JEE Main & Advanced Sample Paper JEE Main - Mock Test - 34

  • question_answer
    If \[f\left( x \right)={{e}^{x}}\], then \[\underset{x\to 0}{\mathop{\lim }}\,{{(f(x))}^{\frac{1}{\{f(x)\}}}}\] (where { } denotes the fractional part of x) is equal to -

    A) \[f\text{(}1\text{)}\]                   

    B)        \[f\text{(0)}\]

    C) \[f\left( -\infty  \right)\]         

    D)        Does not exist

    Correct Answer: D

    Solution :

    [d] \[\{{{e}^{x}}\}=\left[ \begin{matrix}    {{e}^{x}}-1, & x>{{0}^{+}}  \\    {{e}^{x}}, & x<{{0}^{-}}  \\ \end{matrix} \right.\] \[\underset{x\to {{0}^{-}}}{\mathop{lim}}\,{{\left( {{e}^{x}} \right)}^{\frac{1}{{{e}^{x}}}}}=1\] \[\underset{x\to {{0}^{+}}}{\mathop{lim}}\,{{\left( {{e}^{x}} \right)}^{\frac{1}{{{e}^{x}}-1}}}=e\] \[\Rightarrow \] limit does not exist at x = 0


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