question_answer 1) A cane filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of radius 4 m and the water does not fall down. What must be the maximum period of revolution?
A)
\[2s\]
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B)
\[4s\]
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C)
\[1s\]
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D)
\[6s\]
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question_answer 2) The radius R of the soap bubble is doubled under isothermal condition. If\[T\]be the surface tension of soap bubble, the required surface energy in doing so is given by
A)
\[23\pi {{R}^{2}}T\]
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B)
\[24\pi {{R}^{2}}T\]
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C)
\[8\pi {{R}^{2}}T\]
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D)
\[4\pi {{R}^{2}}T\]
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question_answer 3) To make the frequency double of a spring oscillator, we have to
A)
reduce the mass to one-fourth
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B)
quadruple the mass
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C)
double the mass
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D)
half the mass
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question_answer 4) A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length \[f\] at a distance u from the pole of the mirror, what is the size of image?
A)
\[\left( \frac{f}{u-f} \right)b\]
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B)
\[{{\left( \frac{f}{u-f} \right)}^{2}}b\]
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C)
\[\left( \frac{f}{u-f} \right){{b}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[\left( \frac{f}{u-f} \right)\]
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question_answer 5) The difference between the apparent frequency of a source of sound as perceived by the observer during its approach and recession is \[2%\] of the frequency of the source. If the speed of sound in air is \[300\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\], the velocity of the source is
A)
\[1.5m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[12m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[6m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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D)
\[3m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 6) A count rate metre shows a count of 240/min from a given radioactive source later the metre shows a count rate of 30/min. The half-life of the source is
A)
80min
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B)
120 min
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C)
20 min
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D)
30 min
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question_answer 7) Curie-Weiss law is obeyed by iron
A)
at Curie temperature only
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B)
at all temperatures
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C)
below Curie temperature
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D)
above Curie temperature
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question_answer 8) The energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen atom is\[-3.4eV\]. Its angular momentum is
A)
\[3.72\times {{10}^{-34}}J-s\]
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B)
\[2.11\times {{10}^{-34}}J-s\]
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C)
\[1.57\times {{10}^{-34}}J-s\]
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D)
\[1.11\times {{10}^{-34}}J-s\]
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question_answer 9) A tuning fork of frequency \[340Hz\] is vibrated just above the tube of \[120cm\] height. Water is poured slowly in the tube. What is the minimum height of water necessary for the resonance? (speed of sound in air\[=340m/s\])
A)
\[45cm\]
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B)
\[30cm\]
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C)
\[40cm\]
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D)
\[25cm\]
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question_answer 10) The escape velocity of a projectile on the earths surface is\[11.2km{{s}^{-1}}\]. A body is projected out with thrice this speed. The speed of the body far away from the earth will be
A)
\[22.4km\,\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[31.7km\,\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[33.6km\,\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 11) The range of particle when launched at an angle of \[{{15}^{o}}\] with the horizontal is\[1.5km\]. What is the range of the projectile when launched at an angle of \[{{45}^{o}}\] to the horizontal?
A)
\[3.0km\]
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B)
\[1.5km\]
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C)
\[6.0km\]
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D)
\[0.75km\]
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question_answer 12) A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of \[50N/{{m}^{2}}\] from a volume of \[10{{m}^{3}}\] to a volume of\[4{{m}^{3}}\]. Energy of \[100J\] is thus added to die gas by heating. Its internal energy is
A)
decreased by\[200J\]
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B)
increased by\[100J\]
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C)
increased by\[300J\]
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D)
increased by\[400J\]
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question_answer 13)
A square wire of each side I carries a current J. What is the magnetic field at the midpoint of the square?
A)
\[4\sqrt{2}\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi }\frac{I}{l}\]
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B)
\[8\sqrt{2}\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi }\frac{I}{l}\]
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C)
\[16\sqrt{2}\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi }\frac{I}{l}\]
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D)
\[32\sqrt{2}\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi }\frac{I}{l}\]
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question_answer 14) When a wire is stretched and its radius becomes\[r/2\], then its resistance will be
A)
\[16R\]
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B)
\[4R\]
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C)
\[2R\]
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D)
\[zero\]
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question_answer 15) A cell of emf\[X\]is connected across a resistor R. The potential difference across the wire is measured as V. The internal resistance of the cell should be
A)
\[X\text{--}Y/R\]
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B)
\[(X-Y)R/Y\]
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C)
\[(X-Y)Y/R\]
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D)
\[(X-Y)R\]
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question_answer 16) Light of wavelength \[0.6\mu m\] from a sodium lamp falls on a photocell and causes the emission of photoelectrons for which the stopping potential is \[0.5V\] with light of wavelength \[0.4\mu m\] from a sodium lamp, the stopping potential is \[1.5V\], with this data, the value of\[h/e\]is
A)
\[4\times {{10}^{-19}}V\text{-}s\]
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B)
\[0.25\times {{10}^{-15}}V\text{-}s\]
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C)
\[4\times {{10}^{-15}}V\text{-}s\]
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D)
\[4\times {{10}^{-8}}V\text{-}s\]
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question_answer 17)
In the inductive circuit given in the figure, the currents rises after the switch is closed. At instant when the current is \[15mA\], then potential difference across the inductor will be
A)
zero
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B)
240 V
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C)
180 V
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D)
60 V
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question_answer 18) If the power factor changes from\[\frac{1}{2}\]to\[\frac{1}{4}\], then what is the increase in impedance in\[AC\]?
A)
\[20%\]
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B)
\[50%\]
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C)
\[25%\]
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D)
\[100%\]
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question_answer 19) The earth absorbs \[1022J\] of energy from the sum every day. The percentage increase in the mass of earth every day will be (mass of earth \[=6\times {{10}^{24}}kg\])
A)
\[1.82\times {{10}^{-10}}%\]
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B)
\[1.85\times {{10}^{-15}}%\]
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C)
\[1.85\times {{10}^{-17}}%\]
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D)
\[1.85\times {{10}^{-18}}%\]
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question_answer 20) Every series of hydrogen spectrum has an upper and lower limit in wavelength. The spectral series which has an upper limit of wavelength equal to\[18752\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\], is
A)
Balmer series
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B)
Lyman series
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C)
Paschan series
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D)
Pound series
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question_answer 21) A body of mass m moving with velocity \[v\] makes a head-on collision with another body of mass \[2m\] which is initially at rest. The loss of kinetic energy of the colliding body (mass\[m\]) is
A)
\[\frac{1}{2}\]of its initial kinetic energy
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B)
\[\frac{1}{9}\]of its initial kinetic energy
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C)
\[\frac{8}{9}\]of its initial kinetic energy
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D)
\[\frac{1}{4}\]of its initial kinetic energy
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question_answer 22) An ice cube of density \[900kg/{{m}^{3}}\] floating in water of density\[1000kg/{{m}^{3}}\]. The percentage of volume of ice-cube outside the water is
A)
\[20%\]
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B)
\[35%\]
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C)
\[10%\]
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D)
\[25%\]
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question_answer 23) A voltmeter having a resistance of \[998\Omega \] is connected to a cell of emf \[2V\] and internal resistance\[2\Omega \]. The error in the measurement of emf will be
A)
\[4\times {{10}^{-1}}V\]
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B)
\[2\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]
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C)
\[4\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]
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D)
\[2\times {{10}^{-1}}V\]
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question_answer 24) The deceleration experienced by a moving motor boat, after its engine is cut-off is given\[\frac{dv}{dt}=-k{{v}^{3}}\]where \[k\] is constant and \[{{v}_{0}}\] is the magnitude of the velocity at time \[t\] after the cut off is
A)
\[{{v}_{0}}{{c}^{-kt}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{{{v}_{0}}}{\sqrt{2v_{0}^{2}kt+1}}\]
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C)
\[{{v}_{0}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{{{v}_{0}}}{2}\]
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question_answer 25) The dimensions of\[\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}hc}\], where\[e,\,{{\varepsilon }_{0}},\,h\]and\[c\] are electronic charge, electric permittivity Plancks constant and velocity of light in vacuum respectively
A)
\[[{{M}^{0}}{{L}^{0}}{{T}^{0}}]\]
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B)
\[[M{{L}^{0}}{{T}^{0}}]\]
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C)
\[[{{M}^{0}}L{{T}^{0}}]\]
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D)
\[[{{M}^{0}}{{L}^{0}}T]\]
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question_answer 26) A stone is dropped from a height \[h\] simultaneously, another stone is thrown up from the ground which reaches a height\[4h\]. The two stones cross each other after time
A)
\[\sqrt{\frac{h}{8g}}\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{8gh}\]
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C)
\[\sqrt{2gh}\]
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D)
\[\sqrt{\left( \frac{h}{2g} \right)}\]
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question_answer 27) A spring balance and a physical balance are kept in a lift. In these balances equal masses are placed. If now the lift starts moving upwards with constant acceleration, then
A)
the reading of spring balance will increase and the equilibrium position of the physical balance will disturb
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B)
the reading of spring balance will remain unchanged and physical balance will remain in equilibrium
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C)
the reading of spring balance will decrease and physical balance will remain in equilibrium
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D)
the reading of spring balance will increase and the physical balance will remain in equilibrium
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question_answer 28)
A rough vertical board has an acceleration \[d\] so that a \[2kg\] block pressing against it does not fall. The coefficient of friction between the block and the board should be
A)
\[>g/a\]
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B)
\[<g/a\]
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C)
\[=g/a\]
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D)
\[>a/g\]
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question_answer 29) A reel of thread unrolls itself falling under gravity. Neglecting mass of the thread, the acceleration of the reel is
A)
\[g\]
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B)
\[\frac{g}{2}\]
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C)
\[\frac{2g}{3}\]
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D)
\[\frac{4g}{3}\]
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question_answer 30) A particle is moving in a vertical circle. The tensions in the string when passing through two positions at angle \[{{30}^{o}}\] and \[{{60}^{o}}\] from vertical (lowest position) are \[{{T}_{1}}\] and \[{{T}_{2}}\]respectively, then
A)
\[{{T}_{1}}={{T}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[{{T}_{2}}>{{T}_{1}}\]
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C)
\[{{T}_{1}}>{{T}_{2}}\]
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D)
tension in the string always remains the same
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question_answer 31) When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied which increases, the internal energy of the gas, is
A)
\[\frac{2}{5}\]
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B)
\[\frac{3}{5}\]
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C)
\[\frac{3}{7}\]
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D)
\[\frac{5}{7}\]
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question_answer 32) A black body radiates \[20W\] temperature\[{{227}^{o}}C\]. If temperature of the black body is changed to \[{{727}^{o}}C\] then its radiating power will be
A)
\[120W\]
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B)
\[240W\]
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C)
\[320W\]
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D)
\[360W\]
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question_answer 33) A stretched wire of length \[110cm\] is divided into three segments whose frequencies are in ratio\[1:2:3\]. Their length must be
A)
20 cm; 30 cm; 60 cm
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B)
60 cm; 30 cm; 20 cm
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C)
60 cm; 20 cm; 30 cm
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D)
30 cm; 60 cm; 20 cm
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question_answer 34) The power of a sound from the speaker of a radio is\[20mW\]. By turning the knob of the volume control, the power of the sound is increased to\[400mW\]. The power increase in decibels as compared to the original power is
A)
\[13dB\]
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B)
\[10dB\]
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C)
\[20dB\]
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D)
\[800dB\]
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question_answer 35)
Two identical capacitors A and B are charged to the same potential V and are connected in two circuits ate = 0, as shown in figure. The charge on the capacitors at timer = CR are respectively
A)
\[VC,\,VC\]
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B)
\[\frac{VC}{e},\,\,VC\]
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C)
\[VC,\,\,\frac{VC}{e}\]
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D)
\[\frac{VC}{e},\,\,\frac{VC}{e}\]
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question_answer 36) In the following common emitter circuit if\[\beta =100\],\[{{V}_{CE}}=7V\],\[{{V}_{BE}}=\]Neglegible,\[{{R}_{C}}=2k\Omega \]then
A)
\[0.01mA\]
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B)
\[0.04mA\]
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C)
\[0.02mA\]
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D)
\[0.03mA\]
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question_answer 37)
The following configuration of gate is equivalent to
A)
\[NAND\]
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B)
\[XOR\]
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C)
\[OR\]
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D)
none of these
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question_answer 38) In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetising fields are \[100V{{m}^{-1}}\] and\[0.265A{{m}^{-1}}\]. The maximum energy flow is
A)
\[26.5\,\,W/{{m}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[36.5\,\,W/{{m}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[46.7\,\,W/{{m}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[765\,\,W/{{m}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 39) A copper wire of length 1m and radius \[1mm\] is joined in series with an iron wire of length \[2m\] and radius \[3mm\] and a current is passed through the wires. The ratio of the current density in the copper and iron wires is
A)
\[18:1\]
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B)
\[9:1\]
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C)
\[6:1\]
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D)
\[2:3\]
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question_answer 40) If the momentum of an electron is changed by\[{{\Delta }_{p}}\], then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by\[0.50%\]. The initial momentum of the electron will be
A)
\[\frac{\Delta p}{200}\]
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B)
\[\frac{\Delta p}{199}\]
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C)
\[199\,\,\Delta p\]
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D)
\[400\,\,\Delta p\]
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question_answer 41) An object is placed at a distance of\[\frac{f}{2}\]from a convex lens. The image will be
A)
at one of the foci, virtual and double its size
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B)
at\[\frac{3f}{2}\], real and inverted
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C)
at\[2f\], virtual and erect
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 42) The maximum intensity of fringes in Youngs experiment is J. If one of the slit is closed then the intensity at that place becomes\[{{I}_{0}}\]. Which of the following relation is true?
A)
\[I={{I}_{0}}\]
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B)
\[I=2{{I}_{0}}\]
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C)
\[I=4{{I}_{0}}\]
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D)
There is no relation between\[I\]and\[{{I}_{0}}\]
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question_answer 43) A simple telescope consisting of an objective of focal length \[60cm\] and a single eye lens of focal length \[5cm\] is focussed on a distant object in such a way that parallel rays comes out from the eye lens. If the object subtends an angle \[{{2}^{o}}\] at the objective, the angular width of the image is
A)
\[10{}^\circ \]
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B)
\[24{}^\circ \]
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C)
\[50{}^\circ \]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{6}{}^\circ \]
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question_answer 44)
In the following figure two parallel metallic plates are maintained at different potential. If an electron is released midway between the plates, it will move
A)
right ward at constant speed
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B)
left ward at constant speed
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C)
accelerated right ward
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D)
accelerated left ward
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question_answer 45) Charge \[q\] is uniformly distributed over a thin half ring of radius\[R\]. The electric field at the centre of the ring is
A)
\[\frac{q}{2{{\pi }^{2}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{R}^{2}}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{q}{4{{\pi }^{2}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{R}^{2}}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{q}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{R}^{2}}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{q}{2\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{R}^{2}}}\]
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question_answer 46)
Consider a parallel plate capacitor of \[10\mu F\] (micro-farad) with air filled in the gap between the plates. Now one-half of the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 4, as shown in the figure. The capacity of the capacitor changes to
A)
\[25\mu F\]
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B)
\[20\mu F\]
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C)
\[40\mu F\]
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D)
\[5\mu F\]
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question_answer 47) If\[\mathbf{\vec{A}}=2\mathbf{\hat{i}}+3\mathbf{\hat{j}}-\mathbf{\hat{k}}\]and\[\mathbf{\vec{B}}=-\mathbf{\hat{i}}+3\mathbf{\hat{j}}+4\mathbf{\hat{k}}\], then projection of\[\mathbf{\vec{A}}\]on\[\mathbf{\vec{B}}\]will be
A)
\[\frac{3}{\sqrt{13}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{3}{\sqrt{26}}\]
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C)
\[\sqrt{\frac{3}{26}}\]
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D)
\[\sqrt{\frac{3}{13}}\]
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question_answer 48)
A string of length \[L\] is fixed at one end and carries a mass \[M\] at the other end. The string makes \[\frac{2}{\pi }\] revolutions per second around the vertical axis through the fixed end as shown in the figure, then tension in the string is
A)
\[ML\]
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B)
\[2ML\]
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C)
\[4ML\]
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D)
\[16ML\]
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question_answer 49) Two identical induction coils each of inductance \[L\] joined in series are placed very close to each other such that the winding direction of one is exactly opposite to that of the other, what is net inductance?
A)
\[{{L}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[2L\]
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C)
\[\frac{L}{2}\]
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D)
\[Zero\]
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question_answer 50) A beaker is completely filled with water at\[{{4}^{o}}C.\] It will overflow if
A)
heated above\[{{4}^{o}}C\]
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B)
cooled below\[{{4}^{o}}C\]
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C)
both heated and cooled above and below\[{{4}^{o}}C\]respectively
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 51) \[_{92}{{U}^{235}}\] nucleus absorb a neutron and disintegrate in\[_{54}X{{e}^{139}},\,{{\,}_{38}}S{{r}^{94}}\]and\[X\] so, what will be product\[X\]
A)
\[3-\]neutrons
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B)
\[2-\]neutrons
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C)
\[\alpha -\]particle
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D)
\[\beta -\]particle
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question_answer 52) In hydrogen atom, energy of first excited state is\[-3.4eV\]. Then \[KE\] of same orbit of hydrogen atom is
A)
\[+3.4eV\]
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B)
\[+6.8eV\]
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C)
\[-13.6eV\]
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D)
\[+13.6eV\]
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question_answer 53) Reaction\[Ba{{O}_{2}}(s)BaO(s)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\];\[\Delta H=+ve\]. In equilibrium condition, pressure of\[{{O}_{2}}\]depends on
A)
increased mass of \[Ba{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
increased mass of\[BaO\]
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C)
increased temperature of equilibrium.
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D)
increased mass of\[Ba{{O}_{2}}\]and\[BaO\]both
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question_answer 54) Solubility of\[M{{X}_{2}}-\]type electrolytes is\[0.5\times {{10}^{-4}}mol/L\] Then find out \[{{K}_{sp}}\] of electrolytes
A)
\[5\times {{10}^{-12}}\]
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B)
\[25\times {{10}^{-10}}\]
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C)
\[1\times {{10}^{-13}}\]
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D)
\[5\times {{10}^{-13}}\]
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question_answer 55) \[1M\] and \[2.5\,\,L\,\,NaOH\] solution mixed with another \[0.5M\] and \[3\,\,L\,\,NaOH\] solution. Then find out molarity of resultant solution
A)
\[0.80M\]
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B)
\[1.0M\]
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C)
\[0.73M\]
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D)
\[0.50M\]
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question_answer 56) Which has highest pH?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COOK\]
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B)
\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]
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D)
\[NaN{{O}_{3}}\]
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question_answer 57) Solution of \[0.1\,\,N\,\,N{{H}_{4}}OH\] and \[0.1\,\,N\,\,N{{H}_{4}}Cl\] has\[pH\,\,9.25\], then find out \[p{{K}_{b}}\]of\[N{{H}_{4}}OH\].
A)
\[9.25\]
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B)
\[4.75\]
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C)
\[3.75\]
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D)
\[8.25\]
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question_answer 58) van der Waals real gas, act as an ideal gas, at which condition?
A)
High temperature, low pressure
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B)
Low temperature, high pressure
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C)
High temperature, high pressure
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D)
Low temperature, low pressure
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question_answer 59) Unit of entropy is
A)
\[J{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[J\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[{{J}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}}\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
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D)
\[JK\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 60) In a closed insulated container a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase the temperature, which of the following is true?
A)
\[\Delta E=\Delta W\ne 0,\,\,q=0\]
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B)
\[\Delta E=W=0,\,\,q\ne 0\]
done
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C)
\[\Delta E=0,\,\,W=q\ne 0\]
done
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D)
\[W=0,\,\,\Delta E=q\ne 0\]
done
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question_answer 61) 2 mole of ideal gas at \[{{27}^{o}}C\] temperature is expanded reversibly from \[2\,\,L\] to\[20\,\,L\]. Find entropy change\[(R=2cal/mol\,\,K)\]
A)
\[92.1\]
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B)
\[0\]
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C)
\[4\]
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D)
\[9.2\]
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question_answer 62) Heat of combustion \[\Delta H{}^\circ \] for\[C(s)\], \[{{H}_{2}}(g)\] and \[C{{H}_{4}}(g)\]are \[-94,\,\,-68\] and\[-213\,\,kcal/mol\]. Then\[\Delta H{}^\circ \]for\[C(s)+2{{H}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}C{{H}_{4}}(g)\]is
A)
\[-17kcal\]
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B)
\[-111kcal\]
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C)
\[-170kcal\]
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D)
\[-85kcal\]
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question_answer 63) \[3A\xrightarrow{{}}2B\], rate of reactions\[+\frac{d[B]}{dt}\] is equal to
A)
\[-\frac{3}{2}\frac{d[A]}{dt}\]
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B)
\[-\frac{2}{3}\frac{d[A]}{dt}\]
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C)
\[-\frac{1}{3}\frac{d[A]}{dt}\]
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D)
\[+2\frac{d[A]}{dt}\]
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question_answer 64) \[3A\xrightarrow{{}}B+C\] It would be a zero order reaction when
A)
the rate of reaction is proportional to square of concentration of A
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B)
the rate of reaction remains same at any concentration of A
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C)
the rate remains unchanged at any concentration of B and C
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D)
the rate of reaction doubles if concentration of B is increased to double
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question_answer 65) Which has maximum molecules?
A)
\[7g{{N}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[2g{{H}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[16gN{{O}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[16g{{O}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 66) A solution contains non-volatile solute of molecular mass\[{{M}_{2}}\]. Which of the following can be used to calculate the molecular mass of solute in terms of osmotic pressure?
A)
\[{{M}_{2}}=\left[ \frac{{{m}_{2}}}{\pi } \right]VRT\]
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B)
\[{{M}_{2}}=\left[ \frac{{{m}_{2}}}{V} \right]\frac{RT}{\pi }\]
done
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C)
\[{{M}_{2}}=\left[ \frac{{{m}_{2}}}{V} \right]\pi RT\]
done
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D)
\[{{M}_{2}}\left[ \frac{{{m}_{2}}}{V} \right]\frac{\pi }{RT}\]
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question_answer 67) A solution containing components A and B follows Raoults law
A)
\[A-B\] attraction force is greater than \[A-A\] and\[B-B\]
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B)
\[A-B\]attraction force is less than \[AA\] and\[B-B\]
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C)
\[A-B\]attraction force remains same as \[A-A\] and\[B-B\]
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D)
volume of solution is different from sum of volumes of solute and solvent
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question_answer 68) Which reaction is not feasible?
A)
\[2Kl+B{{r}_{2}}\to 3KBr+{{I}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[2KBr+{{I}_{2}}\to 2Kl+B{{r}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[2KBr+C{{l}_{2}}\to 2KCl+B{{r}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[2{{H}_{2}}O+2{{F}_{2}}\to 4HF+{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 69) In electrolysis of \[NaCI\] when \[Pt\] electrode is taken then \[{{H}_{2}}\] is liberated at. cathode while with \[Hg\] cathode it forms sodium amalgam
A)
Hg is more inert than\[Pt\]
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B)
more voltage is required to reduce \[{{H}^{+}}\] at \[Hg\] than at\[Pt\]
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C)
\[Na\] is dissolved in \[Hg\] while it does not dissolved in\[Pt\]
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D)
concentration of \[{{H}^{+}}\] ions is larger when \[Pt\] electrode is taken
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question_answer 70) Which of the following statement is true?
A)
Silicon exhibits 4 coordination number in its compounds
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B)
Bond energy of \[{{F}_{2}}\] is less than\[C{{l}_{2}}\]
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C)
Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than Mn(II) in aqueous state
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D)
Elements of 15th group shows only+3 and +5 oxidation states
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question_answer 71) Which of the following order is wrong?
A)
\[N{{H}_{3}}<P{{H}_{3}}<As{{H}_{3}}-acidic\]
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B)
\[Li<Be<B<C-1st\,\,IP\]
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C)
\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}<MgO<N{{a}_{2}}O<{{K}_{2}}O-basic\]
done
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D)
\[L{{i}^{+}}<N{{a}^{+}}<{{K}^{+}}<C{{s}^{+}}-ionic\,\,radius\]
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question_answer 72) General electronic configuration of lanthanides are
A)
\[(n-2){{f}^{1-14}}(n-1){{s}^{2}}{{p}^{6}}{{d}^{0-1}}n{{s}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[(n-2){{f}^{10-14}}(n-1){{d}^{0-1}}n{{s}^{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[(n-2){{f}^{0-14}}(n-1){{d}^{10}}n{{s}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[(n-2){{d}^{0-1}}(n-1){{f}^{1-14}}n{{s}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 73) An atom has electronic configuration\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{2}}3{{p}^{6}}3{{d}^{3}}4{{s}^{2}}\], you will place it in
A)
fifth group
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B)
fifteenth group
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C)
second group
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D)
third group
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question_answer 74) Which of the following is iso-electronic?
A)
\[C{{O}_{2}},\,\,N{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[NO_{2}^{-},\,\,C{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[C{{N}^{-}},\,\,CO\]
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D)
\[S{{O}_{2}},\,\,C{{O}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 75) Which of the following has\[{{p}_{\pi }}-{{d}_{\pi }}\], bonding?
A)
\[NO_{3}^{-}\]
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B)
\[SO_{3}^{2-}\]
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C)
\[BO_{3}^{3-}\]
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D)
\[CO_{3}^{2-}\]
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question_answer 76) In\[NO_{3}^{-}\]ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electron on nitrogen atom are
A)
2, 2
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B)
3, 1
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C)
1, 3
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D)
4, 0
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question_answer 77) Which of the following shows maximum number of oxidation states?
A)
\[Cr\]
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B)
\[Fe\]
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C)
\[Mn\]
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D)
\[V\]
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question_answer 78) Atomic number of \[Cr\] and \[Fe\] are respectively 24 and 26, which of the following is paramagnetic with the spin of electron?
A)
\[[Cr{{(CO)}_{6}}]\]
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B)
\[[Fe{{(CO)}_{5}}]\]
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C)
\[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{4-}}\]
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D)
\[{{[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]
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question_answer 79) The hypothetical complex chloro diaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride can be represented as
A)
\[[CoCl{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{2}}]C{{l}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}({{H}_{2}}O)C{{l}_{3}}]\]
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C)
\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{2}})}_{3}}{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{2}}Cl]\]
done
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D)
\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{3}}]C{{l}_{3}}\]
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question_answer 80) In the silver plating of copper, \[K[Ag{{(CN)}_{2}}]\] is used instead of\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]. The reason is
A)
a thin layer of \[Ag\] is formed on \[Cu\]
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B)
more voltage is required
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C)
\[A{{g}^{+}}\] ions are completely removed from solution
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D)
less availability of \[A{{g}^{+}}\] ions, as \[Cu\] cannot displace \[Ag\] from\[{{[Ag{{(CN)}_{2}}]}^{-}}\]ion
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question_answer 81) \[CuS{{O}_{4}}\] when reacts with \[KCN\] forms \[CuCN\]. Which is insoluble in water. It is soluble in excess of \[KCN\], due to formation of the following complex
A)
\[{{K}_{2}}[Cu{{(CN)}_{4}}]\]
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B)
\[[{{K}_{2}}{{[CuCn)}_{4}}]\]
done
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C)
\[CuC{{N}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[Cu[K\,\,Cu{{(CN)}_{4}}]\]
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question_answer 82) Position of non-polar and polar parts in micelles
A)
polar at outer surface but non-polar at inner surface
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B)
polar at inner surface non-polar at outer surface
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C)
distributed over all the surface
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D)
are present in the surface only
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question_answer 83) In borax bead test, which compound is formed?
A)
ortho borate
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B)
meta borate
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C)
double oxide
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D)
tetra borate
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question_answer 84) \[Zn\]gives \[{{H}_{2}}\] gas with \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] and \[HCl\] but not with \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]
A)
\[Zn\]act as oxidising agent when react with\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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B)
\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]is weaker acid than \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] and \[HCl\]
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C)
In electrochemical series \[Zn\] is above hydrogen
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D)
\[NO_{3}^{-}\] is reduced in preference to hydronium ion
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question_answer 85) \[IUPAC\]name of the following is\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C\equiv CH\]
A)
1, 5-hexenyne
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B)
1-hexene-5-yne
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C)
1-hexyne-5-ene
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D)
1, 5-hexynene
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question_answer 86)
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 87) \[n-\]propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent
A)
PCIs
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B)
reduction
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C)
oxidation with potassium dichromate
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D)
ozonolysis
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question_answer 88) In the following reaction product\[P\]is\[R-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} || \\ O \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-Cl\xrightarrow[Pd-BaS{{O}_{4}}]{{{H}_{2}}}p\]
A)
\[RC{{H}_{2}}OH\]
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B)
\[RCOOH\]
done
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C)
\[RCHO\]
done
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D)
\[RC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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question_answer 89) \[\overset{\centerdot \,\,\,\centerdot }{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} || \\ O \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]and\[C{{H}_{2}}=\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} || \\ :O: \\ \,\centerdot \,\,\centerdot \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
A)
resonating structures
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B)
tautomers
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C)
geometrical isomers
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D)
optical isomers
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question_answer 90) Reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation is
A)
\[R-F>R-Cl>R-Br>R-I\]
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B)
\[R-I>R-Br>R-Cl>R-F\]
done
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C)
\[R-I>R-Cl>R-Br>R-F\]
done
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D)
\[R-F>R-I>R-Br>R-Cl\]
done
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question_answer 91) Monomer of\[{{\left[ -\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}- \right]}_{n}}\]is
A)
2-methyl propene
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B)
styrene
done
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C)
propylene
done
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D)
ethane
done
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question_answer 92)
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} O \\ || \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
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question_answer 93) Cellulose is polymer of
A)
glucose
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B)
fructose
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C)
ribose
done
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D)
sucrose
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question_answer 94) \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}Cl\xrightarrow{NaCN}X\xrightarrow{Ni/{{H}_{2}}}Y\]\[Z\xleftarrow{Aceticanhydride}\]in above reaction sequence, \[Z\]is
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}NHCOC{{H}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CONHC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CONHCOC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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question_answer 95) When phenol is treated with \[CHC{{l}_{3}}\] and \[NaOH\] the product formed is
A)
benzaldehyde
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B)
salicylaldehyde
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C)
salicylic acid
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D)
benzoicacid
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question_answer 96) The percentage of \[C,\,\,H\] and \[N\] in an organic compound are \[40%,\,\,13.3%\] and \[46.7%\] respectively then empirical formula is
A)
\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{13}}{{N}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{2}}N\]
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C)
\[C{{H}_{4}}N\]
done
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D)
\[C{{H}_{6}}N\]
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question_answer 97) Enzymes are made up of
A)
edible proteins
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B)
proteins with specific structure
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C)
nitrogen containing carbohydrates
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D)
carbohydrates
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question_answer 98) Geometrical isomers differ in
A)
position of functional group
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B)
position of atoms
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C)
spatial arrangement of atoms
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D)
length of carbon chain
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question_answer 99) When\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}CHC{{l}_{2}}\]is treated with\[NaN{{H}_{2}}\], the product formed is
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-CH\equiv CH\]
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 100) Which is not true statement?
A)
\[\alpha -\]carbon of a-amino acid is asymmetric
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B)
All proteins are found in \[L-\]form
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C)
Human body can synthesise all proteins they need
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D)
At \[pH=7\] both amino and carboxylic groups exist in ionised form
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question_answer 101) Mullets fibres occur in which part?
A)
Heart
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B)
Kidney
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C)
Pancreas
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D)
Retina
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question_answer 102) A commonly used mastigator called supari is obtained from the plant
A)
Acacia catechu
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B)
Areca catechu
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C)
Pipe betel
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 103) The aril of litchi which is edible part is made up of:
A)
I integument
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B)
II integument
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C)
III integument
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D)
IV integument
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question_answer 104) A drug called morphine is obtained from
A)
Rauwolfia serpentine
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B)
Cannabis sativa
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C)
Cajanus cajan
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D)
Papaver somniferum
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question_answer 105) Epigynous flowers with numerous stamens are found in
A)
Ranunculus muricatus
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B)
Fragaria indica
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C)
Croton roxburghii
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D)
Syzygium cuminis
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question_answer 106) Interphase nucleus is enclosed by
A)
non-porous nuclear membrane
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B)
porous double nuclear membrane
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C)
non-porous double discontinuous nuclear membrane
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D)
a single porous unit membrane
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question_answer 107) Golgi apparatus: Transports and modifies material Secrete mucin in respiratory tract Secretes slime in insectivorous plants. What is correct?
A)
Wrong A, correct B and C
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B)
Wrong B, correct A and C
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C)
Wrong B and C, correct A
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D)
Wrong none, correct all
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question_answer 108) The lowest number of chromosomes is found in which of the following?
A)
Haplopappus gracilis
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B)
Poa litorosa
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C)
Salix tetrasperma
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D)
Ageratum coigzoides
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question_answer 109) The nucleotide sequence of an anticodon is complementary to nucleotide sequence in
A)
tRNA
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B)
mRNA
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C)
rRNA
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D)
DNA
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question_answer 110) Which one of the following amino acids can stabilize protein structure by forming disulphide bonds?
A)
Arginine
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B)
Lysine
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C)
Cysteine
done
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D)
Alanine
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question_answer 111) Chromosome number can be doubled by using which of the following?
A)
Indole acetic acid
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B)
GA
done
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C)
Zeatin
done
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D)
Colchicine
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question_answer 112) Dr. Karry B Mullis was awarded Nobel Prize in chemistry in 1993 for his work on
A)
site directed mutagenesis
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B)
polymerase chain reaction
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C)
mobile genetic elements
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D)
antibody diversity
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question_answer 113) Which of the following cell organelles is rich in catabolic enzymes?
A)
Chloroplast
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B)
Mitochondria
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C)
Golgi complex
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D)
Ribosomes
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question_answer 114) A conspicuous rounded body present in nucleoplasm and attached to a particular chromosome at a definite place is
A)
plasmid
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B)
karyolymph
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C)
nucleolus
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D)
nuclear reticulum
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question_answer 115) Nucleolus is
A)
rounded structure found in cytoplasm near nucleus
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B)
rounded structure inside nucleus and having rRNA
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C)
rod shaped structure in cytoplasm near the nucleus
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 116) Bt cotton contains genes from
A)
Bacillus thuringiensis
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B)
Bacillus thermos
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C)
Bacteroides thuringiensis
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D)
Boreuia tunicate
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question_answer 117) A drug obtained through genetic engineering and useful for treating infertility is
A)
calcitonin
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B)
chorionic gonadotropin
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C)
interleukin
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D)
tissue plasminogen activator
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question_answer 118) The biological concept of species was formulated by
A)
Mayr
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B)
Stebbins
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C)
Heywood
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D)
Love
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question_answer 119) The total number of angiospermous families in Bentham and Hookers system of classification is:
A)
205
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B)
203
done
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C)
201
done
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D)
200
done
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question_answer 120) Which of the following pairs of families possess pollinia?
A)
Orchidaceae and Apocynaceae
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B)
Orchidaceae and Asclepiadaceae
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C)
Asclepiadaceae and Mimosaceae
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D)
Asclepiadaceae and Apocynaceae
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question_answer 121) When the specific epithet exactly repeats, generic name. It is called as
A)
tautonym
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B)
synonym
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C)
basionym
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D)
homonym
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question_answer 122) Solution of polyethylene glycol (PEG) or a very brief high voltage electric current is used in fusion of
A)
protoplasms
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B)
protoplasts
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C)
somatic cells
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D)
germinal cells
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question_answer 123) The enzyme which converts corn starch into fructose rich corn syrup is
A)
amylases
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B)
glucoamylases
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C)
glucoisomerases
done
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D)
all of the above
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question_answer 124) Wine and beer are produced directly by fermentation. Brandy and whisky require both fermentation and distillation because
A)
fermentation is inhibited at an alcohol level of 10-18%.
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B)
distillation prolongs storage
done
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C)
distillation improves quality
done
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D)
distillation purifies the beverage
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question_answer 125) The phenomenon of antibiosis (ie, secretion of one microbe inhibit the growth of other microbes) was discovered by
A)
Pasteur
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B)
Babes
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C)
Flemming
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D)
Waksman
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question_answer 126) A ring of multicilliate zoogonidium is found in
A)
Ulothrix
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B)
Zygnema
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C)
Oedogonium
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D)
Chara
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question_answer 127) The only living fossil which is known by the name of maiden hair tree
A)
Thuja
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B)
Pinus
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C)
Ginkgo
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D)
Araucaria
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question_answer 128) Which green algae shows hetero trichous habit and may have given rise to terrestrial (land) habit?
A)
Chlamydomonas
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B)
Fritschiella
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C)
Vaucheria
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D)
Ulothrix
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question_answer 129) A group of plants which are autotrophs, their sex organs are non-jacketed and whose zygotes secrete thick wall are called
A)
phycophytes
done
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B)
lichens
done
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C)
bryophytes
done
clear
D)
thallophytes
done
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question_answer 130)
Match the following ovular structure with post fertilization structure and select the correct alternative A. Ovule 1. Endosperm B. Funiculus 2. Aril C. Nucellus 3. Seed D. Polar nuclei 4. Perisperm
A)
A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
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B)
A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
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C)
A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
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D)
A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
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question_answer 131) The beri-beri is a paralytic disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin-Bi (thiamine). It was discovered by
A)
Funk
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B)
GE Foxon
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C)
Eijkman
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D)
Stanley
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question_answer 132) Which of the following pair is characterised by swollen lip, thick, pigmented skin of hands and legs are irritability?
A)
Thiamine - Beri-beri
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B)
Protein - Kwashiorkor
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C)
Nicotinamide - Pellagra
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D)
Iodine - Goitre
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question_answer 133) During prolonged fasting
A)
first fats are used by, followed by carbohydrates from liver and muscles and proteins in the end
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B)
first carbohydrates are used up, followed by fat and proteins towards ends
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C)
first lipid, followed by protein and carbohydrates towards ends
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 134) Lathyrism which results due to consumption of khebaridal is characterised by
A)
skeletal deformation and thinning of collagen fibre
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B)
skeletal abnormality, diabetes mellitus and reproductive failure
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C)
retailed growth precocious puberty and renal dysfunction
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D)
cardio vascular abnormalities, mental retardation and delayed puberty
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question_answer 135) The enzyme which converts maltose into glucose is
A)
diastase
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B)
hydrogenase
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C)
invertase
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D)
maltase
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question_answer 136)
Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume (1) Tidal volume (2) Residual volume (3) Expiratory reserve volume (4) Vital capacity
Codes:
A)
1 < 2 < 3 < 4
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B)
1 < 3 < 2 < 4
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C)
1 < 4 < 3 < 2
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D)
1 < 4 < 2 < 3
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question_answer 137) In a copulating pair of earthworm, which two process takes place?
A)
External fertilization and cross fertilization
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B)
Cross fertilization and reciprocal fertilization
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C)
Internal fertilization and cross fertilization
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D)
Reciprocal fertilization and internal fertilization
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question_answer 138) The part of spermatheca of earthworm that acts as store house of spermatozoa is
A)
ampulla
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B)
diverticulum
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C)
both [a] and [b]
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D)
none of these
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question_answer 139) The correct arrangement of leg parts of cockroach is
A)
coxa, femur, trochanter, tibia and claws
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B)
coxa, trochanter, femur, tibia, tarsus and claws
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C)
coxa, tibia, femur, plantulae and claws
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 140) During respiration in frog the hyoid and floor of the buccal cavity are raised with the help of
A)
stemohyal muscles
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B)
petrohyal muscles
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C)
ligaments
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D)
inter coastal muscles
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question_answer 141) Jacobsons organs which are additional olfactory organ are present in
A)
rat
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B)
snakes
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C)
man
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D)
all of these
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question_answer 142) Right lung of rat has 4 lobes. The left lung has how many lobe/lobes?
A)
One
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B)
Two
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C)
Three
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D)
Four
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question_answer 143) In frogs heart, which of the following is considered as pacemaker?
A)
Pyrangium
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B)
Synangium
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C)
Sinus venosus
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D)
Truncus arteriosus
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question_answer 144) Eggs which have yolk in the centre surrounded by cytoplasm are called
A)
centrolecithal
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B)
homolecithal
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C)
microlecithal
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D)
alecithal
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question_answer 145) If an earthworm is left in \[40%\text{ }KOH\] solution for a long time, which part would be left undissolved?
A)
Setae
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B)
Sperma thecae
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C)
Sand particles
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D)
Circular muscles
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question_answer 146) Which of the following is the character of dorsal blood vessel of the earthworm?
A)
Collecting in the whole body
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B)
Collecting in first 13 segments
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C)
Distributing in the whole body
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D)
Distributing in the first 13 segments
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question_answer 147) The dorsal plate of skeleton found on the abdomen of cockroach is called
A)
pleuron
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B)
sternum
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C)
tergum
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D)
vertex
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question_answer 148) A normal plant suddenly started reproducing partheno genetically. The miffiber of chromosomes of the second generation as compared to the parent will be
A)
one half
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B)
one fourth
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C)
same
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D)
double
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question_answer 149) The number of punctuation codons in a genetic code are
A)
\[2+3=5\]
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B)
\[1+3=4\]
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C)
\[1+1=2\]
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D)
\[3\]
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question_answer 150) Out of the following which is a genetically engineered antiviral protein?
A)
Humulin
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B)
Interferon
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C)
Fumagillin
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D)
Griseofulvin
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question_answer 151) The number of chromosomes in endospermic cell is 36. What will be the number of chromosome in root tip cells?
A)
9
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B)
18
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C)
12
done
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D)
24
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question_answer 152) Phragmoplast is
A)
proplasted in cytoplasm of dividing cells
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B)
cell plate formed by vesicles of ER and dictyosomes during cytokinesis
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C)
cell plate formed by ER, dictyosomes secretory vesicles and spindle fibre
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 153) Mitosis is a process by which eukaryotic cells
A)
grow
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B)
get specialised in structure
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C)
multiply
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D)
expose the genes
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question_answer 154) The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll
A)
shows that some colours of light are absorbed more than the others
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B)
approximates the action spectrum of photosynthesis
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C)
explains why chlorophyll is a green pigment
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D)
has all the above properties
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question_answer 155) Which of the following pairs of chromosomal mutation are most likely to occur when homologous chromosomes are undergoing synapsis?
A)
Deletion and inversion
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B)
Duplication and translocation
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C)
Deletion and duplication
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D)
Inversion and translocation
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question_answer 156) Interferon is a type of protein which is used to cure
A)
homeostatic disorder
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B)
hepatitis caused by virus
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C)
common cold caused by virus
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D)
both b and c
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question_answer 157) Bacteria bearing tufts of flagella on both the poles are known as
A)
peritrichous
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B)
cephalotrichous
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C)
lophotrichous
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D)
amphitrichous
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question_answer 158) Antigen binds to antibody. This binding is a result of
A)
electrostatic interactions
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B)
covalent bonds
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C)
disulphide bridges
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D)
amide formation
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question_answer 159) An \[R{{h}^{-}}\] individual receives \[R{{h}^{+}}\] blood. The recipient becomes
A)
sterile
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B)
dead
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C)
no reaction
done
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D)
isoimmunised
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question_answer 160) Who isolated rennet a cheese producting enzyme from calfs stomach?
A)
Flemming
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B)
Hensen
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C)
Waksman
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D)
Smith and Norths
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question_answer 161) The missing link between amphibians and reptiles is
A)
Archaeopteryx
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B)
Ichthyostega
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C)
Seymouria
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 162) In a conditions when potential competitors accidently come together to share the same living place, extreme types from each population, those who might complete least are favoured, is a phenomenon called
A)
competitive exclusion
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B)
character displacement
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C)
commensalism
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D)
mimicry
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question_answer 163) Evolutionary change does not comes about at the level of individual but at the level of
A)
two persons
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B)
10 persons
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C)
population
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D)
small group
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question_answer 164) Population-I and II are growing in the same habitat and are morphologically similar but these are intersterile. In terms of biological concept of species they may be considered as
A)
one species
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B)
two distinct species
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C)
two siblings species
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 165) The biological definition of a species depends on
A)
the geographical distribution of two groups of organisms
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B)
reproductive isolation of two groups of organisms
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C)
anatomical and developmental differences between the two groups of organisms
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D)
difference in the adaptation of two groups of organisms
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question_answer 166) Which of the following is controlled by multiple alleles?
A)
Sickle cell anaemia
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B)
Colour blindness
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C)
Blood groups
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 167) Descent with modification is the main theme of
A)
genetics and interpretation
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B)
biogenesis
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C)
recapitulation
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D)
evolution
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question_answer 168) What percentage of solar radiation that hits the earths atmosphere ever reaches the surface?
A)
92%
done
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B)
2%
done
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C)
42%
done
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D)
22%
done
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question_answer 169) The niche of a population is defined as
A)
set of condition that interacts
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B)
place where it lives
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C)
set of conditions and resources it uses
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D)
geographical area that it coveres
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question_answer 170) The reflectivity percentage of incident light on earth is meterologi cally called as
A)
tornado
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B)
albedo
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C)
refraction
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D)
reradiation
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question_answer 171) A high density of tiger population in an area can result in
A)
predation
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B)
interspecific (internecine) competition
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C)
intraspecific (intranecine) competition
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D)
proto co-operation
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question_answer 172) Pond is defined as a
A)
biome
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B)
agroecosystems
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C)
natural ecosystem
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D)
community
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question_answer 173) Maximum amount of oxygen is obtained from
A)
phytoplankton
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B)
grasslands
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C)
forests
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D)
herbs and shrubs
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question_answer 174) In many countries spread of Opuntia was controlled by
A)
DDT
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B)
growing trees
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C)
introducing insects
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D)
letting lose catties
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question_answer 175) Of the following four metropolitan Indian cities, where polluted air hangs above like a cloud
A)
Mumbai
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B)
Delhi
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C)
Kolkata
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D)
Chennai
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question_answer 176) Number of endangered species of angiosperms in India is
A)
487
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B)
15,000
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C)
5,000
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D)
3,000
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question_answer 177) The vascular bundle, where the phloem is surrounded by xylem is known as
A)
amphivasal
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B)
bicollateral
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C)
amphicribal
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D)
radial
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question_answer 178) Interxylary as well as intraxylary phloem is present in
A)
Bignonia
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B)
Mirdbilis
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C)
Strychnos
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D)
Achyranthes
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question_answer 179) In grana, of chloroplast, the reaction ADP + Pi = ATP during day shows
A)
oxidative phosphorylation
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B)
photophosphorylation
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C)
substrate level phosphorylation
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D)
dephosphorylation
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question_answer 180) Out of the given cell organelle which does not possess DNA?
A)
Peroxisome
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B)
Chloroplast
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C)
Mitochondria
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D)
Nucleus
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question_answer 181) Imbibition involves
A)
diffusion of water
done
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B)
movement of water into imbibant through capillary
done
clear
C)
movement of water into imbibant through diffusion as well as capillary action
done
clear
D)
absorption of water
done
clear
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question_answer 182) On the basis of symptoms of chlorosis in leaves a student inferred that this was due to deficiency of nitrogen. This inference could be correct only if we assume that yellowing of leaves appeared first in
A)
old leaves
done
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B)
young leaves
done
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C)
young leaves followed by mature leaves
done
clear
D)
mature leaves followed by young leaves
done
clear
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question_answer 183) Basic features of Kranz anatomy of \[{{C}_{4}}\] plant is
A)
presence of chloroplast in bundle sheath cells
done
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B)
presence of chloroplast in mesophyll and epidermal cells
done
clear
C)
presence of typical granal chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells and rudimentary chloroplast in mesophyll cells
done
clear
D)
presence of rudimentary chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells and typical granal chloroplasts in mesophyll cells
done
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question_answer 184) \[2NADH({{H}^{+}})\]produced during anaerobic glycolysis yield
A)
6 ATP molecules
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B)
4 ATP molecules
done
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C)
8 ATP molecules
done
clear
D)
none of the above
done
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question_answer 185) In photo respiration which is light induced cyclic oxidation of photosynthetic intermediates with the help of oxygen, the substrate is
A)
glycolate
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B)
glucose
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C)
pyruvicacid
done
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D)
acetyl Co-A
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question_answer 186) RQ value of 4 may be expected for the complete oxidation of which one of the following?
A)
Glucose
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B)
Malic acid
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C)
Oxalic acid
done
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D)
Tartaric acid
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question_answer 187) When pea seeds and wheat seeds are put in water, which of the two will imbibe more water?
A)
Wheat seeds
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B)
Pea seeds
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C)
Both will imbibe equal amount of water
done
clear
D)
Pea seeds imbibe water only at alkaline pH
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question_answer 188) Who proved for the first time that the plants contain a large number of minerals and micro elements?
A)
De Saussure (1804)
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B)
Leibeg (1840)
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C)
Glauber and Mayhon (1650)
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D)
Amon and Stout (1939)
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question_answer 189) The rate of diffusion is dependent upon the permeability of the medium, it however
A)
influences the final equilibrium of diffusion as it is never reached if the medium is dense
done
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B)
does influences the final equilibrium of diffusion
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C)
does not influences the final equilibrium of diffusion
done
clear
D)
none of the above
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question_answer 190) Hydroponics is a system of growing plants in
A)
soil less cultures or solution culture
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B)
acidic soils
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C)
soil less culture with alkaline pH
done
clear
D)
soil less culture with acidic pH
done
clear
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question_answer 191) Sometimes there are more than two alleles for a given chromosome locus in this case a trait is controlled by
A)
co dominance
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B)
pseudo dominance
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C)
incomplete dominance
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D)
multiple alleles
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question_answer 192) Klinefeltefs syndrome is describe as a condition in human individual when sex chromosome constitution is
A)
XYO
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B)
XXX
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C)
XXO
done
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D)
XXY
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question_answer 193) Person suffering from disease phenylketonuria which is autosomal recessive disease lack which of these?
A)
Homogentisic acid
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B)
Phenyl alanine hydroxylase
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C)
Caeruloplasmin
done
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D)
Cystine
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clear
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question_answer 194) If the ratio between X-chromosomes and complete set of autosome is 0.5. Then the individual will be
A)
female
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B)
super female
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C)
male
done
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D)
super male
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clear
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question_answer 195) According to genie balance theory which was given by CB Bridges the sex of Drosophila is determined by
A)
ratio between the number of Y-chromosomes and complete set of autosomes
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B)
ratio between the number of X-chromosome and complete set of autosomes
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C)
both are correct
done
clear
D)
none of the above
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question_answer 196) Genie balance theory of sex determination stated by CB Bridges is related to
A)
Drosophila melanogaster
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B)
Rumex
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C)
Snapdragon
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 197) Genes when present in homozygous condition results in non-viable progeny the factor responsible for such conditions are
A)
polygenes
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B)
linked genes
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C)
lethal genes
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D)
epistatic genes
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question_answer 198) Haemophilia, a X-linked recessive disease is caused due to deficiency of
A)
blood plasma and vitamin-K
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B)
blood platelets and haemoglobin
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C)
lack of clotting material and vitamin-K
done
clear
D)
allot the above
done
clear
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question_answer 199) Wild type of cells which are unable to grow on minimal media and nutritional mutants are respectively known as
A)
prototrophs, auxophytes
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B)
auxotrophs, prototrophs
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C)
prototypes and auxotrophs
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D)
prototrophs and auxotrophs
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question_answer 200) The plant which is used for studying hybrid vigour or heterosis is
A)
maize
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B)
pea
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C)
datura
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D)
none of the above
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Product \[P\] in the above reaction is
In the above reaction product P is
