Solved papers for BVP Medical BVP Medical Solved Paper-2012

BVP Medical Solved Paper-2012 Total Questions - 200

1) Two bodies A and B having temperatures \[0.31\] and \[0.81\] are radiating heat to the surrounding. The surrounding temperature is \[0.42\]. The ratio of rate of heat radiation of A to that of B is

A)

\[{{r}_{A}}\]

B)

\[{{r}_{B}}\]

C)

\[{{v}_{A}}\]

D)

\[{{v}_{B}}\]

View Answer
2) Two bulbs 40 W and 60 W and rated voltage 240 V are connected in series across a potential difference of 420 V. Which bulb will work at above its rated voltage?

A)

40 W bulb

B)

60 W bulb

C)

Both will work

D)

None of the above

View Answer
3) Two cars A and B move along a concentric circular path of radius \[\frac{{{v}_{A}}}{{{v}_{B}}}\] and \[\frac{{{r}_{B}}}{{{r}_{A}}}\] with velocities \[\frac{{{r}_{A}}}{{{r}_{B}}}\] and \[\frac{r_{A}^{2}}{R_{B}^{2}}\] maintaining constant distance, then \[\frac{R_{B}^{2}}{R_{A}^{2}}\] is equal to

A)

\[3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[-3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[-0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
4) A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a constant velocity of 10 m/s. When a constant force acts for 4 s on it, it moves with a velocity 2 m/s in the opposite directions. The acceleration produced in it is

A)

\[4:1\]

B)

\[1:3\]

C)

\[3:1\]

D)

\[1:9\]

View Answer
5) The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities of two sources is \[1:16\]. The ratio of their amplitudes is

A)

\[6m/s\]

B)

\[4m/s\]

C)

\[2m/s\]

D)

\[1m/s\]

View Answer
6) A weight w is suspended from the mid-point of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In order to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be

A)

less than w

B)

equal to w

C)

equal to 2w

D)

infinitely large

View Answer
7) The velocity of a particle at an instant is 10 m/s. After 3 s its velocity will become 16 m/s. The velocity at 2 s, before the given instant will be

A)

\[10m/s\]

B)

\[7m/s\]

C)

\[12m/s\]

D)

\[\frac{2v(n-1)}{n}\]

View Answer
8)  A heavy stone hanging from a massless string of length 15 m is projected horizontally with speed 147 m/s. The speed of the particle at the point where the tension in the string equals the weight of the particle is?

A)

\[\frac{v(n-1)}{n}\]

B)

\[\frac{v(n+1)}{n}\]

C)

\[\frac{v(n+1)}{n}\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
9) When a body moves with constant speed in a circular path, then

A)

work done will be zero

B)

acceleration will be zero

C)

no force acts on the body

D)

its velocity remains constant

View Answer
10) A body initially at rest is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its velocity after n second is v. The displacement of the body in

A)

\[{{327}^{o}}C\]

B)

\[{{427}^{o}}C\]

C)

\[{{27}^{o}}C\]

D)

\[0.52\]

View Answer
11) The magnetic force on a point charge is \[0.31\] Here, q = electric charge v = velocity of point charge B = magnetic field The dimensions of B is

A)

\[0.81\]

B)

\[0.42\]

C)

\[{{r}_{A}}\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
12) The first diffraction minimum due to single slit diffraction is \[\theta \], for a light of wavelength \[{{r}_{B}}\]. If the width of the slit is \[{{v}_{A}}\], then the value of \[\theta \] is

A)

\[{{v}_{B}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{v}_{A}}}{{{v}_{B}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{r}_{B}}}{{{r}_{A}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{r}_{A}}}{{{r}_{B}}}\]

View Answer
13) A stone of mass m tied to a string of length l is rotated in a circle with the other end of the string as the centre. The speed of the stone is v. If the string breaks, the stone will

A)

move towards the centre

B)

move away from the centre

C)

move along tangent

D)

stop

View Answer
14) A body of mass 2 kg is placed on rough horizontal plane. The coefficient of friction between body and plane is 0.2. Then,

A)

body will move in forward direction if F= 5N

B)

body will move in backward direction with acceleration \[\frac{r_{A}^{2}}{R_{B}^{2}}\], if force F = 3N

C)

If F = 3 N, then body will be in rest condition

D)

Both (a) and (b) are correct

View Answer
15) A particle moves with a velocity \[\frac{R_{B}^{2}}{R_{A}^{2}}\] under the influence of a constant force \[3m/{{s}^{2}}\]. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is

A)

\[-3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[-0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[4:1\]

View Answer
16) The potential energy of a particle of mass 5 kg moving in the xy-plane is given by \[1:3\], x and y being in metre. If the particle starts from rest from origin, then speed of particle at t= 2 s is

A)

\[3:1\]

B)

\[1:9\]

C)

\[1:16\]

D)

\[6m/s\]

View Answer
17) The ratio of radii of gyration of a circular disc and a circular ring of the same radii and same mass about a tangential axis in the plane is

A)

\[4m/s\]

B)

\[2m/s\]

C)

\[1m/s\]

D)

\[10m/s\]

View Answer
18) A particle performs uniform circular motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency of particle motion is doubled and its KE is halved, the angular momentum becomes

A)

\[7m/s\]

B)

\[12m/s\]

C)

\[\frac{2v(n-1)}{n}\]

D)

\[\frac{v(n-1)}{n}\]

View Answer
19) The minimum energy required to launch a m kg satellite from earths surface in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R, R is the radius of earth, will be

A)

\[\frac{v(n+1)}{n}\]

B)

\[\frac{2v(n+1)}{n}\]

C)

\[\frac{2v(n+1)}{n}\]

D)

\[{{327}^{o}}C\]

View Answer
20) A satellite is moving on a circular path of radius r around the earth has a time period T. If its radius slightly increases by \[{{427}^{o}}C\], the change in its time period is

A)

\[{{27}^{o}}C\]

B)

\[0.52\]

C)

\[0.31\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
21) A particle executes SHM, its time period is 16 s. If its passes through the centre of   oscillation then its velocity is 2 m/s at time 2 s. The amplitude will be

A)

\[0.81\]

B)

\[0.42\]

C)

\[{{r}_{A}}\]

D)

\[{{r}_{B}}\]

View Answer
22) A simple harmonic oscillator has amplitude A, angular velocity co, and mass m. Then, average energy in one time period will be

A)

\[{{v}_{A}}\]

B)

\[{{v}_{B}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{v}_{A}}}{{{v}_{B}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{r}_{B}}}{{{r}_{A}}}\]

View Answer
23) The wave front due to a source situated at infinity is

A)

spherical

B)

cylindrical

C)

planar

D)

None of these

View Answer
24) An astronaut is approaching the moon. He sends out a radio signal of frequency 5000 MHz and the frequency of echo is different from that of the original frequency by 100 kHz. His velocity of approach with respect to the moon is

A)

\[\frac{{{r}_{A}}}{{{r}_{B}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{r_{A}^{2}}{R_{B}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{R_{B}^{2}}{R_{A}^{2}}\]

D)

\[3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
25) When a sphere is taken to bottom of sea 1 km deep, it contracts by 0.01%. The bulk modulus of elasticity of the material of sphere is (Given : Density of water\[-3m/{{s}^{2}}\])

A)

\[0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[-0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[4:1\]

D)

\[1:3\]

View Answer
26) The temperature of \[3:1\] at which the rms velocity of its molecules is seven times the rms velocity of the molecules of nitrogen at 300 K is

A)

\[1:9\]

B)

\[1:16\]

C)

\[6m/s\]

D)

\[4m/s\]

View Answer
27) Gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container because

A)

gas has weight

B)

gas molecules have momentum

C)

gas molecules collide with each other

D)

gas molecules collide with the walls of the container

View Answer
28) The inside and outside temperatures of a   refrigerator are 273 K and 303 K respectively. Assuming that refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be

A)

\[2m/s\]

B)

\[1m/s\]

C)

\[10m/s\]

D)

\[7m/s\]

View Answer
29) The wave number of stokes and anti-stokes lines in Raman spectrum are \[12m/s\] and \[\frac{2v(n-1)}{n}\]respectively. The wave number of exciting line is

A)

\[\frac{v(n-1)}{n}\]

B)

\[\frac{v(n+1)}{n}\]

C)

\[\frac{2v(n+1)}{n}\]

D)

\[{{327}^{o}}C\]

View Answer
30) The surface temperature of the sun is T K and the solar constant for a plate is S. The sun subtends an angle 9 at the planet. Then,

A)

\[{{427}^{o}}C\]

B)

\[{{27}^{o}}C\]

C)

\[0.52\]

D)

\[0.31\]

View Answer
31) A body at a temperature of \[0.81\] and has surface area\[0.42\], radiates 300 J of energy each minute. The emissivity is (Given : Boltzman constant \[{{r}_{A}}\])

A)

e = 0.18

B)

e = 0.02

C)

e = 0.2

D)

e = 0.15

View Answer
32) If at NTP velocity of sound in a gas is 1150 m/s, then the rms velocity of gas molecules at NTP is (Given \[{{r}_{B}}\])

A)

\[{{v}_{A}}\]

B)

\[{{v}_{B}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{v}_{A}}}{{{v}_{B}}}\]

D)

zero

View Answer
33) If \[\frac{{{r}_{B}}}{{{r}_{A}}}\] = surface charge density, E = electric permittivity, the dimensions of \[\frac{{{r}_{A}}}{{{r}_{B}}}\] are same as

A)

electric force

B)

electric field intensity

C)

pressure

D)

electric charge

View Answer
34) For circuit the equivalent capacitance between P and Q is

A)

\[\frac{r_{A}^{2}}{R_{B}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{R_{B}^{2}}{R_{A}^{2}}\]

C)

\[3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[-3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
35) Masses m and M on pulley move 0.6 m in 4 s. What is ratio of \[0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]?

A)

\[-0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[4:1\]

C)

\[1:3\]

D)

\[3:1\]

View Answer
36) n-alpha particles per second are emitted from N atoms of a radioactive element. The half-life of radioactive element is

A)

\[1:9\]

B)

\[1:16\]

C)

\[6m/s\]

D)

\[4m/s\]

View Answer
37) In nuclear reaction, \[2m/s\] where, M denotes

A)

electron

B)

positron

C)

proton

D)

neutron

View Answer
38) In terms of Rydberg constant R, the wave number of the first Banner line is

A)

R

B)

\[1m/s\]

C)

\[10m/s\]

D)

\[7m/s\]

View Answer
39) Three particles having charges in the ratio of 2:3:5, produce the same point on the photographic film in Thomson experiment. Their masses are in the ratio of

A)

\[12m/s\]

B)

\[\frac{2v(n-1)}{n}\]

C)

\[\frac{v(n-1)}{n}\]

D)

\[\frac{v(n+1)}{n}\]

View Answer
40) Polarisation of light proves

A)

corpuscular nature of light

B)

quantum nature of light

C)

transverse wave nature of light

D)

longitudinal wave nature of light

View Answer
41) In Youngs double slit experiment, the spacing between the slits is d and wavelength of light used is \[\frac{2v(n+1)}{n}\]. If the angular width of a fringe formed on a distant screen is 1°, then value of d is

A)

\[{{327}^{o}}C\]

B)

\[{{427}^{o}}C\]

C)

\[{{27}^{o}}C\]

D)

\[0.52\]

View Answer
42) Considering normal incidence of ray, the equivalent refractive index of combination of two slabs shown in figure is

A)

\[0.31\]

B)

\[0.81\]

C)

\[0.42\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
43) The electric field E and magnetic field B in electromagnetic waves are

A)

parallel to each other

B)

inclined at an angle of \[{{r}_{A}}\]

C)

perpendicular to each other

D)

opposite to each other

View Answer
44) The correct option, if speed of gamma rays,     X-rays and micro waves are \[{{r}_{B}}\] and \[{{v}_{A}}\] respectively will be

A)

\[{{v}_{B}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{v}_{A}}}{{{v}_{B}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{r}_{B}}}{{{r}_{A}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{r}_{A}}}{{{r}_{B}}}\]

View Answer
45) The wavelength of a radio wave of frequency of 1 MHz is

A)

\[\frac{r_{A}^{2}}{R_{B}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{R_{B}^{2}}{R_{A}^{2}}\]

C)

\[3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[-3m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
46) An AC is represented by \[0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\] V and is applied over a resistance of \[-0.3m/{{s}^{2}}\]. The heat produced in 7 min is

A)

\[4:1\]

B)

\[1:3\]

C)

\[3:1\]

D)

\[1:9\]

View Answer
47) The couple acting on a magnet of length 10 cm and pole strength 15 Am, kept in a field of \[1:16\] at an angle of \[6m/s\], is

A)

\[4m/s\]

B)

\[2m/s\]

C)

\[1m/s\]

D)

\[10m/s\]

View Answer
48) At a point on the right bisector of a magnetic dipole, the magnetic

A)

potential varies as \[7m/s\]

B)

potential is zero at all points on the right bisector

C)

field varies as \[12m/s\]

D)

field is perpendicular to the axis of dipole

View Answer
49) In the given figure, the loop is fixed but straight wire can move. The straight wire will

A)

remain stationary

B)

move towards the loop

C)

move away from the loop

D)

rotates about the axis

View Answer
50) If two identical heaters each rated as (1000 W, 220 V) are connected in parallel to 220 V, then the total power consumed is

A)

200 W

B)

2500 W

C)

250 W

D)

2000 W

View Answer
51) Formula of gypsum is

A)

\[{{(CaS{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}.{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[CaS{{O}_{4}}.\frac{1}{2}{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[CaS{{O}_{4}}.\,\,2{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[CaS{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
52) \[\text{ }\!\!\alpha\!\!\text{ -}\]sulphur and \[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ -}\]sulphur are in a state of equilibrium at

A)

critical temperature

B)

Boyles temperature

C)

any temperature

D)

transition temperature

View Answer
53) The purification method that is represented by \[Ti+2{{I}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}Ti{{I}_{4}}\xrightarrow{\Delta }Ti+2{{I}_{2}}\] is called

A)

Monds process

B)

Zone-refining

C)

liquation

D)

van-Arkel process

View Answer
54) Which of the following substances consists of only one element?

A)

Marble

B)

Sand

C)

Diamond

D)

Glass

View Answer
55) Which one of the following cations gives a brick red flame by flame test?

A)

\[B{{a}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[S{{r}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[C{{a}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[Z{{n}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
56) For which element of first transition series, the     oxidation     potential     value \[(M\to {{M}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}})\] is lowest?

A)

\[Mn\]

B)

\[Fe\]

C)

\[Ni\]

D)

\[Cu\]

View Answer
57) A compound of zinc which is white in cold state and yellow in hot state, is

A)

\[ZnS\]

B)

\[ZnO\]

C)

\[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[ZnS{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
58) Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

A)

\[{{[Cu{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]}^{2+}}\]    - Square planar

B)

\[[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}]\]                        - Neutral ligand

C)

\[{{[Fe{{(C{{N}_{6}})}_{4}}]}^{3-}}\]     \[-s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}}\]

D)

\[{{[Co{{(en)}_{3}}]}^{3+}}\]                      - Follows EAN rule

View Answer
59) The compound which does not show par magnetism, is

A)

\[[Cu{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]C{{l}_{2}}\]

B)

\[[Ag{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}]Cl\]

C)

\[NO\]

D)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
60) The activation energy for a reaction at the temperature T K was found to be 2.303 RT J \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. The ratio of the rate constant to Arrhenius factor is

A)

\[{{10}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-2}}\]

C)

\[2\times {{10}^{-3}}\]

D)

\[2\times {{10}^{-2}}\]

View Answer
61) An element forms a solid oxide which when dissolved in water, forms an acidic solution. The element is

A)

neon

B)

sodium

C)

phosphorus

D)

sulphur

View Answer
62) What is the product obtained when \[MnS{{O}_{4}}\] in solution is boiled with \[Pb{{O}_{2}}\]and concentrated \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]?

A)

\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[HMn{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[M{{n}_{3}}{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[PbMn{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
63) Lead nitrate on heating gives lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen. This reaction is known as

A)

combustion

B)

combination

C)

displacement

D)

decomposition

View Answer
64) The number of d-electrons in \[[Cr{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{4}}]\] is

A)

2

B)

3

C)

4

D)

5

View Answer
65) Coordination number for copper \[(Cu)\] is

A)

1

B)

6

C)

8

D)

12

View Answer
66) Silver nitrate on heating gives

A)

\[AgO\] and \[N{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[AgO\] , \[NO\] and \[{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[Ag\] and \[N{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[Ag\], \[N{{O}_{2}}\] and \[{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
67) Which one of the following is an example of a true peroxide?

A)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[Ba{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
68) The molarity of 98% \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] (d= 1.8 g/mL) by weight, is

A)

\[6M\]

B)

\[18M\]

C)

\[10M\]

D)

\[4M\]

View Answer
69) 20 mL of 10 N \[HCl\] are mixed with 10 mL of 36 N \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] and the mixture is made 1 L. Normality of the mixture will be

A)

\[0.56N\]

B)

\[0.50N\]

C)

\[0.40N\]

D)

\[0.35N\]

View Answer
70) The energy of an electron in the 3rd orbit of an atom is \[-E\]. The energy of an electron in the first orbit will be

A)

\[-3E\]

B)

\[-\frac{E}{3}\]

C)

\[-\frac{E}{9}\]

D)

\[-9E\]

View Answer
71) Which emits P-particles?

A)

\[_{1}^{3}H\]

B)

\[_{6}^{14}C\]

C)

\[_{19}^{40}K\]

D)

All of these

View Answer
72) What is X in the nuclear reaction\[_{7}^{14}N+_{1}^{1}H\xrightarrow{{}}_{8}^{15}O+X\]?

A)

\[_{1}^{1}H\]

B)

\[_{0}^{1}n\]

C)

\[\gamma \]

D)

\[_{-1}^{0}e\]

View Answer
73) Which one of the following does not involve coagulation?

A)

Formation of delta regions

B)

Peptization

C)

Treatment of drinking water by potash alum

D)

Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride

View Answer
74) Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using

A)

Fehlings solution

B)

Sodium hydroxide solution

C)

2, 4-DNP

D)

Tollens reagent

View Answer
75) For the chemical reaction \[A\xrightarrow{{}}E\], it is found that the rate of the reaction doubles when the concentration of A is increased four times. The order in terms of A for this reaction is

A)

two

B)

one

C)

zero

D)

half

View Answer
76) Consider the following gaseous equilibria with equilibrium constants \[{{K}_{1}}\] and \[{{K}_{2}}\] respectively \[S{{O}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)S{{O}_{3}}(g)\]\[2S{{O}_{3}}(g)2S{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\] The equilibrium constants are related as

A)

\[K_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{{{K}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[2{{K}_{1}}=K_{2}^{2}\]

C)

\[{{K}_{2}}=\frac{2}{K_{1}^{2}}\]

D)

\[K_{2}^{2}=\frac{1}{{{K}_{1}}}\]

View Answer
77) Which one of the following is paramagnetic?

A)

\[{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

C)

\[He\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
78) The compound which is non-linear is

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[C{{S}_{2}}\]

C)

\[HgC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
79) The valency of the element having atomic number 9 is

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

View Answer
80) From the knowledge of the position of radium in the Periodic Table, which of the following statements would you expect to be false?

A)

\[RaS{{O}_{4}}\] is insoluble in water

B)

\[RaS{{O}_{4}}\] is insoluble in \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[RaS{{O}_{4}}\] is a white solid

D)

\[RaS{{O}_{4}}\] is a colourless liquid

View Answer
81) Hexa-2-ene-4-yne is

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C\equiv C-CH\equiv C{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-C\equiv C-CH=CH-C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}-CH=CH-C\equiv CH\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-C\equiv C-C{{H}_{2}}-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
82) The number of unpaired electrons in carbon atom is

A)

one

B)

two

C)

three

D)

four

View Answer
83) The end product of 4n series is

A)

\[_{82}^{208}Pb\]

B)

\[_{82}^{207}Pb\]

C)

\[_{82}^{209}Pb\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
84) Which statement is correct?

A)

Ethanol is more acidic than phenol

B)

Phenol is more acidic than ethanol

C)

Phenol is more acidic than benzoic acid

D)

Acidity of phenol and benzoic acid is about equal

View Answer
85) Which chloride is least reactive with the hydrolysis point of view?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}Cl\]

C)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}CCl\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-Cl\]

View Answer
86) The reaction of acetone with \[PC{{l}_{5}}\] gives

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{2}}Cl\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COCHC{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

D)

\[ClC{{H}_{2}}COC{{H}_{2}}Cl\]

View Answer
87) Towards electrophonic reagents

A)

ethene is more reactive than ethyne

B)

ethene is less reactive than ethyne

C)

both have equal reactivity

D)

the reactivity of both cannot be predicted

View Answer
88) On heating a mixture of sodium benzoate and soda lime, ...... is formed.

A)

toluene

B)

phenol

C)

benzene

D)

benzoic acid

View Answer
89) In the following reaction,\[2C{{H}_{2}}=C{{H}_{2}}+{{S}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\to \Pr oduct\]The product is

A)

mustard gas

B)

lewisite

C)

polythene

D)

Teflon

View Answer
90) What is the initial product of the acidic hydrolysis of a cyanide?

A)

A primary amide

B)

An isocyanide

C)

An isocyanate

D)

A nitrile

View Answer
91) In the preparation of nylon-6 from cyclohexanone oxime, use is made of a rearrangement reaction. This rearrangement reaction is called

A)

Wolff rearrangement

B)

Amadori rearrangement

C)

Curtius rearrangement

D)

Beckmann rearrangement

View Answer
92) In the reaction,\[C{{l}_{2}}+C{{H}_{4}}\xrightarrow{hv}C{{H}_{3}}Cl+HCl\]presence of a small amount of oxygen

A)

increases the rate of reaction for a brief period of time

B)

decreases the rate of reaction for a brief period of time

C)

does not affect the rate of reaction

D)

completely stops the reaction

View Answer
93) An example of a lipid is

A)

lard

B)

keratin

C)

glutathione

D)

oxytocin

View Answer
94) Which of the following reagents can be used for distinguishing the three classes of alcohols?

A)

Fentons reagent

B)

Lucas reagent

C)

Schiffs reagent

D)

Tollens reagent

View Answer
95) Natural rubber is

A)

a polymer of 1, 3-butadiene

B)

a polymer of ethylene

C)

a polymer of 2-methyl-l, 3-butadiene

D)

a polymer of styrene

View Answer
96) In alkaline medium, alanine exists predominantly as

A)

anion

B)

Zwitter ion

C)

cation

D)

covalent form

View Answer
97) Number of resonating structures for Dewars benzene will be

A)

one

B)

two

C)

three

D)

four

View Answer
98) Which of the following reactions can be used for the synthesis of an alkene?

A)

Chugaev reaction

B)

Dakin reaction

C)

Reimer-Tiemann reaction

D)

Wurtz-Fittig reaction

View Answer
99) The reaction,\[{{R}_{2}}C=NN{{H}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}ONa}{{R}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}+{{N}_{2}}\] is called

A)

Clemmensen reduction

B)

Hunsdiecker reaction

C)

Tischenko reaction

D)

Wolff-Kishner reduction

View Answer
100) Molecules of a noble gas do not possess vibrational energy because a noble gas

A)

is monoatomic

B)

is chemically inert

C)

has completely filled shells

D)

is diamagnetic

View Answer
101) The number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule is

A)

two

B)

three

C)

four

D)

eight

View Answer
102) The enzyme, which combines with non-protein part to form a functional enzyme known as

A)

co-enzyme

B)

holoenzyme

C)

apoenzyme

D)

prosthetic group

View Answer
103) Which of the following enzyme digest protein in stomach?

A)

Trypsin

B)

Pepsin

C)

Crepsin

D)

None of these

View Answer
104) Passive food ingestion in Amoeba is known as

A)

import

B)

invagination

C)

circumfluence

D)

circumvallation

View Answer
105) The slime moulds are characterized by the presence of

A)

elaters

B)

pseudoelaters

C)

capillitium

D)

capitulum

View Answer
106) Ecdysone is secreted from

A)

insecta

B)

trematoda

C)

nematoda

D)

polycheta

View Answer
107) In   the   life   cycle   of   mosquito, common-shaped stage is

A)

larval stage

B)

pupal stage

C)

imago stage

D)

None of these

View Answer
108) Haemocoel is found in

A)

Hydra and Aurelia

B)

Taenia and Ascaris

C)

Cockroach and Pila

D)

Balanoglossus and Herdmania

View Answer
109) The group of anamniota includes

A)

reptiles and birds

B)

birds and mammals

C)

fishes and amphibians

D)

reptiles and mammals

View Answer
110) The excretory material of bony fish is

A)

urea

B)

protein

C)

ammonia

D)

amino acid

View Answer
111) Different colours of frog skin are controlled by

A)

hormones

B)

melanocytes

C)

nervous system

D)

Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
112) Blastula of frog has

A)

blastopore

B)

blastocoel

C)

archenteron

D)

gastropore

View Answer
113) Carotene pigment is found in the cells of

A)

dermis

B)

epidermis

C)

adipose cell

D)

Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
114) Deboves membrane is a layer of

A)

muscular tissue

B)

epithelial tissue

C)

connective tissue

D)

All of these

View Answer
115) Achilles tendon is associated with

A)

gluteus muscle

B)

hamstring muscle

C)

quadriceps muscle

D)

gastrocnemius muscle

View Answer
116) The leucocytes contain, which of the following in large quantity?

A)

Basophils

B)

Neutrophils

C)

Eosinophils

D)

Monocytes

View Answer
117) Which part of our body secreted the hormone secretin?

A)

Ileum

B)

Stomach

C)

Duodenum

D)

Oesophagus

View Answer
118) During inspiration, the diaphragm

A)

expands

B)

shows no change

C)

contracts and flattens

D)

relaxes to become dome-shaped

View Answer
119) The oxygen toxicity is related with

A)

blood poisoning

B)

collapse of alveolar walls

C)

failure of ventilation of lungs

D)

Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
120) Cardiac output is determined by

A)

heart rate

B)

stroke volume

C)

blood flow

D)

Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
121) The important function of lymph is to

A)

transport oxygen to the brain

B)

transport carbon dioxide to the lungs

C)

return RBCs to the lymph nodes

D)

return interstitial fluid to the blood

View Answer
122) The lining of intestine and kidneys in humans is

A)

keratinized

B)

brush border

C)

ciliated

D)

None of these

View Answer
123) The yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of

A)

urea

B)

uric acid

C)

urochrome

D)

bilirubin

View Answer
124) The Leydig cells secrete

A)

oestrogen

B)

testosterone

C)

progesterone

D)

corticosterone

View Answer
125) The function of pineal body is to

A)

lighten the skin colours

B)

control sexual behavior

C)

regulates the period of puberty

D)

All of the above

View Answer
126) Biomagnification refers to

A)

rapid growth due to excessive intake of nutrients

B)

increase in population size

C)

decrease in population size

D)

increase in concentration of non-degradable pollutants as they pass through food chain

View Answer
127) During the conduction of never impulse, the action potential is the result of movement of

A)

                                                                                                              \[N{{a}^{+}}\]    from   intracellular   fluid   to extracellular fluid

B)

                                                                                                              \[N{{a}^{+}}\]    from   extracellular   fluid   to intracellular fluid

C)

                                                                                                              \[N{{a}^{+}}\] towards both directions

D)

None of the above

View Answer
128) The AIDS virus spreads through

A)

killer-T cells

B)

helper-T cells

C)

suppressor-T cells

D)

carrier-T cells

View Answer
129) Apis dorsata refers to

A)

rock bee

B)

little bee

C)

Indian bee

D)

European bee

View Answer
130) Which are the longest cells in the body of man?

A)

Muscle cells of legs

B)

Bone cells

C)

Nerve cells

D)

None of the above

View Answer
131) \[CO\] is more toxic than \[C{{O}_{2}}\] because

A)

it affects the nervous system

B)

it damages lungs

C)

it reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin

D)

it forms acid with water

View Answer
132) Leprosy is also called as

A)

Hansens disease

B)

sarcoma

C)

slim disease

D)

leukaemia

View Answer
133) Which of the following is not a character of Chordata?

A)

Dorsal tubular nerve cord

B)

Pharyngeal gill slits

C)

Presence of notochord

D)

Presence of spinal cord

View Answer
134) Vitamin essential for proper functioning of liver and clotting of blood is

A)

vitamin-K

B)

vitamin-A

C)

vitamin-E

D)

vitamin-                                                                                                                 \[{{B}_{2}}\]

View Answer
135) Cancer causing genes (oncogenes) were discovered by

A)

Watson and Crick

B)

Beadle and Tatum

C)

Bishop and Varamus

D)

Temin and Baltimore

View Answer
136) Beak is toothed in

A)

pelican

B)

kiwi

C)

ostrich

D)

Archaeopteryx

View Answer
137) The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction was proposed by

A)

AF Huxley and AP Pullman

B)

AF Huxley and HE Huxley

C)

B Pullman and AF Huxley

D)

A Pullman and E Pullman

View Answer
138) Which one is uricotelic?

A)

Frog and toads

B)

Lizards and birds/cockroach

C)

Cattle, monkey and man

D)

Molluscs and teleost fishes

View Answer
139) Interacting populations are

A)

symbiotic

B)

mutualistic

C)

parasitic

D)

coevolved

View Answer
140) Salamandra atra is

A)

ovoviviparous

B)

oviparous

C)

sexually sterile

D)

parthenogenetic

View Answer
141) Flying fish is

A)

Torpedo

B)

Scoliodon

C)

Anguilla

D)

Exocoetus

View Answer
142) Tay-Sachs disease is due to

A)

sex-linked recessive gene

B)

sex-linked dominant gene

C)

autosomal dominant gene

D)

autosomal recessive gene

View Answer
143)  The earliest fossil form in phylogeny of horse is

A)

Merychippus

B)

Mesohippus

C)

Eohippus

D)

Equus

View Answer
144) What is true about vein?

A)

All veins carry deoxygenated blood

B)

All veins carry oxygenated blood

C)

They carry blood from organs towards heart

D)

They carry blood from heart towards organs

View Answer
145) Autosomes in humans are

A)

11 pairs

B)

22 pairs

C)

23 pairs

D)

43 pairs

View Answer
146) Haeckels biogenetic law or recapitulation theory states that

A)

life history of an animal reflects evolutionary history of the same

B)

progeny resembles parents

C)

mutations are acquired characters

D)

all organisms begin their life from zygote

View Answer
147) A colourblind mother and normal father would have

A)

colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters

B)

colour blind sons and daughters

C)

all colour blind

D)

all normal

View Answer
148) Cranial capacity of modem man is

A)

450-650 cc

B)

660-1000 cc

C)

900-1100 cc

D)

1200-1600 cc

View Answer
149) Inheritance of ABO blood groups illustrates

A)

polyploidy

B)

multiple allelism

C)

euploidy

D)

dominance

View Answer
150) The most primitive cell like chemical aggregates capable of growth and division were

A)

chemoautotrophs

B)

eobionts

C)

prokaryotes

D)

microspheres

View Answer
151) Plasmid is

A)

small extra chromosomal circular self replicating DNA that can carry genes into host organism

B)

bacteriophage

C)

DNA found in mitochondria

D)

DNA incorporated in bacterial chromosome

View Answer
152) A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is

A)

species

B)

genus

C)

order

D)

taxon

View Answer
153) Fermentation products of yeast are

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}O+C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

Methyl alcohol \[+C{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

Methyl alcohol + Water

D)

Ethyl alcohol \[+C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
154) Grafting is not possible in monocots because they

A)

lack cambium

B)

have scattered vascular bundles

C)

have parallel venation

D)

are herbaceous

View Answer
155) What is true about a gamospermous apospory?

A)

Formation of embryo from egg of embryo sac proliferated from a nucellar cell

B)

Formation of embryo from egg of embryo sac formed directly from megaspore mother cell

C)

Formation of embryo directly from nucellus

D)

Formation of embryo directly from integument

View Answer
156) RQ for fatty substance/fat is

A)

unit

B)

less than one

C)

more than one

D)

zero

View Answer
157) Seed which are able to withstand reduction in moisture and temperature are called

A)

dormant seeds

B)

recalcitrant seeds

C)

orthodox seeds

D)

non-viable seeds

View Answer
158) Enzyme required for transcription is

A)

RNA se

B)

End nuclease

C)

RNA polymerase

D)

DNA polymerase

View Answer
159) The synthetic hormone used as a weedicide is

A)

indole-3-acetic acid

B)

gibberellic acid

C)

2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid

D)

maleic hydrazide

View Answer
160) Which is present in monocot flowers?

A)

Sepals

B)

Petals

C)

Tepals

D)

None of these

View Answer
161) Anthesis means

A)

growth of pollen tube inside the carpel

B)

dehiscence of anthers

C)

opening of floral bud

D)

emergence of anthers

View Answer
162) Which one of the following contain agranal chloroplasts?

A)

\[{{C}_{3}}\]-plants

B)

Succulants

C)

\[{{C}_{4}}\]-plants

D)

Hydrophytes

View Answer
163) The process of multiplication of DNA from DNA is known as

A)

replication

B)

transversion

C)

transcription

D)

translation

View Answer
164) Phycobilins absorb light of wavelength

A)

\[670-700nm\]

B)

\[610-650mn\]

C)

\[500-650nm\]

D)

\[520-520nm\]

View Answer
165) For synthesis of one hexose sugar, how many times Calvin cycle is turned?

A)

12

B)

2

C)

6

D)

3

View Answer
166) The number of chlorophyll molecules in a quanta some is

A)

\[50-100\]

B)

\[200-250\]

C)

\[300-400\]

D)

\[500-600\]

View Answer
167) A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and fruits belong to

A)

pteridophytes

B)

mosses

C)

ferns

D)

gymnosperms

View Answer
168) Transpiration differ from evaporation in

A)

rate of water loss

B)

transpiration is a physiological process whereas, evaporation is physical process

C)

transpiration is a physical process, while evaporation is physiological process

D)

frequency of water loss

View Answer
169) Pigments common to all algae are

A)

chlorophyll-a and phycobilins

B)

chlorophyll-a and carotenoids

C)

chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-b

D)

chlorophyll-a) and carotenoids

View Answer
170) An antitranspirant is

A)

cobalt chloride

B)

mercury

C)

potassium

D)

phenyl mercuric acetate

View Answer
171) Crossing over in diploid organisms is responsible for

A)

dominance of genes

B)

linkage between genes

C)

recombination of linked genes

D)

segregation of alleles

View Answer
172) Active K+ exchange mechanism for opening and closing of stomata was given by

A)

Darwin

B)

Levit

C)

Scarth

D)

Khorana

View Answer
173) First geneticist, father of genetics was

A)

deVries

B)

Mendel

C)

Darwin

D)

Morgan

View Answer
174) Quiescent centre is found in root apex and acts as

A)

permanent source of active initiates

B)

reservoir of resistant cells

C)

reservoir of passive cells to form new root apex if root apex is damaged/killed

D)

All of the above

View Answer
175) A fruit developed from a condensed inflorescence is

A)

simple fruit

B)

aggregate fruit

C)

composite fruit

D)

exterior

View Answer
176) Acid rain are produced by

A)

excess \[N{{O}_{2}}\] and \[S{{O}_{2}}\] from burning fossil fuels

B)

excess production of \[N{{H}_{3}}\] by industry and coal gas

C)

excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion

D)

excess formation of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]by combustion and animal respiration

View Answer
177) The principal cereal crop of India/Asia is

A)

Sorghum

B)

barley

C)

wheat

D)

rice

View Answer
178) The stage of cell cycle when cell has undergone differentiation is

A)

\[{{G}_{0}}\]

B)

\[{{G}_{1}}\]

C)

\[{{G}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{G}_{4}}\]

View Answer
179) Principle protein of cilia and flagella is

A)

globulin

B)

fibrin

C)

flagellin

D)

tubulin

View Answer
180) Photosynthetic bacteria have

A)

pigment system I (only one pigment system)

B)

pigment system II

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

some other type

View Answer
181) Major coffee producing state of India is

A)

Tamil Nadu

B)

Kerala

C)

Karnataka

D)

Andhra Pradesh

View Answer
182) DNA/chromosome replication takes place during

A)

\[{{G}_{1}}\]-phase

B)

\[{{G}_{2}}\]-phase

C)

S-phase

D)

Prophase

View Answer
183) Active transport occurs

A)

against concentration gradient and requires ATP

B)

against concentration gradient and does not require ATP

C)

along concentration gradient but require ATP

D)

along concentration gradient but does not require ATP

View Answer
184) Two or more species occupying same or ovar lapping areas are

A)

sympatric

B)

sibling

C)

sub-species

D)

allopatric

View Answer
185) Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which donates electrons to oxygen is

A)

cytochrome -b

B)

cytochrome-c

C)

cytochrome - \[{{a}_{1}}\]

D)

cytochrome-\[{{a}_{3}}\]

View Answer
186) Dendrochronology is the study of

A)

height of a tree

B)

diameter of a tree

C)

age of the tree by counting the number of annual rings in the main stem

D)

None of the above

View Answer
187) A student wants to study metaphasic behaviour of chromosomes in a living cell. The technique most suitable is

A)

phase contrast microscope

B)

X-ray microscope

C)

cell fractionation

D)

scanning electron microscope

View Answer
188) Protonema is found in the life cycle of

A)

Spirogyra

B)

Rhizopus

C)

Escherichia

D)

Funaria

View Answer
189) Energy currency (reservoir) of the cells is

A)

AMP

B)

ATP

C)

RNA

D)

DNA

View Answer
190) An open collateral bundle is one in which

A)

xylem and phloem are separated by cambium

B)

xylem and phloem lie side by side

C)

cambium occurs on the out side of bundle

D)

cambium does not occur in the bundle

View Answer
191) Agar-agar commonly used in bacterial cultures and medication is obtained from

A)

Sargassum

B)

Gelidium

C)

Ulothrix

D)

Ulva

View Answer
192) Dikaryon formation is characteristic of

A)

Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes

B)

Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes

C)

Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes

D)

Phycomycetes and Zygomycetes

View Answer
193) Most effective wavelength of light for photosynthesis is

A)

green

B)

violet

C)

red

D)

yellow

View Answer
194) Divisions characteristic of Korper-Kappe theory are

A)

anticlinal

B)

T-type

C)

periclinal

D)

irregular

View Answer
195) Prothallus of fern has

A)

antheridia and archegonia on lower surface

B)

antheridia and archegonia on upper surface

C)

antheridia on upper surface and archegonia on lower

D)

antheridia on lower surface and archegonia on upper surface

View Answer
196) Male cone of Pinus possesses

A)

mega sporophylls

B)

microsporophylls

C)

anthers

D)

ligules

View Answer
197) \[{{C}_{4}}\]-plants, synthesis of sugars/final \[C{{O}_{2}}\] fixation occurs in

A)

palisade cells

B)

spongy cells

C)

undifferentiated mesophyll cells

D)

bundle sheath cells

View Answer
198) Cork cambium and vascular cambium are

A)

parts of secondary xylem and phloem

B)

parts of pericycle

C)

lateral meristems

D)

apical meristems

View Answer
199) First natural cytokinin was discovered by

A)

Skoog and Miller

B)

Letham

C)

Benson and Calvin

D)

Thimann and Went

View Answer
200) Grassland with scattered trees is

A)

savannah

B)

deciduous forest

C)

evergreen forest

D)

tropical rain forest

View Answer

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