The dimensions of emf in MKS is
A)
\[M{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{-2}}{{Q}^{-2}}\]
done
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B)
\[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}{{Q}^{-2}}\]
done
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C)
\[ML{{T}^{-2}}{{Q}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}{{Q}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A 150 m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train to cross a bridge of length 850 meters is
A)
56 sec
done
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B)
68 sec
done
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C)
80 sec
done
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D)
92 sec
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two particles of mass A/and in are moving in a circle of radii R and r. If their time periods are the same, what will be the ratio of their lineal- velocities?
A)
MR : mr
done
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B)
M: m
done
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C)
R : r
done
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D)
1 : 1
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block. The aver- age resistance exerted by the wooden block is
A)
2850 N
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B)
2200 N
done
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C)
2000 N
done
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D)
1800N
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 0.1 m, then its potential energy will be
A)
\[\frac{U}{5}\]
done
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B)
U
done
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C)
5 U
done
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D)
25 U
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A wheel having moment of inertia\[2\text{ }kg-{{m}^{2}}\]about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel's rotation in one minute would be
A)
\[\frac{2\pi }{15}N-m\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{\pi }{12}N-m\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{\pi }{15}N-m\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{\pi }{18}N-m\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their angular momenta will be in the ratio
A)
1 : 2
done
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B)
72 : 1
done
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C)
2 : 1
done
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D)
1 : 72
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two satellites of earth, \[{{S}_{1}}\]and \[{{S}_{2}},\]are moving in the same orbit. The mass of \[{{S}_{1}}\] is four times the mass of\[{{S}_{2}}.\]Which one of the following statements is true?
A)
The time period of \[{{S}_{1}}\] is four times that of \[{{S}_{2}}\]
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B)
The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal
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C)
\[{{S}_{1}}\] and \[{{S}_{2}}\]are moving with the same speed
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D)
The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal
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View Answer play_arrow
A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth is
A)
\[\sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}}\]
done
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B)
\[\sqrt{\frac{2GM}{{{R}^{2}}}}\]
done
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C)
\[\sqrt{2g{{R}^{2}}}\]
done
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D)
\[\sqrt{\frac{4GM}{{{R}^{2}}}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The compressibility of water is \[45.4\times {{10}^{-11}}\,P{{a}^{-1}}\] and density of water is\[{{10}^{3}}kg/{{m}^{3}}\]. What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?
A)
\[0.8\times {{10}^{-2}}\]
done
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B)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-2}}\]
done
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C)
\[1.2\times {{10}^{-2}}\]
done
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D)
\[1.4\times {{10}^{-2}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Water rises to height 'h' in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than 'A', then
A)
water does not rise at all.
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B)
water rises up to the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like a fountain.
done
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C)
water rises up to the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing.
done
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D)
water rises up to a point a little below the top and stays there.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The temperature of the body is increased from \[-{{73}^{o}}C\] to\[{{357}^{o}}C\], the ratio of energy emitted per second is:
A)
1 : 3
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B)
1 : 81
done
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C)
1 : 27
done
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D)
1 : 9
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If the temperature of the sun (black body) is doubled, the rate of energy received on earth will be increased by a factor of
A)
2
done
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B)
4
done
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C)
8
done
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D)
16
done
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View Answer play_arrow
An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of \[-{{13}^{o}}C\]. The coefficient of performance of the engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which heat is rejected) will be
A)
\[{{325}^{o}}C\]
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B)
\[325K\]
done
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C)
\[{{39}^{o}}C\]
done
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D)
\[{{320}^{o}}C\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A mono atomic gas is supplied with the heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure constant. The work done by the gas will be
A)
\[\frac{2}{3}Q\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{3}{5}Q\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{2}{5}Q\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{1}{5}Q\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The kinetic energy and the potential energy of a particle executing SHM are equal. The ratio of its displacement and amplitude will be
A)
\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{1}{2}\]
done
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D)
\[\sqrt{2}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements is true for the speed v and the acceleration a of a particle executing simple harmonic motion?
A)
When v is maximum, a is minimum
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B)
Value of a is zero, whatever may be the value of v
done
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C)
When v is zero, a is zero
done
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D)
When v is maximum, a is zero
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View Answer play_arrow
An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed l/5th of the speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are\[\lambda \]and\[f\]respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively
A)
\[1.2\,f,\lambda \]
done
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B)
\[f,1.2\,\lambda \]
done
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C)
\[0.8f,0.8\lambda \]
done
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D)
\[1.2\,f,1.2\,\lambda \]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from the source of oscillation. The period of oscillation is 0.05 s and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/s. What is the phase difference between the oscillations of two points?
A)
\[\frac{\pi }{3}\]
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B)
\[\frac{2\pi }{3}\]
done
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C)
\[\pi \]
done
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D)
\[\frac{\pi }{6}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The electric intensity due to a dipole of length 10 cm and having a charge of \[500\,\mu C,\] at a point on the axis at a distance 20 cm from one of the charges in air, is
A)
\[6.25\times {{10}^{7}}\,N/C\]
done
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B)
\[9.28\times {{10}^{7}}\,N/C\]
done
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C)
\[13.1\times {{11}^{11}}\,N/C\]
done
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D)
\[20.5\times {{10}^{7}}\,N/C\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the charge on an electron)
A)
\[\sqrt{\frac{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}F{{d}^{2}}}{{{e}^{2}}}}\]
done
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B)
\[\sqrt{\frac{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}F{{e}^{2}}}{{{d}^{2}}}}\]
done
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C)
\[\sqrt{\frac{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}F{{d}^{2}}}{{{e}^{2}}}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}F{{d}^{2}}}{{{q}^{2}}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Three capacitors each of capacity \[4\,\mu F\]are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is \[6\,\mu F.\] This can be done by
A)
Connecting them in parallel
done
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B)
Connecting two in series and one in parallel
done
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C)
Connecting two in parallel and one in series
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D)
Connecting all of them in series
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View Answer play_arrow
A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of F volts. After disconnecting the charging battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates
A)
decreases
done
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B)
does not change
done
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C)
becomes zero
done
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D)
increases
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The quantity/ quantities constant along the length of the conductor is/are
A)
Current, electric field and drift speed
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B)
Drift speed only
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C)
Current and drift speed
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D)
Current only
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View Answer play_arrow
The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then
A)
the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
done
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B)
the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
done
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C)
the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
done
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D)
the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V for 8 H when the current flowing is 10 A. The battery on discharge supplies a current of 5 A for 15 H. The mean terminal voltage during discharge is 14 V. The "watt-hour" efficiency of the battery is:
A)
82.5%
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B)
80%
done
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C)
90%
done
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D)
87.5%
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The resistance of an ammeter is \[13\,\Omega \]and its scale is graduated for a current up to 100 A. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents up to 750 A by this meter. The value of shunt resistance is
A)
\[20\,\Omega \]
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B)
\[2\,\Omega \]
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C)
\[0.2\,\,\Omega \]
done
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D)
\[2\,k\Omega \]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to
A)
\[\frac{B}{v}\]
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B)
\[\frac{v}{B}\]
done
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C)
\[\sqrt{\frac{v}{B}}\]
done
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D)
\[\sqrt{\frac{B}{v}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with Constant speed v. The time period of the motion
A)
depends on v and not on R
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B)
depends on both R and v
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C)
is independent of both R and v
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D)
depends on R and not on v
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View Answer play_arrow
Two magnets are held together in a vibration magnetometer and are allowed to oscillate in the earth's magnetic field with like poles together, 12 oscillations per minute are made but for unlike poles together only 4 oscillations per minute are executed. The ratio of their magnetic moments is
A)
3 : 1
done
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B)
1 : 3
done
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C)
3 : 5
done
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D)
5 : 4
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Curie temperatures is the temperature above which
A)
ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material
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B)
paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
done
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C)
paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material
done
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D)
ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A magnetic field of \[2\times {{10}^{-2}}\,T\]acts at right angles to a coil of area\[100\,c{{m}^{2}}\]with 50 turns. The average emf induced in the coil is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field in time t. The value of / is
A)
0.1 sec
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B)
0.01 sec
done
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C)
1 sec
done
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D)
20 sec
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 A is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux linked with each the turn of the solenoid is\[4\times {{10}^{-3}}\,Wb.\] The self-inductance of the solenoid is
A)
2.5 H
done
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B)
2.0 H
done
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C)
1.0 H
done
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D)
4.0 H
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A coil of 40 H inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 V battery. The time constant of the circuit is
A)
5 s
done
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B)
1/5 s
done
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C)
40 s
done
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D)
20 s
done
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View Answer play_arrow
What is the value of inductance L for which the current is a maximum in a series LCR circuit with \[C=10\,\mu F\]and \[\omega =1000\,{{s}^{-1}}?\]
A)
100 mH
done
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B)
1 mH
done
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C)
Cannot be calculated unless R is known
done
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D)
10 mH
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?
A)
Cosmic rays
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B)
Gamma rays
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C)
\[\beta -\]rays
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D)
X-rays
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View Answer play_arrow
The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an electromagnetic wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by
A)
\[[E={{E}_{0}}\hat{k},B={{B}_{0}}\hat{i}]\]
done
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B)
\[[E={{E}_{0}}\hat{j},B={{B}_{0}}\hat{j}]\]
done
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C)
\[[E={{E}_{0}}\hat{j},B={{B}_{0}}\hat{k}]\]
done
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D)
\[[E={{E}_{0}}\hat{i},B={{B}_{0}}\hat{j}]\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm diameter appears 1 cm from surface nearest to eye when looked along diameter. If\[{{\,}_{a}}{{\mu }_{g}}=1.5,\] the distance of bubble from refracting surface is
A)
1.2 cm
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B)
3.2 cm
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C)
2.8 cm
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D)
1.6 cm
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View Answer play_arrow
A person who can see things most clearly at a distance of 10 cm requires spectacles to enable to him to see clearly things at a distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal length of the spectacles.
A)
15 cm (Concave)
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B)
15 cm (Convex)
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C)
10 cm
done
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D)
0
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 and illuminated with light of\[\lambda =6000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]. If the screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits. The distance of the third bright image from the centre will be
A)
1.5 mm
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B)
9 mm
done
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C)
6 mm
done
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D)
3 mm
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, \[h\,{{v}_{0}}.\]If photons of energy\[2h{{v}_{0}}\]fall on this surface, the electrons come out with a maximum velocity of\[4\times {{10}^{6}}\,m/s.\]When the photon energy is increased to\[5h{{v}_{0}},\]then maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be
A)
\[2\times {{10}^{6}}\,m/s\]
done
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B)
\[2\times {{10}^{7}}\,m/s\]
done
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C)
\[8\times {{10}^{5}}\,m/s\]
done
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D)
\[8\times {{10}^{6}}\,m/s\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the tube appears as a result of
A)
excitation of electrons in the atoms
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B)
collision between the atoms of the gas
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C)
collisions between the charged particles emitted from the cathode and the atoms of the gas
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D)
collision between different electrons of the atoms of the gas
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View Answer play_arrow
The total energy of an electron in the first excited; state of hydrogen is about -3.4 eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is
A)
-3.4 eV
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B)
-6.8 eV
done
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C)
6.8 eV
done
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D)
3.4eV
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following are suitable for the fusion process?
A)
Heavy nuclei
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B)
Light nuclei
done
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C)
Atom bomb
done
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D)
Radioactive decay
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View Answer play_arrow
Current in the circuit will be
A)
\[\frac{5}{40}A\]
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B)
\[\frac{5}{50}A\]
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C)
\[\frac{5}{10}A\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{5}{20}A\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which has maximum number of molecules?
A)
\[~7gm\,{{N}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[~2\,gm\,{{H}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[~16\,gm\,N{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[16\,gm\,{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbital \[(s)n=3,l=2,m=+27\]
A)
1
done
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B)
3
done
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C)
2
done
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D)
4
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statements among the following:
A)
lanthanoids contraction is the accumulation of successive linkages
done
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B)
as a result of lanthanoids contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of transition elements
done
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C)
shielding power of 4/ electrons is quite weak
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D)
there is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
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View Answer play_arrow
\[{{H}_{2}}O\]is dipolar, whereas\[Be{{F}_{2}}\] is not. It is because
A)
The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O
done
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B)
\[{{H}_{2}}O\]involves hydrogen bonding whereas \[Be{{F}_{2}}\]is a discrete molecule
done
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C)
\[{{H}_{2}}O\]is linear and\[Be{{F}_{2}}\]is angular
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D)
\[{{H}_{2}}O\] is angular and\[Be{{F}_{2}}\]is linear
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View Answer play_arrow
If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that
A)
pressure of the gas increases
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B)
number of the molecules of gas increases
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C)
kinetic energy of molecules remains the same
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D)
kinetic energy of molecules decreases
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View Answer play_arrow
Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamics parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process is
A)
\[\Delta {{S}_{system}}+\Delta {{S}_{surroundings}}\,be+ve\]
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B)
\[\Delta {{S}_{system}}-\Delta {{S}_{surroundings}}\,be+ve\]
done
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C)
\[\Delta {{S}_{system}}\]be zero
done
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D)
\[\Delta {{S}_{surroundings}}\]be zero
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Equilibrium constants\[{{K}_{1}}\]and\[{{K}_{2}}\]for the following equilibria are related as
\[NO(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\rightleftharpoons N{{O}_{2}}(g);{{K}_{1}}\] \[2N{{O}_{2}}(g)\rightleftharpoons 2NO(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g);{{K}_{2}}\]
A)
\[{{K}_{2}}=\frac{1}{K_{1}^{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{K}_{2}}=\frac{1}{{{K}_{1}}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{K}_{2}}=K_{1}^{2}\]
done
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D)
\[{{K}_{2}}=\frac{{{K}_{1}}}{2}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
\[{{H}_{2}}S\]gas when passed through a solution of cations containing HCl precipitates the cations of second group in qualitative analysis but not those belonging to the fourth group. It is because
A)
the presence of HC1 decreases the sulphide ion concentration
done
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B)
the presence of HC1 increases the sulphide ion concentration
done
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C)
the solubility product of group II sulphides is more than that of group IV sulphides
done
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D)
the sulphides of group IV cations are unstable in HCl
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Zn gives\[{{H}_{2}}\]gas with\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]and HCl but not with \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]because
A)
Zn acts as an oxidising agent when it reacts with \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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B)
\[HN{{O}_{3}}\] is weaker acid than \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]and HCl
done
clear
C)
In electrochemical series, Zn is above hydrogen
done
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D)
\[NO_{3}^{O-}\]is reduced in preference to hydronium ion.
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View Answer play_arrow
The O - O - H bond angle in\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]is
A)
\[{{106}^{o}}\]
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B)
\[{{109}^{o}}28'\]
done
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C)
\[{{120}^{o}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{97}^{o}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The alkali metals form salt like hydrides by the direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in which of the following orders?
A)
KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
done
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B)
NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
done
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C)
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
done
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D)
CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which oxidation states are the most characteristics of lead and tin respectively?
A)
+2, +2
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B)
+4, +4
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C)
+2, +4
done
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D)
+4, +2
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View Answer play_arrow
In Dumas' method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be: (Aqueous tension at 300 K =15 mm)
A)
14.45
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B)
15.45
done
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C)
16.45
done
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D)
17.45
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO+HCN\xrightarrow{{}}C{{H}_{3}}CH(OH)CN\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-CH=C{{H}_{2}}+{{H}_{2}}O\xrightarrow{{{H}^{+}}}\]\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
done
clear
D)
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A strong base can abstract an \[\alpha -\]hydrogen from
A)
amine
done
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B)
ketone
done
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C)
alkane
done
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D)
alkene
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The chirality of the compound is
A)
R
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B)
S
done
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C)
Z
done
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D)
I
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is
A)
III > I > II
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B)
II > I > III
done
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C)
II > III > I
done
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D)
I > II > III
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Using anhydrous \[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]as catalyst, which one of the following reactions produces ethylbenzene (PhEt)?
A)
\[{{H}_{3}}C-C{{H}_{2}}OH+{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-CH=C{{H}_{2}}+{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{H}_{2}}C=C{{H}_{2}}+{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{H}_{3}}C=C{{H}_{2}}+{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Liquid hydrocarbon can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbon by
A)
oxidation
done
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B)
cracking
done
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C)
hydrolysis
done
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D)
distillation under reduced pressure
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Green chemistry means such reactions which
A)
produce colour during reactions
done
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B)
reduce the use and production of hazardous chemical
done
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C)
are related to the depletion of ozone layer
done
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D)
study the reactions in plants
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The radioisotope tritium\[(\,_{1}^{3}H)\] has a half-life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it would remain after 49.2 years?
A)
1 mg
done
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B)
2 mg
done
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C)
4 mg
done
clear
D)
8 mg
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
AB crystallises in a bcc lattice with edge length 'a' equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is
A)
335 pm
done
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B)
250 pm
done
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C)
200 pm
done
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D)
300 pm
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A solution of urea (molar mass 56) boils at \[{{100.18}^{o}}C\,\,\text{at}\]atmospheric pressure. If \[{{K}_{f}}\]and \[{{K}_{b}}\]for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K \[molalit{{y}^{-1}}\]respectively, the above solution will freeze at
A)
\[-{{6.54}^{o}}C\]
done
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B)
\[{{6.54}^{o}}C\]
done
clear
C)
\[-{{0.654}^{o}}C\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{0.654}^{o}}C\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The electrolytic conductance is a direct measure of
A)
resistance
done
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B)
potential
done
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C)
concentration
done
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D)
dissociation
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and -8.2 for \[{{H}_{2}}O(l),C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]and pentane (g), respectively. The value of \[E_{cell}^{o}\]for the pentane-oxygen fuel cell is
A)
2.0968 V
done
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B)
1.0968 V
done
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C)
0.0968 V
done
clear
D)
1.968 V
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The reaction \[A\to B\]follows first-order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hr. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675 mole of B?
A)
1 hr
done
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B)
0.5 hr
done
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C)
0.25 hr
done
clear
D)
2 hr
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The rate constants \[{{k}_{1}}\]and \[{{k}_{2}}\]for two different reactions are \[{{10}^{6}}\,{{e}^{-2000/T}}\] and \[{{10}^{15}}\,{{e}^{-1000}}\,T,\] respectively. The temperature at which \[{{k}_{1}}={{k}_{2}}\]is
A)
\[\frac{2000}{2.303}K\]
done
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B)
2000 K
done
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C)
\[\frac{1000}{2.303}K\]
done
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D)
1000 K
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following forms cationic micelles above certain concentrations?
A)
Sodium dodecyl sulphate
done
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B)
Urea
done
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C)
Sodium acetate
done
clear
D)
Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a by- product. This is a colourless gas with choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is
A)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[S{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[S{{O}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{H}_{2}}S\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Nitrogen can be purified from the impurities of oxides of nitrogen and ammonia by passing through
A)
conc. HCl
done
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B)
alkaline solution of pyrogallol
done
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C)
a solution of \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]acidified with\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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D)
a solution of KOH (aq.)
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Bleaching action of \[S{{O}_{2}}\]is due to .its
A)
Oxidising property
done
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B)
Acidic property
done
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C)
Basic property
done
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D)
Reducing property
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which has the highest molar heat of vaporisation?
A)
HF
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B)
HCl
done
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C)
HBr
done
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D)
HI
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is monoatomic?
A)
Nitrogen
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B)
Fluorine
done
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C)
Neon
done
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D)
Oxygen
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Zn gives hydrogen gas with \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]and HCl but not with\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]because
A)
\[N{{O}_{2}}\]is reduced in preference to\[{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}\]
done
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B)
\[~HN{{O}_{3}}\] is weaker acid than \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]and HCl
done
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C)
Zn acts as oxidising agent when reacts with \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
In electrochemical series Zn is placed above the hydrogen
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following pairs is coloured in aqueous solution?
A)
\[S{{c}^{3+}},C{{o}^{2+}}\]
done
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B)
\[N{{i}^{2+}},C{{u}^{+}}\]
done
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C)
\[N{{i}^{2+}},T{{i}^{3+}}\]
done
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D)
\[S{{c}^{3+}},T{{i}^{3+}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Atomic numbers of Cr and Fe are respectively 24 and 26. Which of the following is paramagnetic with the spin of the electron?
A)
\[{{[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]
done
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B)
\[[Fe{{(CO)}_{5}}]\]
done
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C)
\[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{4-}}\]
done
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D)
\[[Cr{{(CO)}_{6}}]\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond?
A)
\[K[Pt({{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}})C{{l}_{3}}]\]
done
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B)
\[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}\]
done
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C)
\[Al{{(O{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}})}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}MgBr\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidized to
A)
\[{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[COC{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{O}_{2}},{{C}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
none of these
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Consider the following reaction:\[\xrightarrow{Zn\,dust}X\xrightarrow[Anhydrous\,AlC{{l}_{3}}]{C{{H}_{2}}Cl}Y\xrightarrow{Alkaline\,KMn{{O}_{4}}}Z,\]the product Z is
A)
benzoic acid
done
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B)
toluene
done
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C)
benzaldehyde
done
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D)
benzene
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydro- carbons using Zn - Hg + HCl cone. is called
A)
Cope reaction
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B)
Dow reaction
done
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C)
Wolff-Kishner reaction
done
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D)
Clemmensen reduction
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Method by which Aniline cannot be prepared is:
A)
reduction of nitrobenzene with\[{{H}_{2}}Pd\] in ethanol
done
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B)
potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqeous NaOH solution
done
clear
C)
hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic solution
done
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D)
degradation of benzamide with bromine in alkaline solution
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Methyl\[-\alpha -D-\]glucoside and methyl \[1-\beta -D-\]glucoside are
A)
epimers
done
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B)
anomers
done
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C)
enantiomers
done
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D)
conformational diastereomers
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is an example of thermosetting polymer?
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin are
A)
\[N{{H}_{3}},Cl\]
done
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B)
\[N{{H}_{3}},{{H}_{2}}O\]
done
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C)
\[Cl,{{H}_{2}}O\]
done
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D)
\[NO,Cl\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
When bismuth chloride is poured into a large volume of water, the white precipitate produced is
A)
\[BiO{{(OH)}_{3}}\]
done
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B)
\[B{{i}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[BiOCl\]
done
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D)
\[B{{i}_{2}}OC{{l}_{3}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Biosystematics aims at:
A)
The classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
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B)
Delimiting various taxa of organism and establishing their relationships
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C)
The classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies
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D)
Identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of cytological characteristics
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View Answer play_arrow
Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size:
A)
\[300\times 10\,nm\]
done
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B)
\[300\times 5\,nm\]
done
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C)
\[300\times 20\,nm\]
done
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D)
\[700\times 30\,nm\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses?
A)
Retroviruses carry gene for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
done
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B)
The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
done
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C)
Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
done
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D)
DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
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View Answer play_arrow
In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a result:
A)
Self-fertilization is prevented
done
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B)
There is no change in success rate of fertilization
done
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C)
There is high degree of sterility
done
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D)
One can conclude that the plant is apomictic
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing Gnetum form Cycas and Finns and showing affinities with angiosperms:
A)
perianth and two integuments
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B)
embryo development and apical meristem
done
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C)
absence of resin duct and leaf venation
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D)
presence of vessel elements and absence of Archegonia
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View Answer play_arrow
In Hydra, waste material of food digestion and nitrogenous waste material removed from:
A)
Mouth and mouth
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B)
Body wall and body wall
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C)
Mouth and body wall
done
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D)
Mouth and tentacles
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View Answer play_arrow
One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body:
A)
Presence of diaphragm
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B)
Four chambered heart
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C)
Rib cage
done
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D)
Homeothermy
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry are characteristic features of
A)
Asteraceae
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B)
Brassicaceae
done
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C)
Solanaceae
done
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D)
Liliaceae
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve tube elements is
A)
Thick secondary walls
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B)
Pores on lateral wall
done
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C)
Presence of p-protein
done
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D)
Enucleate condition
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View Answer play_arrow
If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is:
A)
Slimy mucus
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B)
Excretory fluid
done
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C)
Coelomic fluid
done
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D)
Haemolymph
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane:
A)
Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
done
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B)
Polar layer is hydrophobic
done
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C)
Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in middle part
done
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D)
Proteins form a middle layer
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Vacuole in a plant cell:
A)
Lacks membrane and contains air
done
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B)
Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
done
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C)
Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
done
clear
D)
Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
A)
Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
done
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B)
Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
done
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C)
Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
done
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D)
Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?
A)
A: Lecithin-a component of cell membrane
done
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B)
B: Adenine-a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
done
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C)
A: Triglyceride-major source of energy
done
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D)
B: Uracil-a component of DNA
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View Answer play_arrow
In 'S' phase of the cell cycle:
A)
amount of DNA doubles in each cell
done
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B)
amount of DNA remains same in each cell
done
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C)
chromosome number is increased
done
clear
D)
amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects is due to:
A)
Rapid turgor pressure changes
done
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B)
A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
done
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C)
Specialized "muscle-like" cells
done
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D)
Chemical stimulation by the prey
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View Answer play_arrow
An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is:
A)
Molybdenum
done
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B)
Copper
done
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C)
Manganese
done
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D)
Zinc
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher plants?
A)
Blue and green
done
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B)
Green and red
done
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C)
Red and violet
done
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D)
Violet and blue
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In leaves of\[{{C}_{4}}\]plants malic acid synthesis during \[C{{O}_{2}}\]fixation occurs in:
A)
bundle sheath
done
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B)
guard cells
done
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C)
epidermal cells
done
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D)
mesophyll cells
done
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View Answer play_arrow
During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the following is left undergraded:
A)
Lipids
done
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B)
Lignin
done
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C)
Hemi-cellulose
done
clear
D)
Cellulose
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A)
IAA - Cell wall elongation
done
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B)
Abscisic acid - Stomatal closure
done
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C)
Gibberellic acid - Leaf fall
done
clear
D)
Cytokinin - Cell division
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?
A)
Red blood cells
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B)
White blood cells
done
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C)
Unstriated muscle cells
done
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D)
Liver cells
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If due to some injury the chordae tendineae of the tricuspid value of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect:
A)
The flow of blood into the arota will be slowed down
done
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B)
The pacemaker will stop working
done
clear
C)
The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
done
clear
D)
The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of:
A)
Frog
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B)
Man
done
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C)
Earthworm
done
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D)
Cockroach
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neurohormonal control system?
A)
Hypothalamus activates the parasympa- thetic division of brain
done
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B)
Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal cortex
done
clear
C)
Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal medulla
done
clear
D)
Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A)
Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa
done
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B)
Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, and nervous system regulates endocrine glands
done
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C)
Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neurons control endocrine activity
done
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D)
Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes, and the mature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are characteristic features of:
A)
Gamopetalous angiosperms
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B)
Conifers
done
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C)
Polypetalous angiosperms
done
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D)
Cycads
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of:
A)
berries
done
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B)
mericarps
done
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C)
achenes
done
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D)
samaras
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely:
A)
Estrogen secretion further decreases
done
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B)
Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
done
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C)
Corpus luteum will disintegrate
done
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D)
Primary follicle starts developing
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is:
A)
Isthmus
done
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B)
Infundibulum
done
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C)
Cervix
done
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D)
Ampulla
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of:
A)
Glucagon
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B)
Androgens
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C)
Progesterone
done
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D)
Intestinal mucus
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce:
A)
estrogen only
done
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B)
progesterone
done
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C)
human chorionic gonadotropin
done
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D)
relaxin only
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?
A)
LH surge
done
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B)
Decrease in estradiol
done
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C)
Full development of Graafian follicle
done
clear
D)
Release of secondary oocyte
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
A)
Klinefelter syndrome
done
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B)
Sex of the foetus
done
clear
C)
Down syndrome
done
clear
D)
Jaundice
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two nonallelic genes produce the new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently then it is called:
A)
Epistasis
done
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B)
Polygene
done
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C)
Non-complimentary gene
done
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D)
Complimentary gene
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View Answer play_arrow
A gene is said to be dominant if:
A)
It expresses its effect only in homozygous stage
done
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B)
It is expressed only in heterozygous condition
done
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C)
It is expressed both in homozygous and in heterozygous condition
done
clear
D)
It is never expressed in any condition
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes are reversed in one cross is known as:
A)
Test cross
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B)
Reciprocal cross
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C)
Dihybrid cross
done
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D)
Reverse cross
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View Answer play_arrow
A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B and is also hemizygous for hemophilic gene h. What proportion of his sperms will be abh?
A)
1/32
done
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B)
1/16
done
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C)
1/4
done
clear
D)
1/8
done
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View Answer play_arrow
G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of:
A)
Leucocytes
done
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B)
Lymphocytes
done
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C)
Platelets
done
clear
D)
RBCs
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated from the African population because:
A)
It is controlled by recessive genes
done
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B)
It is not a fatal disease
done
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C)
It provides immunity against malaria
done
clear
D)
It is controlled by dominant genes
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the \[{{F}_{2}}\]segregation will show:
A)
Higher number of the parental types
done
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B)
Higher number of the recombinant types
done
clear
C)
Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
done
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D)
Segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Infectious proteins are present in:
A)
Gemini viruses
done
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B)
Prions
done
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C)
Viroids
done
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D)
Satellite viruses
done
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View Answer play_arrow
When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the per romance of \[{{F}_{1}}\]hybrid is often superior to both parents. This phenomenon is called:
A)
Metamorphosis
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B)
Heterosis
done
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C)
Transformation
done
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D)
Sphcing
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
A)
no chance
done
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B)
50%
done
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C)
25%
done
clear
D)
100%
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Fruit colour in squash is an example of:
A)
Recessive epistasis
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B)
Dominant epistasis
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C)
Complementary genes
done
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D)
Inhibitory genes
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View Answer play_arrow
In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use:
A)
Flower position
done
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B)
Seed colour
done
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C)
Pod length
done
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D)
Seed shape
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In negative operon:
A)
Inducer binds with represser
done
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B)
Corepressor does not bind with represser
done
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C)
Corepressor binds with inducer
done
clear
D)
CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following triplet codes is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as 'start' or 'stop' codon:
A)
UCG - Start
done
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B)
UUU - Stop
done
clear
C)
UGU - Leucine
done
clear
D)
UAC - Tyrosine
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of:
A)
Cytosine rich repeats
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B)
Adenine rich repeats
done
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C)
Guanine rich repeats
done
clear
D)
Thymine rich repeats
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the offspring?
A)
Autosomal
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B)
Cytoplasmic
done
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C)
Y-linked
done
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D)
X-linked
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid?
A)
AUG, ACG - Start/Methionine
done
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B)
UUA, UCA - Leucine
done
clear
C)
GUU, GCU - Alanine
done
clear
D)
UAG, UGA - Stop
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code is its being:
A)
Degeneratp
done
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B)
Ambiguous
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C)
Universal
done
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D)
Specific
done
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Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?
A)
A promoter
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B)
The structural gene
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C)
the inducer
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D)
A terminator
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An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex chromosomes was born due to:
A)
fusion of two sperms and one ovum
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B)
formation of abnormal sperms in the father
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C)
formation of abnormal ova in the mother
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D)
fusion of two ova and one sperm
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Which of the following biomolecules does have a phosphodiester bond?
A)
Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
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B)
Fatty acids in a diglyceride
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C)
Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
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D)
Amino acids in a polypeptide
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There is no life on moon due to the absence of
A)
\[{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
Water
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C)
Light
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D)
Temperature
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de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on
A)
Oenothera lamarckiana
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B)
Drosophila melanogasfer
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C)
Pisum sativiim
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D)
Althaea rosea
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Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example
A)
Colour change in chameleon
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B)
Poison fangs in snakes
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C)
Melanism in moths
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D)
Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish
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Adaptive radiation refers to:
A)
Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
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B)
Adaptations due to geographical isolation
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C)
Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
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D)
Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
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Which one of the following statement is correct?
A)
Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
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B)
Stem cells are specialized cells
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C)
There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
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D)
All plant and animal cells are totipotent
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Which one of the following in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry?
A)
Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
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B)
Eggs with a calcareous shell
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C)
Scales on their hind limbs
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D)
Four-chambered heart
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According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to
A)
Intraspecific competition
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B)
Interspecific competition
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C)
Competition within closely related species
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D)
Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.
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Industrial melanism is an example of:
A)
Neo Lamarckism
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B)
Neo Darwinism
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C)
Natural selection
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D)
Mutation
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Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself is also a potential saviour from a mosquito borne infectious disease?
A)
Thalassemia
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B)
Sickle cell anaemia
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C)
Pemicius anaemia
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D)
Leukemia
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The 'blue baby' syndrome results from
A)
Excess of chloride
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B)
Methemoglobin
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C)
Excess of dissolved oxygen
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D)
Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids)
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To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
A)
Physiological barriers
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B)
physical barriers
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C)
Cytokine barriers
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D)
Cellular barriers
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Select the correct statement from the ones given below:
A)
Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
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B)
Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
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C)
Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
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D)
Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
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Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in
A)
Human RBCs
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B)
Human liver
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C)
Gut of female Anopheles
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D)
Salivary glands of Anopheles
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Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
A)
Ebola virus
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B)
Hepatitis B virus
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C)
Human immunodeficiency virus
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D)
Chikungunya virus
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The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insects damaging a crop is:
A)
Genetic recombination
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B)
Directed mutations
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C)
Acquired heritable changes
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D)
Random mutations
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Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with
A)
Rye
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B)
Pearl millet
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C)
Sugarcane
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D)
Barley
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What is antisense technology?
A)
When a piece of RNA that is complemen- tary in sequence is used to stop expression of a specific gene
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B)
RNA polymerase producing DNA
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C)
A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for the synthesis of antigens
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D)
Production of somaclonal variants in tis- sue cultures
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"Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of:
A)
Bajra
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B)
Maize
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C)
Rice
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D)
Wheat
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Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
A)
Coliforms - Vinegar
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B)
Methanogens - Gobar gas
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C)
Yeast - Ethanol
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D)
Streptomycetes - Antibiotic
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What is true for monoclonal antibodies?
A)
These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen
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B)
These obtained from different parents and for one antigen
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C)
These obtained from one parent and for many antigens
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D)
These obtained from many parents and for many antigen
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Transgenic plants are the ones
A)
Grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field
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B)
Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium
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C)
Generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
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D)
Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium
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Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to:
A)
degrade sewage
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B)
produce methane
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C)
obtain antibiotics
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D)
purify enzymes
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Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacteria:
A)
Lag, log, stationary, decline phase
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B)
Lag, log, stationary phase
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C)
Stationary, lag, log, decline phase
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D)
Decline, lag, log phase
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Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)
Savanna - acacia trees
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B)
Coniferous forest - evergreen trees
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C)
Tundra - permafrost
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D)
Prairie - epiphytes
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Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?
A)
Stratification
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B)
Natality
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C)
Mortality
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D)
Sex-ratio
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A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is:
A)
10
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B)
15
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C)
05
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D)
zero
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A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if:
A)
the population is large
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B)
individuals mate selectively
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C)
there are no mutations
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D)
there is no migration
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An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having
A)
High stability and low resilience
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B)
Low stability and low resilience
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C)
High stability and high resilience
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D)
Low stability and high resilience
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The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their:
A)
anaerobic environment around them
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B)
low cellulose content
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C)
low moisture content
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D)
poor nitrogen content
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Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms at some of the different levels?
A)
Level one PP is "pipal tress" and the level SC is "sheep"
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B)
Level PC is "rats" and level SC is "cats"
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C)
Level PC is "insects" and level SC is "small insectivorous birds"
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D)
Level PP is "phytoplanktons" in sea and "Whale" on top level TC
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In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as:
A)
Net productivity
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B)
Net primary productivity
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C)
Gross primary productivity
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D)
Secondary productivity
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Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in India
A)
Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda
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B)
Tamarind and rhesus monkey
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C)
Cinchona and leopard
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D)
Banyan and blackbuck
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Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation?
A)
Wild life sanctuary
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B)
Seed bank
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C)
Sacred groves
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D)
National park
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Step taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include:
A)
Use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks
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B)
Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel
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C)
Compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons
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D)
Permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles
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Measuring biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for
A)
Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cereviscae in producing curd on a commercial scale
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B)
Working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen
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C)
Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water
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D)
Working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines
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