A Panchayat Samiti at the block level is
A)
An advisory body
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B)
An administrative authority
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clear
C)
A consultant committee
done
clear
D)
A supervisory authority
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Article 359 of the Constitution of India deals with which one of the following?
A)
Declaration of financial emergency
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B)
Promulgation of President's rule in a State
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C)
Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental right except a few during emergency
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D)
Terms and conditions of service of Members of the Union Public Service Commission
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Who is to conduct the elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities?
A)
State Government
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B)
Central Government
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C)
State Election Commission
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D)
Central Election Commission
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Consider an ordinary bill that originated in the legislative assembly and is sent to the legislative council. If the council rejects the bill then
A)
A joint sitting is called.
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B)
The bill ends and becomes dead
done
clear
C)
Legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time.
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D)
None of the above
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Which of the following is not true regarding a Gram Panchayat?
A)
It is constituted in every village with a population of over 500
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B)
It consists of all the adult citizens of the village
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C)
Its decisions are taken by a majority vote
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D)
Its decision in petty criminal cases cannot be appealed in any court of Law
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What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
A)
Three-tier structure of local self-government at the village and block levels and a state government nominated body at the district level.
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B)
Two-tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels
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C)
Three-tier structure of local self-government, at the village, block and district levels
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D)
Three-tier structure of local self-government at the village and state government nominated body at the block and district level.
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Which among the following is not true about the Notified Area Committee?
A)
It is an area which does not necessarily fulfill all the conditions for the constitution of the municipality
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B)
It is created in an area which is fast developing and where new industries are set up
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C)
All the members are appointed by the state government
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D)
Notified Area Committee is constituted by an act of legislatures
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Which one of the following statements is correct? I. The Governor is the ex-officio Chairman of the Legislative Council. II. The Speaker of Legislative Assembly also acts as the Chairman of the Legislative Council. III. The Council elects its own Chairman from amongst its members.
A)
I
done
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B)
II
done
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C)
III
done
clear
D)
None
done
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Which of the following are not true about Legislative Council of a State? 1. Its total number of members does not exceed two-thirds of total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State but is not less than 40. 2. One-third of its members are elected by the Legislative Assembly, one-third by local bodies, one-twelfth by teachers, one-twelfth by university graduates and one-sixth by the Governor. 3. It cannot be dissolved. 4. One-third of its members retire every year.
A)
1, 2, and 3
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B)
Only 1
done
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C)
2, 3 and 4
done
clear
D)
Only 4
done
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The salary of the Governor is charged on:
A)
The Consolidated Fund of India
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B)
The Consolidated Fund of the State
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C)
The Consolidated Fund of India and Consolidated Fund of the State on fifty-fifty basis
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D)
The Contingency Fund of the State
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Which one of the following legislative powers of the Governor has been wrongly listed?
A)
He summons or prorogues either House of State Legislature
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B)
He addresses either or both the Houses at the commencement of the new session after each General Election
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C)
He dissolves both the Houses in case of difference over the enactment of law
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D)
He sends messages to the State Legislature on a Bill pending before it
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Consider the following powers/functions: 1. Appointing ministers and allocating portfolios to them 2. Presiding over the meetings of the Cabinet 3. Resolving conflicts between ministers 4. Communicating with the Governor The powers/functions of the Chief Minister of a State in India include
A)
2, 3 and 4
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B)
1 and 4
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C)
1, 2 and 3
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D)
1, 2, 3 and 4
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Consider the following statements: The Governor of a State: 1. Is vested with executive powers under the Constitution of India 2. Is needed because of the federal structure of government 3. Was to be elected according to the original Draft Constitution of India 4. Is chosen only according to the qualifications laid down in the Constitution of India Which of these statements are correct?
A)
1 and 4
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B)
2 and 3
done
clear
C)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
D)
1, 2, 3 and 4
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Judicial Activism is in action when: 1. The legislature and executive wings of the Government rail to discharge their duties under the Constitution 2. The higher court intervene through appeals against the judgments of the lower courts 3. The court monitors the development in a case during the Trial period and issues necessary directions. Select the correct option from the codes given below:
A)
Only 1
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B)
Only 1 & 2
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C)
Only 1 & 3
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D)
Only 2 & 3
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Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing?
A)
Writ of Certiorari
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B)
Writ of Habeas Corpus
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C)
Writ of Mandamus
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D)
Writ of Quo Warranto
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In which of the following cases was the 'doctrine of prospective overruling adopted by the Supreme Court of India?
A)
Kehar Singh v/s Union of India case
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B)
Keshavanand Bharti v/s State of Kerala case
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clear
C)
Maneka Gandhi v/s Union of India case
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D)
Golak Nath v/s State of Punjab.
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The Chief Justice of India can be removed in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution, by the
A)
President on a resolution by the Parliament
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B)
Parliament alone
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C)
Majority of the Judges of the Supreme Court,
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D)
The President only
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Consider the following statements: 1. No person can be enrolled as an advocate in the rolls of more than one State Bar Council. 2. State Bar Councils have disciplinary jurisdiction over advocates whose names appear on their rolls. This is subject to right of appeal to the bar Council of India and a further right of appeal to the Supreme Court of India.
Codes:
A)
Both 1 and 2 are correct
done
clear
B)
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
done
clear
C)
Only 1 is correct
done
clear
D)
Only 2 is correct
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Which of the following conditions contribute to the Independence of Judiciary in India? 1. Judges cannot be removed from the office except by an order of the President and that too on the ground of proven misbehaviour and incapacity. 2. The salaries and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India in case of Supreme Court judges and the Consolidated Fund of state in the case of High Court judges. Their emoluments cannot be altered to their disadvantage (Art. 125 (2)) except in the event of grave financial emergency. 3. Parliament can only add to the powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court but cannot curtail them. 4. Art. 211 provides that there shall be no discussion in the legislature of the state with respect to the conduct of any judge of Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.
A)
1, 2, 3
done
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B)
2, 3, 4
done
clear
C)
1, 2, 3, 4
done
clear
D)
1, 2, 4
done
clear
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In which of the following dispute the Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction? 1. Between the Government of India and one or more states. 2. Between the Government of India and any state or states on the one side and one or more states on the other. 3. between two or more states.
Codes:
A)
1 and 2
done
clear
B)
1 and 3
done
clear
C)
2 and 3
done
clear
D)
All the above
done
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Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court of India consists of 31 Judges and Chief Justice of India. 2. The judges of Supreme Court hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.
Codes:
A)
Both 1 and 2 are correct
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clear
B)
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
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clear
C)
Only 1 is correct
done
clear
D)
Only 2 is correct
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The Supreme Court is a court of record. This implies: I. It can punish for its contempt II. Its decisions are admitted as evidence and cannot be questioned in any court of law III. It has to keep a record of all the important cases that are constructed in India IV. Its decisions, once taken, are binding upon it
A)
I, II and III
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B)
I and II
done
clear
C)
I, III and IV
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clear
D)
I, II, III and IV
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Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) The Supreme Court's decrees & orders are enforceable throughout India (2) The Supreme Court is not bound by its earlier decisions (3) The supremacy of the Supreme Court as the guardian of the constitution is emphasised by the power of judicial review. (4) The Supreme Court has the power of declaring a law made by the legislature or an executive action as unconstitutional if it is not in tune with the provisions of the constitution or violative of the fundamental law of the land
A)
1, 2 & 3
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clear
B)
1, 2, 3 & 4
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clear
C)
2 & 3
done
clear
D)
1, 3 & 4
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All cases regarding the interpretation of the Constitution can be brought to the Supreme Court under
A)
Original jurisdiction
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B)
Appellate jurisdiction
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clear
C)
Advisory jurisdiction
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D)
None of the above
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Rules Committee of Rajya Sabha is Chaired by
A)
Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha.
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B)
Vice-President of India.
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clear
C)
Minister of Parliamentary Affairs.
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clear
D)
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
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Which of the following statements about Anti Defection Law is not true?
A)
It was introduced in the constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
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clear
B)
Through this law the presiding officers control the behaviour of the members of Parliament
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clear
C)
Under the law, a members of Parliament can't leave the Political party, from which he is elected
done
clear
D)
A member cannot remain absent in the house when asked by the party leadership to remain present or he vote against the instruction of party
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Which one of the following powers of the Rajya Sabha is provided in the Constitution of India?
A)
To reject or amend a money bill
done
clear
B)
To decide whether a bill is a money bill
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clear
C)
To vote for public expenditure
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clear
D)
To delay a money bill for a period not exceeding fourteen days
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Which of the following opportunities is provided by the Appropriation Bill to the legislature?
A)
To discuss the policy and other matters related to the expenditure of various ministers
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clear
B)
To change amount of demands to various ministries
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clear
C)
To reallocate the grants of various ministries
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clear
D)
To vary the amount of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
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Which one of the following does NOT fall within the scope of the Committee on Public Undertakings?
A)
Examination of the reports and accounts of such public undertakings as have been specifically allotted to the committee
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B)
Matters of major government policy as distinct from business or commercial functions of the public undertakings
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clear
C)
Examination of the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General
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clear
D)
Examination of the autonomy and efficiency of the public undertakings
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Which of the following .are judicial powers of the President of India? 1. He can remove the Judges of the Supreme Court on ground of misconduct 2. He appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court 3. He can grant pardon, reprieves and respites to the persons 4. He can consult the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact which is of public importance
Codes:
A)
2, 3
done
clear
B)
1, 2, 3
done
clear
C)
2, 3, 4
done
clear
D)
1, 2, 3, 4
done
clear
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One of the following is not a method by which the Parliament expresses lack of confidence in the Council of Ministers I. Declaring that the taxes proposed have to be reduced II. Passing a bill introduced by a private member to which the Council of Ministers is opposed III. Rejecting a bill introduced by a Minister
Codes:
A)
I
done
clear
B)
I and III
done
clear
C)
II
done
clear
D)
III
done
clear
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Ministers in the Union Cabinet are appointed by
A)
The Prime Minister
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B)
The President
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C)
The President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
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D)
The Prime Minister on the advice of the President of India
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Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights of 1. Members of armed forces. 2. Members of para-military forces. 3. Non-combatants employee of armed forces like barber, carpenters etc. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 only
done
clear
B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 3
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clear
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Which among the following is the correct implication of the "Advisory Jurisdiction" of the Supreme Court of India:
A)
It tenders advice to the President of India on demand
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B)
It tenders advice to the Prime Minister of India on legal matters
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clear
C)
It tenders advice to the Govt. of India on all Constitutional matters
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clear
D)
All of above
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Which one of the following is NOT the duty of the Prime Minister in India?
A)
To communicate to the President all the decisions of the Council of Ministers
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B)
To furnish to the President information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State
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clear
C)
To submit to the President the agenda of the Cabinet meeting for his approval
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clear
D)
To submit any matter for the consideration of the Council of Ministers, if the President so requires
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Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations are constitutional? 1. River water tribunals 2. Inter-State Councils 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
2 and 3 only
done
clear
D)
None
done
clear
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Which of the following statements are true? I. Presidential election is held before the expiration of the term of the outgoing President II. The term of the President's office can be extended if general elections for any Assembly are not held due to an emergency III. If the term of any President is cut short by reason of his death, resignation or removal, then the election of next president should be held within 3 months of the occurrence of the vacancy IV. The Indian Constitution is silent on the number of times person can be re-elected President
A)
I, II, III and IV
done
clear
B)
I, II and III
done
clear
C)
III and IV
done
clear
D)
1 and IV
done
clear
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During a national emergency, the President can: 1. Reduce the transfer of finances from Centre to states. 2. Increase the transfer of finances from Centre to states. 3. Cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to states. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 only
done
clear
B)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
C)
1 and 3 only
done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
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Match the following:
List-I (Parliamentary Terms) List-II (Meaning) A. Starred Question 1. One asked by a member on matters of public importance of urgent nature B. Unstarred Question 2. One for which the concerned minister has to lay on the table a written answer C. Short Notice Question 3. One for which an answer is required to be given by a minister on the floor of the House
A)
A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]2
done
clear
B)
A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]2
done
clear
C)
A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]1
done
clear
D)
A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]1
done
clear
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With reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission, consider the following statements: 1. They can be removed for misbehaviour. 2. They can be removed only by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
done
clear
B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
Both 1 and 2
done
clear
D)
neither 1 nor 2
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clear
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Match the following:-
List-I List-2 A) Business Advisory Committee 1) Looks into the mode of public expenditure B) Select Committee 2) Examines the veracity of budget estimates C) Estimates Committee 3) Considers a bill and submits to the House a report on it
A)
A\[\to \]1, B\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]3, D\[\to \]4
done
clear
B)
A\[\to \]2, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]4, D\[\to \]1
done
clear
C)
A\[\to \]3, B\[\to \]1, C\[\to \]2, C\[\to \]4
done
clear
D)
A\[\to \]4, B\[\to \]3, C\[\to \]2, D\[\to \]1
done
clear
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Who among the following takes the oath to 'uphold the constitution and the laws? 1. President 2. CAG 3. Supreme court Judge Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
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clear
B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
3 only
done
clear
D)
2 and 3 only
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clear
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Who appoints "ad hoc" Judges of the Supreme Court?
A)
President
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clear
B)
Vice President
done
clear
C)
President with advice of Council of Ministers
done
clear
D)
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court with permission of President.
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On a question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification under Representation of People's Act, 1951 whose decision is final?
A)
President
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clear
B)
High Court
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clear
C)
Supreme Court
done
clear
D)
Election Commission of India
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The Directive Principles are:
A)
Positive instructions to work for the attainment of set objective.
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clear
B)
Negative injunctions to government to refrain from encroaching on the freedom of the people.
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clear
C)
Directives to the state to enhance the international prestige of the country.
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D)
Directives to the government to pursue a policy of non-alignment.
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The articles of the constitution which has a bearing on the rights of women are 1. Article 15 2. Article 42 3. Article 39 4. Article 123 Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1, 2 and 3 only
done
clear
B)
1, 3 and 4 only
done
clear
C)
2, 3 and 4 only
done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 4 only
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Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles? I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions are for the Government to work towards a just socio-economic order III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles are not amendable.
A)
I and II
done
clear
B)
II and III
done
clear
C)
III and IV
done
clear
D)
I, II and III
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clear
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Which of the following is/are a part of the participatory development process? 1. State 2. NGOs 3. Pressure groups 4. Cooperatives Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1, 2 and 3 only
done
clear
B)
1, 3 and 4 only
done
clear
C)
2, 3 and 4 only
done
clear
D)
1, 2, 3 and 4
done
clear
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Habeas Corpus means:
A)
An order from a court to free a person who had been illegally detained by the police or any other person
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clear
B)
An order from a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in an inferior court for review
done
clear
C)
An order from the superior court to an official to show his right to the office
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clear
D)
An order from a higher court to stop proceedings in a certain case
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With reference to regionalism, consider the following statements: 1. Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying force. 2. Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
done
clear
B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
Both 1 and 2
done
clear
D)
neither 1 nor 2
done
clear
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In a democracy, civil services plays an important role in 1. Policy making 2. Policy implementation 3. socio-economic development Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
B)
1 and 3 only
done
clear
C)
2 and 3 only
done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
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Which one of the following rights was described by BR. Ambedkar as 'the heart and soul of the Constitution'?
A)
Right of freedom of religion
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clear
B)
Right of property
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clear
C)
Right of equality
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clear
D)
Right to constitutional remedies
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clear
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The collegiums system of appointment of judges has been criticized on the basis that it leads to 1. Undue interference by executive. 2. Submissiveness of puisne judges. 3. Destruction of judicial independence Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
2 and 3 only
done
clear
D)
1, 2, and 3
done
clear
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Consider the following statements about the minorities in India: 1. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities. 2. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993 3. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians. 4. The Constitution of India recognizes and protects religious and linguistic minorities Which of these statements are correct?
A)
2 and 3
done
clear
B)
1 and 4
done
clear
C)
2, 3 and 4
done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 4
done
clear
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The Election process in India follows the First past the post (FPTP) system. THE FPTP system offers many advantages like 1. Providing a proportionate outcome of seats based on votes. 2. Less wastage of votes. 3. Establishing a clear link between representatives and constituencies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
B)
1 and 3 only
done
clear
C)
3 only
done
clear
D)
2 and 3 only
done
clear
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Which statements/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights? I. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Force II. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President. III. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces IV. They cannot be amended as they form a basic feature of the Constitution
A)
I and II
done
clear
B)
II, III and IV
done
clear
C)
I and IV
done
clear
D)
I, II, III and IV
done
clear
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With reference to government and governance, consider the following statements: 1. Government is the structure while governance is a process. 2. There can be governance without a government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
done
clear
B)
2 only
done
clear
C)
Both 1 and 2
done
clear
D)
neither 1 nor 2
done
clear
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Freedom of speech and expression are restricted by the Constitution on grounds of: I. defamation II. Contempt of court III. Protecting a scheduled tribe IV. Friendly relations with foreign states
A)
I, II and III
done
clear
B)
II, III and IV
done
clear
C)
I and IV
done
clear
D)
I, II and IV
done
clear
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A part from law making, Indian parliament also performs the function of 1. Providing representation. 2. Constraining executive power. 3. Providing legitimacy to government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
B)
1 and 3 only
done
clear
C)
2 and 3 only
done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 3
done
clear
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The words 'socialist and secular' were:
A)
Part of the original Preamble
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clear
B)
Added by the 29th Amendment
done
clear
C)
Added by the 42nd Amendment
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clear
D)
Added by the 44th Amendment
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clear
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The major benefits of federalism is/are 1. It helps in quick decision making. 2. It gives voice to regional interests. 3. It creates a network of checks and balances. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
B)
1 and 3 only
done
clear
C)
2 only
done
clear
D)
2 and 3 only
done
clear
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Protection of wild life comes under which of the following in India? (1) Fundamental Right (2) Fundamental Duty (3) Directive principles of State Policy Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
done
clear
B)
1 and 3 only
done
clear
C)
2 only
done
clear
D)
2 and 3 only
done
clear
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The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by -
A)
Government via a resolution
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B)
President
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C)
Parliament
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D)
or depending on the type of extension.
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Directions: The following 4 items consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion [a]' and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below. A: The Planning Commission is neither a statutory body nor a constitutional body. R: It is established by an executive resolution of the Union cabinet Codes:
A)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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B)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
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C)
A is true, but R is false
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D)
A is false but R is true
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Directions: The following 4 items consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion [a]' and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below. A: The Chairman and the members of the UPSC are appointed by the President. R: The UPSC is a Constitutional body. Codes:
A)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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B)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
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C)
A is true, but R is false
done
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D)
A is false but R is true
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Directions: The following 4 items consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion [a]' and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below. A: The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. R: Under the provisions of the Constitution, additional functions may be conferred on the commission by the President. Codes:
A)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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B)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
done
clear
C)
A is true, but R is false
done
clear
D)
A is false but R is true
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Directions: The following 4 items consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion [a]' and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below. A: The salaries of the members of the UPSC cannot be changed to their disadvantage during their tenure. R: The independence of the Public Service Commission has to be maintained. Codes:
A)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
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B)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
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C)
A is true, but R is false
done
clear
D)
A is false but R is true
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With reference to Finance Commission (PC), consider the following statements : 1. As the FC is a constitutional body, its recommendations are binding on the government. 2. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Which of the following functions are correct about National Commission for minorities-
A)
Evaluate the progress of the development of minorities under the union and states
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B)
Monitor the working of the safe guards provided in the constitution
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C)
Conduct studies, research and analysis and the issues relating to socio-economic and education development to minorities
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D)
All of these
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Which of these is/ are constitutional posts? 1. Special officer for linguistic minorities 2. Advocate general 3. Solicitor general Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
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B)
1 and 3 only
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C)
2 and 3 only
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D)
1, 2 and 3
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Article 30 relates to-
A)
The right of minorities to language
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B)
The right of minorities and administer educational institutions
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C)
Both and [b]
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D)
None of the above.
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With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill -
A)
The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
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B)
The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.
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C)
The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
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D)
The President can either reject the bill or return the bill.
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With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements: 1. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC. 2. The chairman can be reappointed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Which of the following statements regarding the Constitution amendment in the India are not correct? 1. The Constitution provides for multiple procedures for amendment. 2. The state legislatures are not empowered to initiate amendments. 3. Certain amendments have to be passed just by state legislatures. 4. There is a provision for Joint-sittings of parliament to solve disputes regarding Constitutional amendments. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A)
1, 2 and 3
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B)
2, 3 and 4
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C)
2 and 4
done
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D)
3 and 4
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Consider the following statements: 1. The supreme-court hears only those who petition or appeal in English. 2. The constitution has specified the official language of different states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Which of the following does fall within the purview of the Election Commission? 1. Election of the Prime Minister 2. Recognition of political parties 3. Conduct of election of the President 4. Assignment of election symbols to political parties
Codes:
A)
1, 2, 3 and 4
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B)
2, 3 and 4
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C)
3 and 4
done
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D)
3 only
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The Indian constitution has defined which of the following? 1. Scheduled Castes 2. Scheduled Tribes 3. Anglo-Indians Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
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B)
1 and 3 only
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C)
3 only
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D)
2 and 3 only
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In terms of the election laws in India, electioneering ceases in a constituency at least
A)
12 hours before the commencement of polling
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B)
24 hours before the commencement of polling
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C)
36 hours before the commencement of the polling
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D)
48 hours before the closing hour of polling
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With reference to defections, consider the following statements: 1. An independent member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from the date on which he take his seat. 2. A nominated member of lok sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party anytime. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Growth of regional political parties in India in the past few years can be attributed to which of the reasons? 1. Cultural basis. 2. Inability of the national parties to accommodate the regional demands. 3. Advent of multinational companies. 4. Emergence of new states. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A)
1 and 2
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B)
3 and 4
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C)
1 and 4
done
clear
D)
2 and 4
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In India, which of the following modes are voting take place 1. Direct voting by being present in person. 2. Voting through postal ballot. 3. Voting through a proxy. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A)
1 and 2 only
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B)
1 and 3 only
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C)
2 and 3 only
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clear
D)
1, 2 and 3
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Consider the following statements about delimitation commission: 1. Delimitation commission is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. 2. The orders issued by delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Which of the following statement is NOT correct about the National Integration Council?
A)
It is headed by the Chief Justice of India.
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B)
It consists of 147 members.
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C)
It held its first meeting in 1962.
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D)
It is mainly aimed at suggesting means to combat the menace of communalism, casteism and regionalism.
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Consider the following statements about National Development Council (NDC): 1. Five year plans are approved by NDC. 2. NDC is headed by Prime minister. 3. Chief Ministers of states also are a part of NDC. 4. NDC is a statutory body. Which of the above Statement is/are true?
A)
1, 2, 3
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B)
2, 3, 4
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clear
C)
1, 2, 3, 4
done
clear
D)
None of these
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In case of inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and the laws made by state Legislatures which one of the following shall prevail?
A)
The law made by Parliament before the law made by legislature of the state
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B)
The law made by Parliament after the law made by the legislature of the state
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C)
The law made by Parliament before or after the law made by the legislature of the state
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D)
The law made by legislature of the state
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The jurisdiction of the Finance Commission does not extend to
A)
Recommendation of the principles which govern the Grants-in-Aid of the revenue of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India
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B)
Recommendation of the allocation of funds among the various heads of expenditure in the Union and State budgets
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C)
Recommendation of the allocation to the States of the respective shares of some tax proceeds
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D)
Recommendation of the distribution between the Union lid the States of the net proceeds of taxes
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Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
A)
Stamp Duties
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B)
Passenger and goods tax
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C)
Estate Duty
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clear
D)
Taxes on Newspapers
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Consider the following statements: 1. The 118th Constitution Amendment Bill seeks to grant special provisions for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region under Article 371. 2. The amendment to the constitution entails inserting a new Article 371 (J) to the Constitution 3. The special status tag would increase the funding in the area 4. Initially the Article 371 was introduced to grant special provision with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat Which of the above statements are correct?
A)
1, 2, 3
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B)
1, 2, 4
done
clear
C)
2, 3, 4
done
clear
D)
1, 2, 3, 4
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Which constitutional authority was in news recently for saying that governors have the power to act independently of the state governments in matters relating to administration in tribal-dominated regions?
A)
Election Commission
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B)
Attorney General of India
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C)
Comptroller & Auditor General
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D)
Supreme Court of India
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Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India: 1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. 2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue direction for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of person serving in connection with the affairs of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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clear
D)
neither 1 nor 2
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Which one of the following statements correctly depicts the true nature of Indian federal system?
A)
The Indian federation is more a 'functional' than an 'institutional' concept.
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B)
Simple party dominant regime conflicts with the principles of federalism in India.
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C)
The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement between the states.
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D)
It is a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features.
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Which one of the following statements is correct?
A)
The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946
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B)
Jawaharlal Nehru, M. A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India
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C)
The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
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D)
The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
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Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Rights classifiable under:
A)
The Right to Freedom of Religion
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B)
The Right against Exploitation
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C)
The Cultural and Educational Rights
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D)
The Right to Equality.
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In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousands in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression "population" here means the population as ascertained by the:
A)
1991 Census
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B)
1981 Census
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C)
1971 Census
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D)
1961 Census
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Consider the following statements: 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister. 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
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B)
2 only
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C)
Both 1 and 2
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D)
neither 1 nor 2
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The concept of public Interest litigation originated in:
A)
United Kingdom
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B)
Australia
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C)
The United States
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D)
Canada
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Which one of the following provisions was not made in the Charter Act of 1833?
A)
The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
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B)
The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council
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C)
All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
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D)
An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General's Council
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With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
A)
Directly elected by the people of those Provinces
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B)
Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
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C)
Elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
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D)
Selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
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