What is a Writ of Quo Warranto?
A)
It is a writ from a superior court commanding some officer or particular authority to do a specific act
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B)
It is an order from a higher court to stop proceedings in a certain case
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C)
It is an order from the superior court to any official to show his right to the office
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D)
To produce the body of a person
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Which writ is issued to a detaining authority?
A)
Prohibition
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B)
Certiorari
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C)
Habeas Corpus
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D)
Mandamus
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The original Constitution classified Fundamental Rights into seven categories but now
A)
There are six
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B)
There are five
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C)
There are eight
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D)
They have been regrouped in three categories social, economic and political
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Freedom of speech under the Indian constitution is subject to reasonable restriction on the grounds of protection of
A)
Sovereignty and integrity of the country
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B)
The dignity of the office of the Prime Minister
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C)
Both [a] and [b]
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D)
None of the above
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Some of the Fundamental Rights are not available to the members of the armed forces. Who reserves the right to decide the same?
A)
The President
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B)
The Defence Minister
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C)
The Parliament
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D)
The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
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The Sikhs in India are permitted to carry Kirpan. Under which one of the following Fundamental Rights are they permitted to do so?
A)
right to freedom
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B)
right to freedom of religion
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C)
right to life and liberty
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D)
none of the above
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Which of the following statements are incorrect? 1. The Right to private property was removed from the constitution by the Forty-Second Amendment 2. The Right to private property which was granted by the original Constitution has been made more sacrosanct by the Forty-Fourth Amendment 3. The Right to property was never a Fundamental Right under the Indian Constitution 4. The Right to private property was granted by the original Constitution but it has later been removed from the list of Fundamental Rights
A)
1, 2 and 3
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B)
2, 3 and 4
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C)
1, 3 and 4
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D)
1 and 3
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The aims and objectives of the Constitution have been enshrined in:
A)
The Preamble
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B)
The chapter on Fundamental Rights
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C)
The chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy
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D)
All of these
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Which of the following Articles confer citizenship rights to the category of persons, who domiciled in the territory of India, either of whose parents was born in the territory of India, irrespective of the nationality of his parents or place of birth of such person?
A)
Art. 5 [a]
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B)
Art. 5 [b]
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C)
Art.5 [c]
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D)
None of the above
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Which of the following match are not correct? 1. Government of India Act: 1919 Dyarchy 2. Government of India Act, 1935: Provincial autonomy 3. Minto-Morley Reforms: Separate Electorate 4. Mountbatten Plan: Constituent assembly 5. Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946: Partition of India
Codes:
A)
4 and 5
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B)
1 and 4
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C)
1 and 5
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D)
2 and 3
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Who represented Parsis Community in Constituent Assembly:
A)
HP Modi
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B)
Frank Anthony
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C)
Harendra Coomar Mookerjee
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D)
Benegal Narsing Rau
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What indicates the unitary aspect of the Indian Constitution? (1) Single Citizenship (2) A Strong Centre (3) Single Constitution for Union and States (4) Centre Can Change Name and Boundaries of States (5) Single Unified Judiciary Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
1, 2 and 5
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B)
1, 2, 3 and 5
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C)
1, 4 and 5
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D)
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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A socialistic ideology is reflected in the Directive Principle, which calls for
A)
Securing equitable distribution of material resources of the country to prevent concentration of wealth
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B)
Promotion of cottage industries
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C)
Free and compulsory education for children upto 14 years of age
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D)
All the above
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A socialistic ideology is reflected in the Directive Principle, which calls for
A)
Securing equitable distribution of material resources of the country to prevent concentration of wealth
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B)
Promotion of cottage industries
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C)
Free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years of age
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D)
All the above
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In the event of non-enforcement of the Directive Principles of State Policy by the government, the citizen can approach:
A)
The High Court
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B)
The Supreme Court
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C)
Any court of his choice
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D)
None of these
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Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles: 1. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the Directive Principles from the Government of India Act, 1935. 2. The Directive Principles aim at realizing high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity enshrined in the Constitution. 3. The Directive Principles have to be kept in mind by the Government while formulating policy and framing laws 4. The Directive Principles are justice able. Of these statements:
A)
1, 3 and 4 are correct
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B)
2, 3 and 4 are correct
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C)
2 and 3 are correct
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D)
2 and 4 are correct
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Which of the following is not included in the list of Fundamental Duties (Article 51 A) in the Constitution?
A)
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
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B)
Secularism
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C)
To uphold and. protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
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D)
To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
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Fundamental Duties were introduced in the Constitution by the
A)
40th Amendment
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B)
42nd Amendment
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C)
43rd Amendment
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D)
44th Amendment
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The idea of Fundamental Duties is derived from:
A)
American Constitution
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B)
British Constitution
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C)
Russian Constitution
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D)
None of these
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The Prime Minister may chose his ministers from I. Lok Sabha II. Rajya Sabha III. Outside the Legislature
Codes:
A)
I only
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B)
II only
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C)
I and II
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D)
I, II and III
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The legislative powers of the President include all the following but
A)
The power to summon or prorogue the Houses of Parliament
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B)
The power to summon a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve a deadlock
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C)
The power of nominating 12 members to the Lok Sabha
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D)
The right to address either House at any time and to require the attendance of members for this purpose
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Regarding the powers and functions of the President, which of the following statements are correct? 1. All legislative proposals involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, have to be recommended by the President to the Parliament for consideration 2. He may direct the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court to take over a Particular case for disposal. 3. He calls upon the party enjoying majority in the Lok Sabha to choose its leader who is then appointed as the Prime Minister 4. No Money Bill or demand for grant can be introduced or moved in the Parliament unless it has been recommended by the President
Codes:
A)
1, 3, 4
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B)
2, 3, 4
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C)
1, 2, 4
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D)
3, 4
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Which of the following President Presidents died during his/their term of office? I. Dr. Rajendra Prasad II, Dr. Zakir Husain III. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan IV Fakharuddin Ali Ahmed Choose the correct answer from the code given below;
A)
I and II
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B)
II and IV
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C)
II and III
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D)
1 and IV
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Which of the following powers of the Prime Minister with regard to the Parliament are correct? 1. He has to justify the policy and program of his government on the floor of the Parliament 2. He makes all important policy announcements on the floor of the Parliament 3. He summons and prorogues the sessions of the Parliament 4. He can recommend the dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the President
Codes:
A)
1, 3, 4
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B)
2, 3, 4
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C)
1, 2, 3
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D)
1, 2, 4
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Which one of the following is part of the Electoral College for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
A)
Lok Sabha
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B)
Rajya Sabha
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C)
State Legislative Councils
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D)
State Legislative Assemblies
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The President of the Union of India has the same constitutional authority as the
A)
British Monarch
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B)
President of USA
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C)
President of France
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D)
President of USSR
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Consider the following: The President of India cannot be a dictator, because 1. The can be impeached for violation of Constitution 2. The ordinances issued by him require the approval of the Parliament. 3. The proclamation of Emergency requires Parliament's approval. 4. He has to act on the advice of Council of Ministers. Which of these are correct?
A)
1 and 2
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B)
2, 3 and 4
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C)
3 and 4
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D)
1 and 4
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Which of the following statements are correct? 1. In India all important laws are introduced in the Parliament by the Members of the Council of Ministers 2. The Bills introduced by the Council of Ministers are easily passed by the Lok Sabha because of the majority support at its disposal 3. The Bill introduced by a private members can become an Act even if the Council of Ministers does not support it 4. The Bill introduced by a Private member can become an Act only if the Council of Ministers supports it.
Codes:
A)
1, 2, 4
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B)
1, 3, 4
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C)
2, 3, 4
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D)
1, 2, 3
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The nomination form of a candidate contesting the (election of President should be proposed and seconded by how many members of the Parliament?
A)
Proposed by 10 and seconded by 10
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B)
Proposed by 10 and seconded by 50
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C)
Proposed by 50 and seconded by 10
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D)
Proposed by 50 and seconded by 50
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Each member of Parliament who participates m the Presidential election is entitled to cast as many votes as are obtained by dividing the total number of votes of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States by the total number of elected members of me two Houses of Parliament. This ensures
A)
Parity between the writing strengths of the States and the Parliament
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B)
Parity among the States
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C)
Uniformity of representation of the different States
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D)
All the above
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Consider the following statements about Vice president and state which are incorrect? 1. He must not be less than 30 years of age. 2. Vice President is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 3. When acting as President, he continues to function as Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 4. To be a vice President, an individual must be eligible for election as a member of Rajya Sabha.
Codes:
A)
1 only
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B)
3 only
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C)
1 and 3
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D)
3 and 4
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Which of the following points of criticisms are levelled against the amendment procedure in the Indian Constitution? 1. There is no provision for special Conventions for amendment of the Constitution as in the U.S.A. 2. Too much power has been given to the States in the matter of proposing amendments to the Constitution 3. The states have not been given sufficient powers with regard to amendment of the Constitution 4. Too much power has been given to the Union Parliament with regard to the amendment of the Constitution
Codes:
A)
1, 3, 4
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B)
1, 2, 3
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C)
2, 3, 4
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D)
1, 2, 3, 4
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The member of the Rajya Sabha except the nominated are:
A)
Directly elected by the people.
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B)
Elected by local self - governing bodies.
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C)
Elected by legislative assemblies.
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D)
Partially elected by legislative assemblies and partially by local self-governing bodies.
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Which one of the following is NOT applicable regarding the purpose of Cut Motion?
A)
Raising questions of urgent public importance
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B)
Drawing attention to any lapse on part of administration
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C)
Drawing attention to specific problems
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D)
Concentration discussion on some concrete points
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Whose function is it to see that no money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of a State without (the authority of the legislature?
A)
Public Accounts Committee
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B)
Comptroller and Auditor general of India
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C)
Finance Commission
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D)
None of the above
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Who decides' whether a bill is a money bill or not?
A)
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
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B)
The President
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C)
Prime Minister
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D)
The Parliamentary Select Committee
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Consider the following statements: 1. The allocation of seats m Rajya Sabha to (he States is based on population of that particular state. 2. A Member of Rajya Sabha should be a domicile of the State from which he/she is elected. 3. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Assemblies of States and Union territories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 and 2 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
1 and 3 only
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D)
1, 2 and 3
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The privileges enjoyed by the members of Parliament individually include 1. Freedom from arrest in all cases 2. Freedom from attendance as witness while parliament is in session 3. Unlimited freedom of speech
Codes:
A)
1, 2, 3
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B)
2, 3
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C)
2 only
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D)
3 only
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The President can call a joint session of the two houses of the Parliament;
A)
If a bill passed by one house is rejected by the other.
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B)
If the amendment proposed to a bill by one house is not acceptable to the other.
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C)
If the house does not take any action of six months on the bill remitted by the other.
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D)
Under all these conditions.
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A Bill for renaming of which state and its language was passed by both houses of Parliament recently?
A)
Tripura
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B)
Meghalaya
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C)
Manipur
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D)
Orissa
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Which Union Territories are represented in Rajya Sabha at present? I. Delhi II. Pondicherry III. Lakshadweep IV. Chandigarh
Codes:
A)
I, II and IV
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B)
II and III
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C)
I, II, III and IV
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D)
I and II
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Consider the following comparison of the Money Bill and Financial Bills in context with the various bills in India: 1. While all money bills can originate only in Lok Sabha, some Finance Bills can originate in Rajya Sabha too 2. While all money bills deal matters specified in article 110 (1) to (g) in the Constitution of India, Finance Bills comprise some other provisions too. Which among the above is/are correct?
A)
Only 1
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B)
Only 2
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C)
Both 1 & 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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The function of the Protem Speaker is to
A)
Conduct the proceedings of Houses in absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
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B)
Officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected
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C)
Swear-in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
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D)
Checks if the election certificates of the members are in order
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The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with;
A)
The President of India
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B)
The Chief Justice of India
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C)
The Parliament
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D)
The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
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While imparting justice the Supreme Court relies upon the principle of
A)
Rule of Law
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B)
Procedure established by Law
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C)
Due process of Law
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D)
All the above
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According to the Constitution of India, the term 'District Judge' shall not include
A)
Chief Presidency Magistrate
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B)
Sessions Judge
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C)
Tribunal Judge
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D)
Chief Judge of a small Cause Court
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The salaries of me judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to ensure that
A)
They get their salaries regularly.
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B)
They dispense justice impartially.
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C)
due to political consideration so that the Parliament doesn't reduce their salaries.
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D)
All of the above
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Which of the following conditions contribute to the Independence of Judiciary in India? 1. No change in salary and service conditions of the judges can be made which operates against their interest, after their appointment 2. Once appointed they cannot be removed from their office before the date of retirement 3. The salary and allowance of the judges are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to the Parliamentary vote 4. Retired judges are not permitted to carry on practice before any Court or tribunal in India
A)
1, 2, 3
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B)
2, 3, 4
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C)
1, 3, 4
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D)
1, 2, 4
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A case can come up for hearing before the Supreme Court against the judgment of lower courts:
A)
If High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law regarding interpretation of Constitution
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B)
On the Supreme Court granting a special leave
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C)
If the High Court has in an appeal reversed the order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death
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D)
In all the above cases
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A Judge of the Supreme Court can relinquish office before the completion of his tenure by addressing his resignation to
A)
The Union Law Minister.
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B)
The Chief Justice of India.
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C)
The President.
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D)
The Prime Minister.
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The Chief Justice of India can be removed in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution, by the
A)
President on a resolution by the Parliament
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B)
Parliament alone
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C)
Majority of the Judges of the Supreme Court
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D)
The President only
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The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitutional Bench or on Bench, which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President, must be:
A)
One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court
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B)
Seven
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C)
three
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D)
one third of the total strength of the court
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The Supreme Court of India is a court of record which implies that
A)
It has to keep a record of all its decisions.
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B)
It has the power to punish for its contempt.
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C)
All the decisions have evidentiary value and can't be questioned in any court.
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D)
Both [b] and [a]
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Which of the following cases fall within the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States 2. Disputes between two or more States 3. Disputes concerning foreign diplomats 4. Disputes between the Government and Government of any other nation
Codes:
A)
1 only
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B)
1, 2
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C)
1, 2, 3
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D)
1, 2, 3, 4
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Why did one of the High Courts in India decree that the "bandhs are unconstitutional and punitive?
A)
It infringes on the Fundamental Right of some groups of people
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B)
It is not in exercise of a fundamental freedom
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C)
It adversely affects production
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D)
It is not a part of right to protest
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. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List- I List- II A. Madhya Pradesh 1. Taluka Panchayat B. Gujarat 2. Anchalik Panchayat C. West Bengal 3. Janpad Panchayat D. Uttar Pradesh 4. Kshetra Panchayat
Codes:
A)
A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]4, D\[\to \]1
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B)
A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]1
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C)
A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]4
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D)
A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]4, D\[\to \]3
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Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of local government in India.
A)
According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
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B)
30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
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C)
Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
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D)
Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
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Ashok Mehta Committee report, 1978 recommended Constitution of
A)
Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village and block levels
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B)
Two tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at Mandal (group of villages) and district levels
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C)
Three tiers of Panchayati Raj institutions at the village, block and district levels
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D)
Three tiers of Panchayat Raj institutions at the village, district and regional levels
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The Panchayati Raj Institution was integrally connected with Community Development Programme. The Community Development Programme was designed to achieve:
A)
Proper use of the vast unexploited resources in the countryside and harness the unutilised energy in the villages.
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B)
Encouragement of greater employment and production through the practice of scientific methods of agriculture.
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C)
Expansion of primary and secondary education in rural areas.
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D)
All of these
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Which of the following features of Panchayati Raj, envisaged under the 73rd Amendment of the Constitution, are correctly listed? 1. The elections to the Panchayats will be held by the Union Election Commission 2. There is mandatory reservation of seats for weaker sections and women 3. The Panchayats shall have a fixed term of five years and, if dissolved before the expiry of this term, the elections must be held within six months
Codes:
A)
1, 2 and 3
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B)
2 and 3
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C)
2 only
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D)
1 and 2
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Consider the following with reference to 73rd Constitution Amendment with respect to Panchayat Raj:
A)
Direct elections of members at all levels.
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B)
Direct elections of chairpersons at the village level.
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C)
Indirect election of chairpersons at the intermediate levels and district levels.
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D)
Mandatory provision for holding elections.
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The qualifications essential to become a member of the Legislative Assembly do not include:
A)
Citizenship of India
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B)
Age of 25 years
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C)
Non-holding of office of profit under central or State government
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D)
Being a graduate
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The quorum to hold a meeting of House of State Legislature shall be:
A)
Ten members or one-tenth of total membership of the House whichever is more.
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B)
One-tenth of total membership of the House.
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C)
Fifteen members or one-tenth of total membership whichever is less.
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D)
One -Half of the total membership
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Consider the following statements regarding the Central "Vigilance Commission (CVC)? 1. The office of CVC was established by the recommendations of Santhanam Committee in 1964. 2. The CVC holds office for a tenure of four years. 3. The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the members of All India Services and Group-A officers of Central and State Governments. 4. The CVC reviews the programme of investigation conducted by the Delhi Police Special Establishment. Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct?
A)
Only 3
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B)
1 and 3
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C)
1, 2 and 3
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clear
D)
1, 2 and 4
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When a resolution for removal of the Speaker or the Deputy-Speaker is discussed by the House the Speaker or Deputy-Speaker: I. Has right to preside the House II. Has no right to preside over the House III. However, has right to participate and speak in the proceedings of the House. Select the correct answer from following codes:
A)
I, II and III
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B)
II and III
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C)
I and III
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D)
III only
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Which one of the following statements is correct? I. The Governor is the ex-officio Chairman of the Legislative Council II. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly also acts as the Chairman of the Legislative Council III. The Council elects its own Chairman from amongst its members
A)
I & II
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B)
I, III
done
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C)
III
done
clear
D)
None
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The position of the Chief Minister is:
A)
Similar to that of the Prime Minister
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B)
Identical to that of the President
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C)
A combination of the position of the Prime Minister and President
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D)
Not constitutional
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Which one of the following is NOT correct with respect to the powers of the Governor regarding a Bill passed by die State Legislature?
A)
He may give his assent to the Bill
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B)
He may withhold the Bill
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C)
He may reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President
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D)
He shall have no alternative but to give his assent to the Bill
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Which of the following statements regarding the Sarkaria Commission are correct? I. The Governor should be appointed in consultation with die Chief Minister of the concerned state. II. The persons retiring from the office of Governor should not be eligible for appointment to any other office except as President III. The person to be appointed as Governor should' be eminent and creditworthy in the social or administrative fields. IV. The person actively involved in politics should not be appointed as Governor. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
I and II
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B)
I, II and III
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clear
C)
II, III and IV
done
clear
D)
All of these
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The Chief Minister stays in office:
A)
As long as the Governor of the State wants him
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B)
For a fixed term of 5 years
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C)
As long as the Council of Ministers wants him
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D)
As long as he enjoys the confidence of the majority party in the Legislative Assembly
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Which one of the following are financial powers of State Council of Ministers? I. Formulating the budget proposals and presenting the same to the State Legislature for approval II. All proposals for taxation comes forth from me Council of Ministers III. Regulation of the Contingency Fund of the State and advancing money out of it to meet the unforeseen contingencies
A)
I
done
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B)
I, III
done
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C)
I, II
done
clear
D)
I, II, III
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Regarding Constitutional Amendments I. the provision of joint sitting is not available. II. They become operative from the date both Houses have passed the Bills. III. The President's assent to a constitutional amendment is obligatory. IV. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution' according to the procedure laid down in Art 368. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
I, II and III
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clear
B)
I, III and IV
done
clear
C)
II, III and IV
done
clear
D)
above all
done
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Which of the following constitutional amendments has been described as a 'mini revision of the Constitution'.
A)
The 42nd Amendment
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B)
The 44th Amendment
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C)
The 52nd Amendment
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clear
D)
The 39th Amendment
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Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes: 1. the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies, made or purporting to be made under article 243K, shall not be called in question in any court; 2. An election to a panchayat can be called in question only by an election petition which should be presented to such authority and in such manner as may be prescribed by the State Election Commission
Codes:
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
Both 1 and 2
done
clear
D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Which of the following disqualifies a political party from being a National Party as per the amendments made in order by the Election Commission?
A)
It has secured at least 4 seats in Lok Sabha from one or more states
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B)
It has secured at least 6% of the valid votes in favour
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C)
It has secured at least 4% of the valid votes in favour
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D)
None of the above
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Which of the following categories of persons are entitled to exercise his vote through postal ballot? 1. Members of foreign services posted abroad 2. Members of the armed forces 3. Civil servants on election duty 4. Indian nationals settled abroad
Codes:
A)
2 and 3
done
clear
B)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
C)
1, 2, 3 and 4
done
clear
D)
1 and 3
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Which one of the following statements is/are true? I. Disputes related to election of a President are decided by Supreme Court. II. Disputes related to vacancy in the Electoral College are settled by the Election Commission. III. In case the election of a President is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by a President before the date of such decision of the court get invalidated. Choose correct answer from codes given below:
A)
I, II and III
done
clear
B)
I and II
done
clear
C)
III only
done
clear
D)
I only
done
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Consider the following statements: 1. Annual Report of the State Finance Commission is mandated to be laid on the table in the State legislature 2. The courts have been barred from adjudicating the dispute in the Panchayat elections. Which among the above statements is / are correct?
A)
Only 1 is correct
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B)
Only 2 is correct
done
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C)
Both 1 & 2 are correct
done
clear
D)
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
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Which one of the following statements is correct?
A)
Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is a constitutional body.
done
clear
B)
The scope of Finance Commission is limited to a review of the revenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takes an overall view, embracing both capital and revenue requirements of the states.
done
clear
C)
No one can be a member of both the Finance Commission and the Planning Commission at the same time.
done
clear
D)
There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the Finance Commission and those of the Planning Commission.
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Consider the following statements about Interstate Council: 1. Inter-state Council was established under the provisions of Constitution of India 2. It is generally a recommendatory body 3. The Prime Minister of India is the chairman of the Inter-state Council. Which among the above statements is / are correct?
A)
Only 1 is correct
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clear
B)
Only 2 & 3 are correct
done
clear
C)
1, 2 & 3 are correct
done
clear
D)
Only 2 is correct
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Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
A)
A written and rigid Constitution
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B)
An independent Judiciary
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C)
Vesting of residuary power with the Centre
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clear
D)
Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
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Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?
A)
Population control and family planning
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clear
B)
Public health and sanitation
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clear
C)
Capitation taxes
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D)
Treasure trove
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Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the India are correct? 1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament. 2. In the matter of residuary powers, the Indian Constitution follows the constitution of Australia. 3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is parliament. 4. The government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the governor general. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
B)
2 and 4
done
clear
C)
1 and 4
done
clear
D)
3 and 4
done
clear
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The Scheduled Areas are inhabited by I. Scheduled Castes. II. Scheduled Tribes. III. Backward Classes. IV. Other Backward Classes. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
I and II
done
clear
B)
II only
done
clear
C)
II, III and IV
done
clear
D)
II and IV
done
clear
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The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties
A)
With the consent of all the States
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B)
With the consent of the majority of States
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C)
With the consent of the States concerned
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D)
Without the consent of any States
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Consider the following statements (i) All the union territories in India do not have the same pattern of administration. (ii) These territories are under the control of the President. (iii) They are governed by Lt Governors.
A)
i and ii correct
done
clear
B)
ii alone correct
done
clear
C)
ii and iii correct
done
clear
D)
iii alone correct
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clear
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During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state, the President can I. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the. Governor. II. Declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by Parliament. III. Assume certain powers of the High Courts. IV. Suspend by order any or all fundamental Rights except those under Article 20 and 21. Choose correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
I & II
done
clear
B)
I, II & III
done
clear
C)
II, III & IV
done
clear
D)
All of these
done
clear
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In case of proclamation of Emergency on grounds of war or external aggression
A)
All fundamental rights will be automatically suspended
done
clear
B)
The right to move a court for enforcement of any fundamental right is suspended.
done
clear
C)
The president may order the suspension of enforcement of any fundamental right except Article 20-21
done
clear
D)
Parliament may authorize suspension of all fundamental rights
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Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India: 1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. 2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue direction for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of person serving in connection with the affairs of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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clear
B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
Both 1 and 2
done
clear
D)
neither 1 nor 2
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clear
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Which one of the following is not a function of UPSC?
A)
It conducts examinations for the appointments to the services of the Union
done
clear
B)
It shall be consulted on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and posts
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clear
C)
It shall be consulted on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India
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clear
D)
It shall be consulted as regards the reservation of posts for backward classes, scheduled castes and tribes
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A member of UPSC is 1. Debarred from reappointment as a member 2. Inteligible for any other appointment under Central or State government 3. Disqualified from becoming Constitutional functionary like governor
Codes:
A)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
B)
2 and 3
done
clear
C)
1 and 3
done
clear
D)
1 and 2
done
clear
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Which of the following are true about Staff Selection Commission? 1. The Commission was earlier known as Subordinate Services Commission and was set up on 1st July 1976. 2. The Commission is an attached office to the Department of Personnel and Training. 3. The Commission comprises of a chairman, two members and a secretary-cum-controller of examinations. 4. The tenure of Chairman/Members is for six years or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
Codes:
A)
1 and 2 are correct
done
clear
B)
2, 3 and 4 are correct
done
clear
C)
1, 2 and 3 are correct
done
clear
D)
All the above are correct
done
clear
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Which of the following are the functions of the Union Public Service Commission? 1. To Conduct examinations for recruitment to the services of the Union 2. To advise on matters referred to them by tile President or the Governor 3. To advise on all disciplinary matters affecting a government servant. 4. To advise on the Principles to be followed in respect of promotions and transfers.
A)
1 and 2
done
clear
B)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
C)
1, 3 and 4
done
clear
D)
2, 3 and 4
done
clear
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The Staff Selection Commission is
A)
An 'attached office' under the Ministry of Personnel
done
clear
B)
A 'subordinate office' of the UPSC
done
clear
C)
An autonomous body under the Ministry of Personnel
done
clear
D)
A statutory body under the UPSC
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clear
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A citizen acquiring citizenship through naturalization
A)
May belong to any country without qualification
done
clear
B)
May keep the citizenship of any other country
done
clear
C)
Must either reside in India or serve the Government of India for at least one year immediately preceding the date application
done
clear
D)
May acquire it in special cases only
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Consider the following statements: Which of the following are correct regarding the Punchi Commission recommendations? 1. A fixed term of five years for the Governor. 2. Supports the right of the Governor to give sanction to prosecution of ministers against the advice of the state government. 3. There should be extension of discretionary powers of the Governor under Article 163(2). 4. The Governor shall be removed only through impeachment by the State Assembly.
Codes:
A)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
B)
1, 3 and 4
done
clear
C)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 4
done
clear
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Which of the following influenced the minds of those who were responsible for the chapter on Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution? 1. Bill of Rights of American Constitution 2. Declaration of the Rights of Man from France 3. Irish Constitution of 1935 4. Post-war Constitution of Japan and Burma 5. Universal Human Rights Charter Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A)
1, 2 and 5
done
clear
B)
1, 2, 3 and 5
done
clear
C)
1, 4 and 5
done
clear
D)
1, 5, 4 and 5
done
clear
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Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitution of Germany? (1) The idea of a federation with a strong centre (2) The method of presidential elections (3) The Emergency powers enjoyed by the union. (4) Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency
Codes:
A)
1 only
done
clear
B)
3 only
done
clear
C)
1 and 3
done
clear
D)
3 and 4
done
clear
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Consider the following statements regarding Armed Force Tribunal: 1. The Armed Forces Tribunal Act 2007 will make serving and retired military personnel get quick redressal of their remuneration or working grievances through a specialized mechanism by going through the litigations channel of the lower courts. 2. The decision of this tribunal however can be appealed against in High Courts and Supreme court. 3. The tribunal will act as a civil court while adjudicating in service matters and as a criminal court when hearing against court martial. Of these statements
A)
1, 2 and 3 are correct
done
clear
B)
2 and 3 are correct
done
clear
C)
1 and 2 are correct
done
clear
D)
Only 3 is correct
done
clear
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Consider the following statements regarding Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India: 1. Headed by Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, the census exercise comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. 2. Started in the year 1949, the Census of India was given the additional duty of implementation of Registration of Births and Deaths Act in 1969 in the country. 3. There were Census Commissioners from 1881 Census to 1941 Census and thereafter Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India from 1949 onwards. Of these statements
A)
1, 2 and 3 are correct
done
clear
B)
2 and 3 are correct
done
clear
C)
1 and 2 are correct
done
clear
D)
Only 3 is correct
done
clear
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