JEE Main & Advanced Sample Paper JEE Main - Mock Test - 24

  • question_answer
    Two players A and B play a match which consists of a series of games (independent). Whoever first wins two games, not necessarily consecutive, wins the match. The probabilities of A's winning, drawing and losing a game against B are \[\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{3}\] and \[\frac{1}{6},\] respectively. It is known that A won the match at the end of 11th game, then the probability that B wins only one game is

    A) \[9/10\]                 

    B)        \[9/11\]   

    C)   \[10/11\]               

    D)        \[7/11\]

    Correct Answer: B

    Solution :

        
    [b] Let
    Event \[{{E}_{1}}:\] A wins the match at the end of 11th game
    Event \[{{E}_{2}}:\] B wins exactly one game
    A can win the match at the end of 11th game by winning exactly one of the first 10 games and drawing the remaining 9.
    (ii) or by winning exactly one of the first 10 games, losing exactly one and drawing the remaining 8.
    \[\therefore P({{E}_{1}}){{=}^{10}}{{C}_{1}}\left( \frac{1}{2} \right){{\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}^{9}}\times \frac{1}{2}{{+}^{10}}{{C}_{2}}\left( \frac{1}{2} \right){{\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}^{8}}\left( \frac{1}{6} \right)\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)(2!)\]\[\therefore \,\,\,P({{E}_{2}}/{{E}_{1}})=\frac{^{10}{{C}_{2}}\left( \frac{1}{2} \right){{\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}^{8}}\left( \frac{1}{6} \right)(2!)}{^{10}{{C}_{1}}{{\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)}^{2}}{{\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}^{9}}{{+}^{10}}{{C}_{2}}{{\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)}^{2}}{{\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}^{8}}\left( \frac{1}{6} \right)(2!)}=\frac{9}{11}\]   


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