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question_answer 161) Pituitary lies in the sella turcica of
A)
nasal
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B)
vomer
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C)
ethmoid
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D)
sphenoid
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question_answer 162) Glucagon characteristically increases all the following except
A)
ketogenesis in the liver
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B)
glycogenolysis in muscle
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C)
lipolysis in adipose tissue
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D)
urea synthesis in liver
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question_answer 163) Membrane attack complex (Mac) is formed by
A)
B-lymphocytes
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B)
macrophages
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C)
T-lymphocytes
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D)
complements
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question_answer 164) Which one is not related to hallucinogens?
A)
LSD
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B)
Marijuana
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C)
Psilocybin
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D)
Heroin
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question_answer 165) Chromatoid bodies in Entamoeba histolytica are found in
A)
cyst
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B)
minuta
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C)
metacyst
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D)
trophozoite
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question_answer 166) Animals which have well-marked digestive cavity are put under
A)
Metazoa
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B)
Bryozoa
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C)
Parazoa
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D)
Enterozoa
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question_answer 167) Blood of earthworm is red because its haemoglobin is
A)
reduced
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B)
oxidized
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C)
intracellular
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D)
intercellular
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question_answer 168) Larva of housefly lacks
A)
eyes
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B)
abdomen
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C)
fins
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D)
spiracles
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question_answer 169) Which of the following stain is obtained from the female scale insect Coccus cacti?
A)
Carmine
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B)
Orcein
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C)
Haematoxytin
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D)
Crystal violet
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question_answer 170) Creatinine is formed metabolically from
A)
arginine
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B)
histidine
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C)
tryptophan
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D)
phenylalanine
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question_answer 171) Example of a phosphoprotein is
A)
mucin
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B)
casein
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C)
ferritin
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D)
haemoglobin
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question_answer 172) Which of the following diseases is related to colour blindness?
A)
Night blindness
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B)
Haemophilia
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C)
Cataract
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D)
Cancer
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question_answer 173) The category of molecules produced by Milter-Urey experiment was
A)
organic polymers
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B)
inorganic polymers
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C)
organic monomers
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D)
inorganic monomers
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question_answer 174) Which of them are not homologous?
A)
Insect legs
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B)
Insect mouth parts
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C)
(c ) Vertebrate forelimbs
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D)
Birds and insect wings
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question_answer 175) An example of vestigial organ is
A)
hair of bear
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B)
ear of cow
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C)
tusk of elephant
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D)
nictitating membrane of man
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question_answer 176) The closest relative of modem man is considered to be
A)
monkey
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B)
chimpanzee
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C)
ape
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D)
gorilla
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question_answer 177) Why pea plants were more suitable than dogs for Mendels experiment?
A)
Dogs have many genetic traits
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B)
Pea plants can be self fertilized
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C)
No pedigree records of dogs
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D)
Pea plants favour cross fertilization
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question_answer 178) Super position image formation takes place in cockroach during
A)
dim light
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B)
diffused light
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C)
bright light
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 179) Scales are absent in
A)
Catia
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B)
Wallago
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C)
Cirrhinus
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D)
Scoliodon
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question_answer 180) The mammals evolved from the reptile in the
A)
Cretaceous
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B)
Triassic
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C)
Devonian
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D)
Carboniferous
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question_answer 181) The ICC Executive Board has declared that 14 - team will be eligible for the 2015 World Cup, to be held in Australia and New Zealand. What number has been decided for 2019 World Cup?
A)
10
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B)
12
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C)
14
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D)
16
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question_answer 182) In which of following States the Sick Newborn Care Units CSNCUs) are being set up in all district hospital with a view to minimizing the infant and child mortality rate?
A)
Gujarat
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B)
Punjab
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C)
Bihar
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D)
Haryana
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question_answer 183) Which famous temple in Kerala sparked widespread interest when a treasure trove amounting to $ 22 was unearthed during a stock-taking exercise?
A)
Sri Guruvayr Temple
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B)
Sri Padmanabhaswamy Temple
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C)
Sril Lakshman Temple
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D)
Puthukulangara Sree Bhadrakli Temple
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question_answer 184) Which of these is the capital of the newly constituted country South Sudan?
A)
Abei
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B)
Juba
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C)
Jongli
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D)
Bahr al Ghazal
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question_answer 185) The 17th SAARC Summit will be held in the Republic of Maldives from Nov 10-11, 2011. What will be the theme of this summit?
A)
Investing for Future
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B)
Building Cross-Border Confidence
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C)
Respect for Elders and Love for Children
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D)
Building Bridges for Peace, Friendship and Security
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question_answer 186) The first UID number was issued on Sept 29, 2010, in a village of Nandurbar district of Maharashtra. Since then, one crore Indians have been issued their Unique Identification Numbers. The government targets of issuing 60 crore Aadhaar numbers by which year?
A)
2013
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B)
2014
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C)
2015
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D)
2016
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question_answer 187) Which of the following biosphere reserves (NBR) is going to be showcased for the award instituted by the UNESCO to mark the 40th year of its theme Man and Biosphere?
A)
Sunderban
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B)
Nilgiris
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C)
Manas
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D)
Nokrek
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question_answer 188) The World Chess Championship Title match in 2012 will be held in Chennai in April-May. The title clash will be between defending champion Viswanathan Anand of India and Boris Gelfand, who belongs to
A)
Spain
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B)
Belarus
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C)
Israel
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D)
Russia
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question_answer 189) Basant Nayak, who passed away recently, was a film-maker of which among the following film industry?
A)
Tamil
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B)
Telugu
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C)
Oriya
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D)
Bhojpuri
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question_answer 190) Which day is observed as the international day against drug abuse and illicit trafficking throughout the world?
A)
June 23
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B)
June 24
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C)
June 25
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D)
June 26
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question_answer 191) Which of the following rivers is also called Ganga of the South?
A)
Krishna
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B)
Godavari
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C)
Cauveri
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D)
Tapti
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question_answer 192) Maximum crude petroleum in India is produced in
A)
Asom
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B)
Gujarat
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C)
Off- shor Bombay High
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D)
Coastal Tamil Nadu
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question_answer 193) Lines which join the places receiving equal amount of rainfall are called
A)
Contours
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B)
Isohyets
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C)
Isotherms
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D)
Isobars
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question_answer 194) Which among the following rivers makes an estuary?
A)
Cauveri
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B)
Krishna
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C)
Narmada
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D)
Ganga
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question_answer 195) Which State of India has the largest area under forests?
A)
Arunachal Pradesh
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B)
Madhya Pradesh
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C)
Maharashtra
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D)
Nagaland
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question_answer 196) The highest peak of India is
A)
Everest
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B)
K2
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C)
Pokalde
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D)
Nanda Devi
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question_answer 197) Oil reserves are found mainly in following rocks
A)
Metamorphic
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B)
Sedimentary
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C)
Igneous
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 198) Which State in India is famous for sane wood?
A)
Maharashtra
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B)
Karnataka
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C)
Kerala
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D)
Andhra Pradesh
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question_answer 199) Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of that longitude, which is near
A)
Allahabad
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B)
Lucknow
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C)
Kanpur
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D)
Varanasi
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question_answer 200) The shape of the earth is oblong spheroid due to
A)
attraction of moon
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B)
internal structure
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C)
revolution around the sun
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D)
rotation about its axis
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question_answer 201) During which geological age did dinosaurs roam on the earth?
A)
Jurrasic
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B)
Tommotian
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C)
Cambrian
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D)
Precambrian
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question_answer 202) The Southernmost point of mainland India is
A)
Chennai
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B)
Kanyakumari
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C)
Thiruvananthpuram
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D)
Mangalore
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question_answer 203) Which of the following scales is used to measure earthquake intensity?
A)
Mohrs scale
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B)
Richter scale
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C)
Beaufort scale
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 204) Teen- Bigha Corridor links
A)
Bangladesh and India
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B)
India and Nepal
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C)
Bangladesh and Nepal
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D)
India and Pakistan
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question_answer 205) A solar eclipse occurs when
A)
the earth comes in between the sun and the moon
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B)
the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
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C)
the moon, the sun and the earth are in a straight line
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D)
the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
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question_answer 206) The Panama Canal connects
A)
the Atlantic ocean and the mediterranean sea
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B)
the Atlantic ocean and the Indian ocean
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C)
the Pacific and the Atlantic oceans
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 207) On which river is the highest waterfall in India located?
A)
Krishna
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B)
Godavari
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C)
Sharavati
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D)
Tapti
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question_answer 208) The country with highest population density in the world is
A)
England
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B)
Nauru
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C)
Japan
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D)
India
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question_answer 209) The Chipko Movement was about
A)
forest conservation
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B)
wildlife preservation
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C)
scientific agriculture
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D)
deforestation
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question_answer 210) Which is the longest National Highway in India?
A)
NH 1
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B)
NH 24
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C)
NH 7
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D)
NH 6
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question_answer 211) The city known as the Pittsburg of India is
A)
Jamshedpur
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B)
Tatanagar
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C)
Hardwar
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D)
Bhilai
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question_answer 212) Which of the following is the best type of coal?
A)
Anthracite
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B)
Lignite
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C)
Peat
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D)
Limonite
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question_answer 213) Indias largest lake Chilka is situated in
A)
Odisha
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B)
Maharashtra
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C)
West Bengal
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D)
Karnataka
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question_answer 214) A storm is indicated if atmospheric pressure
A)
falls suddenly
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B)
rises gradually
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C)
rises suddenly
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D)
falls gradually
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question_answer 215) Who is credited with the design of Taj Mahal?
A)
Ustad lsa
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B)
Mir Ali
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C)
Syed Hussain
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D)
Abdus Samad
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question_answer 216) The Qutub Minar at Delhi was built to commemorate honour
A)
Qutubuddin Aibak
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B)
Iltutmish
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C)
Qutubuddin Bakhriyar Kaki
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D)
Alauddin Khalji
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question_answer 217) Tripitakas are the sacred texts of which religion?
A)
Jainism
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B)
Buddhism
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C)
Pashupatas
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 218) Which leader started the now hugely popular Ganapati Festival in Maharashtra?
A)
Dadabhai Nauroji
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B)
MG Ranade
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C)
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 219) Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last Mughal, was exiled to
A)
Maldives
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B)
Kala Pani
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C)
Rangoon
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D)
London
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question_answer 220) The Mughal Emperor who again imposed Jaziya on Hindus was
A)
Aurangzeb
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B)
Akbar
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C)
Shah Jahan
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D)
Humayun
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question_answer 221) The Bengal Partition was announced in
A)
1911
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B)
1901
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C)
1905
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D)
1916
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question_answer 222) Who was called the Nightingale of India?
A)
Pandita Ramabai
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B)
Kalpana Dutt
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C)
Sucheta Kriplani
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D)
Sarojini Naidu
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question_answer 223) Where did in India Mahatma Gandhi first try his techniques of Satyagraha?
A)
Poona
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B)
Champaran
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C)
Delhi
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D)
Sabarmati
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question_answer 224) Lilavati an ancient work on Mathematics, was written by
A)
Aryabhatta
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B)
Varahmihira
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C)
Bhaskaracharya
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D)
Banabhatta
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question_answer 225) Which of the following was a famous physician?
A)
Charvak
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B)
Kamban
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C)
Charak
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D)
Bhaskar
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question_answer 226) Which Gupta ruler has been depicted on his coins as playing veena?
A)
Skandagupta
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B)
Chandragupta
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C)
Samudragupta
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 227) In which year was the battle of Plassy fought?
A)
1761
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B)
1757
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C)
1857
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D)
1843
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question_answer 228) Alberuni has given the detailed account of his visit to India in
A)
Kitab-ul-Hind
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B)
Tarikh-i-Yamini
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C)
Futuh-us-Alamgiri
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D)
Hamzanamah
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question_answer 229) Who was the British Prime Minister at the time of independence of India?
A)
McDonald
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B)
Atlee
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C)
Churchill
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D)
Cripps
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question_answer 230) The ancient name of Bengal was
A)
Gaud
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B)
Sopara
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C)
Kamarupa
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D)
Panchala
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question_answer 231) Name the founder of the Widow Remarriage Association in the 19th century.
A)
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
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B)
Vishnu Shastri Pandit
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C)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
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D)
Gopal Hari Deshmukh
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question_answer 232) Which Mughal Emperor got constructed the Peacock throne?
A)
Jahangir
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B)
Aurangzeb
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C)
Shahjahan
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D)
Akbar
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question_answer 233) Who was the only Indian Governor-General of India?
A)
Jawahar Lal Nehru
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B)
Narendra Kriplani
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C)
Rajendra Prasad
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D)
C Rajagopalachari
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question_answer 234) In which language was the Sangam literature composed?
A)
Sanskrit
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B)
Aramaic
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C)
Prakrit
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D)
Tamil
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question_answer 235) Which of the following objects has been discovered at all the Harappan sites?
A)
Seals
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B)
Ploughshare
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C)
Gold ornaments
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D)
Spindles
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question_answer 236) The revenue system of Mughal Empire was revamped by
A)
Raja Birbal
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B)
Raja Man Singh
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C)
Todarmal
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D)
Bairam Khan
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question_answer 237) At which session of the Congress it split due to the differences between the Extremisa and the Moderates?
A)
1903
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B)
1904
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C)
1906
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D)
1907
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question_answer 238) Who among the following was called The Grand Old Man of India?
A)
Mahatma Gandhi
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B)
Dadabhai Nauroji
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C)
AO Hume
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D)
Badruddin Tyabji
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question_answer 239) Which Mughal ruler got executed Teg Bahadur, the 9th Sikh Guru?
A)
Jahangir
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B)
Aurangzeb
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C)
Bahadur Shah I
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D)
Shahjahan
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question_answer 240) Vrithviraj Raso was written by
A)
Bilhan
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B)
AmirKhusro
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C)
Chand Bardai
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D)
Kalhana
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question_answer 241) Gandhiji withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement due to
A)
agreement with Lord Irwin
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B)
Jalianwala Bagh violence
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C)
Chauri Chaura incident
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 242) Mahatma Gandhi was the President of die Congress in which session?
A)
Bombay, 1942
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B)
Belgaum, 1924
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C)
Calcutta, 1920
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 243) Which of the following bodies is not a constitutional body?
A)
Planning Commission
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B)
Election Commission
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C)
Finance Commission
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D)
Union Public Service Commission
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question_answer 244) The Zero hour is set aside for
A)
asking questions
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B)
rest break between two meetings of the House
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C)
discussing budget proposals
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D)
miscellaneous business
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question_answer 245) The Pro-tern Speaker
A)
swears-in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
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B)
officiates as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected
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C)
conducts the proceedings of Houses in absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
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D)
checks if the election certificates of the members are in order
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question_answer 246) Which among the following is referred to as the First Citizen of India?
A)
The Prime Minister
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B)
The Chief Justice of India
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C)
The Lok Sabha Speaker
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D)
The President
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question_answer 247) The ninth schedule of Indian Constitution deals with
A)
anti- defection legislation
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B)
Panchayati Raj
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C)
land reforms
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D)
distribution of powers between the Union and States
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question_answer 248) Which of the following UTs sends most MPs to the Lok Sabha?
A)
Chhattisgarh
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B)
Delhi
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C)
Pondicherry
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D)
Andaman
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question_answer 249) Indian Constitution heavily borrowed from
A)
the erstwhile USSR Constitution
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B)
the British Constitution
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C)
the Govt of India Act, 1935
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D)
the US Constitution
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question_answer 250) Who officiates as the President when offices of both the President and the Vice-President are vacant?
A)
The Lok Sabha Speaker
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B)
The Rajya Sabha Chairman
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C)
The Chief Justice
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D)
The Home Minster
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question_answer 251) Who was the first woman Governor of a State?
A)
Indira Gandhi
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B)
Sarojini Naidu
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C)
Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
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D)
Lakshmi Sehgal
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question_answer 252) The Constitution states that India shall be
A)
a Union of States
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B)
Unitary State
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C)
a Federation
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D)
a Confederation
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question_answer 253) The number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is
A)
12
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B)
10
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C)
11
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D)
13
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question_answer 254) The maximum permissible time-gap between two consecutive sessions of Parliament is
A)
3 months
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B)
2 months
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C)
6 months
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D)
4 months
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question_answer 255) Right to education to all children of the age-group of 6 to 14 years is
A)
a Directive Principle of State Policy
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B)
a Fundamental Right
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C)
a Statutory Right
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 256) A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is summoned by the
A)
Prime Minister
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B)
President
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C)
Members of Lok Sabha
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D)
Members of Rajya Sabha
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question_answer 257) Who among the following is called the First Law Officer of India?
A)
Attorney-General
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B)
Law Minister
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C)
Chief Justice
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D)
Law Secretary
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question_answer 258) The President can impose central rule on a State under
A)
Article 356
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B)
Article 256
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C)
Article 370
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D)
Article 377
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question_answer 259) How many members can the President nominate to the Rajya Sabha?
A)
12 members
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B)
18 members
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C)
6 members
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D)
15 members
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question_answer 260) World Bank is also known as
A)
International Bank for Research and Development
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B)
International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
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C)
International Bank for Refinance and Development
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D)
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
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question_answer 261) The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is at
A)
Manila
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B)
Singapore
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C)
Delhi
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D)
Bangkok
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question_answer 262) CAPART is engaged primarily in
A)
e-governance
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B)
share market
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C)
rural development
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D)
pollution control
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question_answer 263) The difference between the GNP and the NNP is equal to the
A)
consumer expenditure on durable goods
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B)
indirect tax revenue
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C)
direct tax revenue
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D)
capital depreciation
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question_answer 264) Bank rate is the rate at which the RBI provides loans to
A)
Public Sector Undertakings
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B)
Private Corporate Sector
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C)
Scheduled Commercial Banks
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D)
Non-Banking Financial institutions
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question_answer 265) Which sector of Indias economy employs the maximum number of people?
A)
Primary sector
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B)
Secondary sector
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C)
Tertiary sector
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 266) What does AGMARK signify?
A)
A quality guarantee stamp for agricultural produce
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B)
Regulated agricultural produce markets
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C)
Farmers cooperatives
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D)
A cooperative for egg production
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question_answer 267) The term Green Revolution indicates higher production through
A)
enhanced agricultural productivity
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B)
planting more trees
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C)
creation of grasslands
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D)
creation of garden in urban areas
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question_answer 268) Wall Street is
A)
the financial centre of USA
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B)
the newspaper centre of Britain
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C)
the great wall of China
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D)
a renowned street in France
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question_answer 269) GDP is defined as the value of all
A)
final value of goods and saw produced in an economy in a year
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B)
goods and services produced in, economy in a year
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C)
final goods produced in an economy in year
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D)
goods produced in an economy in a year
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question_answer 270) ATM stands for
A)
Automatic Tally Machine
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B)
Automotive Teller Machine
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C)
Automatic Teller Machine
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D)
Automated Tally Mechanism
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question_answer 271) Which States of India benefited most from Green Revolution?
A)
Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh
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B)
Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
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C)
Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and Asom
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D)
Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
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question_answer 272) Who is the brand ambassador of Thums Up?
A)
Salman Khan
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B)
Amir Khan
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C)
Akshay Kumar
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D)
Shahrukh Khan
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question_answer 273) When was the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) absorbed into the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
A)
1991
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B)
2000
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C)
1995
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D)
2005
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question_answer 274) The First Five Year Plan adopted
A)
Harrod Domar model
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B)
Mahalanobis model
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C)
Lewis Fei model
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D)
Stalin model
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question_answer 275) The Mid-day Meal Scheme was launched by the Union Ministry of
A)
Home Affairs
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B)
Social Welfare
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C)
HRD
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 276) Public Distribution System was launched to
A)
prevent hoarding and black-marketing
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B)
provide food security to the poor
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C)
prevent overcharging by traders
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 277) Which year is known as the Year of Great Divide with respect to population growth in India?
A)
1947
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B)
1921
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C)
1911
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 278) Which type of unemployment can occur even in a situation of full employment?
A)
Structural unemployment
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B)
Functional unemployment
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C)
Cyclical unemployment
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D)
Disguised unemployment
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question_answer 279) The number of companies covered under the BSE Sensex is
A)
20
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B)
25
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C)
30
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D)
50
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question_answer 280) Nuclear fission is caused by the impact of
A)
proton
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B)
electron
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C)
neutron
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 281) Which of the following has the least penetrating power?
A)
Alpha particles
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B)
Beta panicles
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C)
Gamma rays
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D)
All have the same penetrating power
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question_answer 282) Which of the following are the discoveries of Einstein?
A)
Radioactivity and photoelectric effect
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B)
Radioactivity and theory of relativity
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C)
Theory of relativity and photoelectric effect
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D)
X-rays and photoelectric effect
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question_answer 283) Cryogenic engines find applications in
A)
rocket technology
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B)
frost-free refrigerators
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C)
submarine propulsion
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D)
researches in superconductivity
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question_answer 284) Optic fibres are mainly use for which of the following?
A)
Communication
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B)
Weaving
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C)
Musical instruments
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D)
Food industry
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question_answer 285) Which of the following is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors?
A)
Heavy water
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B)
Cadmium
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C)
Liquid sodium
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D)
Graphite
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question_answer 286) Which of the following is the lightest metal?
A)
Mercury
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B)
Silver
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C)
Lithium
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D)
Lead
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question_answer 287) An alloy used in making heating elements for electric heating devices is
A)
solder
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B)
alloy steel
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C)
nichrome
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D)
German silver
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question_answer 288) Carbon, diamond and graphite are together called
A)
isomers
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B)
allotropes
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C)
isomorphs
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D)
isotopes
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question_answer 289) Which of the following is used in beauty parlours for hair setting?
A)
Chlorine
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B)
Sulphur
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C)
Phosphorus
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D)
Silicon
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question_answer 290) Balloons are filled with
A)
helium
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B)
oxygen
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C)
nitrogen
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D)
argon
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question_answer 291) Which of the following compounds are responsible for acid rain? 1. Nitrogen dioxide 2. Silicon dioxide 3. Sulphur dioxide 4. Carbon monoxide Select the correct answer from the codes given below
A)
1 and 2
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B)
1 and 3
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C)
2 and 4
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D)
3 and 4
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question_answer 292) Washing soda is the common name for
A)
calcium carbonate
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B)
calcium bicarbonate
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C)
sodium carbonate
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D)
sodium bicarbonate
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question_answer 293) A person who lives exclusively on milk, egg and bread is likey to become a victim of
A)
rickets
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B)
scurvy
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C)
xerophthalmia
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 294) During sleep a mans blood pressure
A)
increases
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B)
decreases
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C)
remains constant
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D)
fluctuates
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question_answer 295) Ready source of energy available for athletes is
A)
carbohydrates
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B)
fats
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C)
proteins
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D)
vitamins
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question_answer 296) Alzheimers disease in human beings is characterized by the degeneration of
A)
kideny cells
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B)
nerve cells
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C)
brain cells
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D)
liver cells
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question_answer 297) The pH of human blood is between
A)
6.5-7
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B)
7.5-8
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C)
8-9
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D)
4.5-5
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question_answer 298) Flower colors are due to
A)
chlorophyll
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B)
melanin
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C)
phytochromes
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D)
anthocyanin
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question_answer 299) Which vitamin is provided by sunlight to die body?
A)
Vitamin-A
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B)
Vitamin-B
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C)
Vitamin-C
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D)
Vitamin-D
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question_answer 300) Human body is
A)
heart
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B)
liver
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C)
kidney
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D)
brain
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