Solved papers for Haryana PMT Haryana PMT Solved Paper-2003

Haryana PMT Solved Paper-2003 Total Questions - 250

1) The dimensional formula \[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\] represents:

A)

momentum

B)

acceleration

C)

force

D)

moment of force

View Answer
2) The velocity of a body moving with uniform acceleration at a given instant of time is 10 m/s. After 5 seconds its velocity is 20 m/s.            Distance travelled in that time is :

A)

300 m

B)

400 m

C)

150 m

D)

75 m

View Answer
3) As stone falls freely such that the distance           covered by it in the last second of its motion is equal to the distance covered by it in the first                5 seconds. It is in air for :

A)

26s

B)

25s

C)

13s

D)

12s

View Answer
4) A man weighing 60 kg is in a lift moving down with an acceleration of 1.8 m/s2. The floor exerts on him a force equal to :

A)

696 N

B)

zero

C)

480N

D)

588 N

View Answer
5) An object is thrown along a direction making an angle 45° with the horizontal direction. The horizontal range of the object is equal to :

A)

twice the vertical height

B)

vertical height

C)

four times the vertical height

D)

three times of vertical height

View Answer
6) Which of the following cannot be the speed time graph :

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
7) A body of mass 1 kg is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1 m. What will be the difference in kinetic energy at the top and at the bottom of the circle? \[(\text{take}\,g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}})\] :

A)

50 J

B)

30 J

C)

20J

D)

10J

View Answer
8) A circular ring of mass \[m\] and radius \[r\] is rolling on a smooth horizontal surface with speed \[u\]. Its kinetic energy is :

A)

\[\frac{1}{8}m{{u}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{4}m{{u}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{4}m{{u}^{2}}\]

D)

\[m{{u}^{2}}\]

View Answer
9) A satellite is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 4 times that of the parking orbit. The time period of the satellite is :

A)

16 day

B)

2 day

C)

4 day

D)

8 day

View Answer
10) As shown in figure, a planet revolves in elliptical orbit around the sun, where K.E. of the planet is maximum :

A)

at \[{{P}_{4}}\]

B)

at \[{{P}_{1}}\]

C)

at \[{{P}_{2}}\]

D)

at \[{{P}_{3}}\]

View Answer
11) A Carnots engine operates between 400 K and 800 K, its efficiency is :

A)

25%

B)

50%

C)

75%

D)

100%

View Answer
12) The critical angle for a medium is 45°, the refractive index will be :

A)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\]

View Answer
13) Reactance of a capacitor of capacitance C \[\mu \]F for A.C. frequency \[\frac{400}{\pi }\]Hz is 25 \[\Omega \], the value of C is :

A)

75 \[\mu \]F

B)

100 \[\mu \]F

C)

25 \[\mu \]F

D)

50 \[\mu \]F

View Answer
14) An electron and a proton have same de-Broglie wavelength, then kinetic energy of the electron is :

A)

greater than K.E. of proton

B)

zero

C)

equal to K.E. of proton

D)

Infinite

View Answer
15) Relative permeability of iron is 5500, Its magnetic susceptibility is :

A)

5499

B)

\[5500\times {{10}^{7}}\]

C)

\[5500\times {{10}^{-7}}\]

D)

5501

View Answer
16) A force of \[7\hat{i}=6\hat{k}\] makes a body move on a       plane with the velocity \[3\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\] The power developed is :

A)

\[\sqrt{45}\]

B)

45

C)

24

D)

\[\sqrt{24}\]

View Answer
17) The variation of PV graph with V of a fixed mass of on ideal gas at constant temperature is graphical) represented as shown in figure.

A)



B)

C)



D)



View Answer
18) The number of oxygen molecules in a cylinder of volume 1m3 at a temperature of \[27{}^\circ C\] and pressure 13.8 Pa is (Boltzmaans constant \[k=1.38\times {{10}^{-23}}J\text{ }{{K}^{-1}}\]) is :

A)

\[6.23\times {{10}^{26}}\]

B)

\[0.33\times {{10}^{28}}\]

C)

\[3.3\times {{10}^{21}}\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
19) The minimum magnifying power of a telescope is M. If the focal length of the eye lens is halved. The magnifying power will become :

A)

\[\frac{M}{4}\]

B)

3M

C)

2M

D)

4M

View Answer
20) The surface temperature is maximum for :

A)

blue star

B)

yellow star

C)

green star

D)

red star

View Answer
21) The magnifying power of Gallilean telescope in the normal adjustment is 20. The difference between the magnifying power and length of the telescope is 19.05. The focal length of objective and eyepiece are (in m) :

A)

1 and -0.05

B)

0.05 and 2

C)

1 and 0.05

D)

2 and 0.05

View Answer
22) In Youngs experiment, using light of wavelength \[6000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] fringe width at distance 2.5 m is obtained as 0.8 mm. If the entire apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6, the fringe width will be:

A)

0.2 mm

B)

0.4 mm

C)

0.5 mm

D)

0.6 mm

View Answer
23) In double slit experiment, the angular width of interference fringes with sodium light \[(\lambda =5890\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,)\] is \[0.20{}^\circ \]. The change in wavelength required to increase the angular. width by 10% will be :

A)

zero

B)

increased by \[6479\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

increased by \[589\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

decreased by \[589\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
24) SHM is executed by a particle of mass m, the, displacement of the particle is\[\left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right)\] times the amplitude. What fraction or the total energy is kinetic at this displacement:

A)

\[\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{3}{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

View Answer
25) The period of SHM of a particle is 12s. The phase difference between the position at t = 3s and t = 4s will be :

A)

\[\pi /4\]

B)

\[3\pi /5\]

C)

\[\pi /6\]

D)

\[\pi /2\]

View Answer
26) The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.15% when its temperature is raised by 24°C. The coefficient of linear expansion of metal is:

A)

\[2.0\times {{10}^{-50}}C\]

B)

\[2.0\times {{10}^{-5/0}}C\]

C)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{-5/0}}C\]

D)

\[1.2\times {{10}^{-5/0}}C\]

View Answer
27) The radii of two soap bubbles are \[{{r}_{1}}\] and \[{{r}_{2}}\]\[({{r}_{2}}>{{r}_{1}}).\] When they come into contact, the radius of their common interface is :

A)

\[{{r}_{2}}-{{r}_{1}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{r_{1}^{2}-r_{2}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}}}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{r}_{1}}{{r}_{2}}}{{{r}_{2}}-{{r}_{1}}}\]

View Answer
28) 28.          A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass slab at 60°. The refractive index of glass, if the reflected and refracted rays are mutually perpendicular to each other, will be :

A)

1.5

B)

4.16

C)

2.25

D)

1.414

View Answer
29) A stretched string is 1 m long. Its mass per unit length is 0.5 g/m. It is stretched with a force of 20 N. It plucked at a distance of 25 cm from one end. The frequency of note emitted by it will be :

A)

400 Hz

B)

300 Hz

C)

200 Hz

D)

100 Hz

View Answer
30) A   transverse wave   is given by \[y\] = A \[\sin 2\pi (ft-x/\lambda )\].The maximum particle velocity is 4 times the wave velocity when :

A)

\[\lambda =2\pi A\]

B)

\[\lambda =\pi A\]

C)

\[\lambda =\pi A/2\]

D)

\[\lambda =\pi A/4\]

View Answer
31) The energy in eV of red light of wavelength \[\lambda =6560\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,:\]

A)

1.89 eV

B)

2.89 eV

C)

3.89 eV

D)

4.89 eV

View Answer
32) Given the wavelength of first member of Lyman series is \[1215\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]. The wavelength of Ha line is :

A)

\[6561\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[5464\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[800\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[4840\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
33) When silver is irradiated by ultraviolet light of \[1000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\], potential of 7.7 V is required to stop the photoelectrons. The work function of silver will be :

A)

3.72 eV

B)

6.72 eV

C)

5.72 eV

D)

4.72 eV

View Answer
34) Maximum kinetic energy \[{{E}_{k}}\] of a photoelectron varies with the frequency v of the incident radiation as :

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
35) A radioactive element has half-life period 1600 year. After 6400 year, what part of element will remain?

A)

\[\frac{1}{4}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{8}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{16}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

View Answer
36) For a transistor \[{{I}_{e}}\]c = 25 mA and \[{{I}_{b}}\]= 1 mA. The value of current gain \[\alpha \] will be :

A)

\[\frac{25}{24}\]

B)

\[\frac{24}{25}\]

C)

\[\frac{25}{26}\]

D)

\[\frac{26}{25}\]

View Answer
37) When two semiconductors of \[p\] and \[n\] type are brought into contact, they form a \[p-n\] junction which acts like a :

A)

rectifier

B)

amplifier

C)

oscillator

D)

conductor

View Answer
38) The de-Broglie wavelength of 1 kg mass moving with a velocity of 10 m/s, will be :

A)

\[6.626\times {{10}^{-35}}m\]

B)

\[6.626\times {{10}^{-34}}m\]

C)

\[6.626\times {{10}^{-33}}m\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
39) Which of the following figure represents the variation of particle momentum and associated de-Broglie wavelength?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
40) If R, C and L denote resistance, capacitance and inductance. Which of the following will not have the dimension of frequency :

A)

\[[R{{L}^{-1}}]\]

B)

\[[{{R}^{-1}}{{C}^{-1}}]\]

C)

\[[{{L}^{-1/2}}{{C}^{-1/2}}]\]

D)

\[[RCL]\]

View Answer
41) A 10 \[\mu \]\[\mu F\]capacitor is connected across a 200 V, 50 Hz AC. Supply. The peak current through the circuit is :

A)

\[0.6\sqrt{2}\text{A}\]

B)

\[0.6\text{A}\]

C)

\[\frac{0.6\pi }{2A}\]

D)

\[\frac{0.6}{\sqrt{2}}\text{A}\]

View Answer
42) What is the energy stored in a 50 mH inductor carrying a current of 4A?

A)

0.2 J

B)

0.4 J

C)

0.05J

D)

0.1J

View Answer
43) In an ammeter, 4% of the main current is passing through galvanometer. If the galvanometer is shunted with a 5\[\Omega \] resistance.   The   resistance   of   the galvanometer is :

A)

120\[\Omega \]

B)

20\[\Omega \]

C)

5 \[\Omega \]

D)

4 \[\Omega \]

View Answer
44) If 100 kWh of energy is consumed at 33V in a copper voltameter. What is the mass of copper liberated? Electrochemical equivalent of copper is \[=\text{ }0.33\times {{10}^{-6}}kg/C.\]

A)

1 mg

B)

3.6 kg

C)

3.3 kg

D)

1kg

View Answer
45) Four equal resistances when connected in series dissipates 5 watt power. If they are connected in parallel, the power dissipated will be :

A)

80 W

B)

60 W

C)

40 W

D)

20 W

View Answer
46) What is the magnitude of the point charge due to which the electric field 30 cm away has    the    magnitude    of   2N/C\[\left( \frac{1}{4{{\pi }_{\varepsilon 0}}}=9\times {{10}^{9}}N{{m}^{2}}/{{C}^{2}} \right):\]

A)

\[4\times {{10}^{-11}}C\]

B)

\[2\times {{10}^{-11}}C\]

C)

\[5.4\times {{10}^{-11}}C\]

D)

\[7.5\times {{10}^{-11}}C\]

View Answer
47) A parallel plate capacitor is immersed in an oil of dielectric constant 2. The. Field between the plates is :

A)

decreased, proportional to \[\frac{L}{\sqrt{2}}\]

B)

increased, proportional to \[\sqrt{2}\]

C)

decreased, proportional to \[\frac{1}{2}\]

D)

increased, proportional to 2

View Answer
48) When the number of turns in a coil is doubled without any change in the length of the coil. Its self-inductance becomes :

A)

four times

B)

doubled

C)

halved

D)

squared

View Answer
49) If the potential energy of two molecules is A B given by \[U=\frac{A}{_{r}6}-\frac{B}{_{r}12,}\] then at equilibrium position, its potential energy is equal to :

A)

\[\frac{{{A}^{2}}}{4B}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{B}^{2}}}{4A}\]

C)

\[\frac{2B}{A}\]

D)

\[\frac{-B}{4A}\]

View Answer
50) The ratio of potential energy of earths satellite to K.E. of satellite is :

A)

1 : 2

B)

2 : 1

C)

1 : 1

D)

4 : 1

View Answer
51) Which of the following statements, about zero order reaction is not true?

A)

Its rate constant unit is \[se{{c}^{-1}}\]

B)

The graph between time and rate of reaction is a straight line

C)

Rate of reaction is independant of concentration of reactants

D)

None of the above.

View Answer
52) The amount of \[{{H}_{2}}S\], required to precipitate\[1.69g\]. BaS from \[BaC{{l}_{2}}\] solution is:

A)

\[3.4g\]

B)

\[0.34g\]

C)

\[0.34g\]

D)

\[0.17g\]

View Answer
53) Which of the following is not a protein?

A)

Tastosterone

B)

Lipase

C)

Keratin

D)

Haemoglobin

View Answer
54) The reaction, \[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow[(ii)\,KOH,\,glycol]{(i)\,N{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}}C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]is known as:

A)

Clemmensons reduction

B)

Blancs reduction

C)

Birch reduction

D)

Wolf Kishner reduction

View Answer
55) pH-scale was proposed by:

A)

Arrhenius

B)

Sorenson

C)

Piere de Coubertin

D)

none of these

View Answer
56) Thomas slag is:

A)

\[C{{a}_{3}}{{(P{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}.2{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[C{{a}_{3}}{{(P{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}.CaSi{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[MgSi{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[CaSi{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
57) Mohrs salt is:

A)

\[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}.A{{l}_{2}}(S{{O}_{4}}).24{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[CuS{{O}_{4}}.A{{l}_{2}}{{(S{{O}_{4}})}_{3}}.24{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[FeS{{O}_{4}}.{{(N{{H}_{4}})}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}.6{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}.F{{e}_{2}}{{(S{{O}_{4}})}_{3}}.24{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
58) Which of the following has maximum ionisation energy?

A)

Caesium

B)

Fluorine

C)

Xenon

D)

Nitrogen

View Answer
59) Which of the following give ammonia, on heating with \[NaOH\]?

A)

Ethyl amine

B)

Ethane nitrile

C)

Nitro ethane

D)

Ethanamide

View Answer
60) Which of the following is poisonous?

A)

Methanol

B)

Ethanol

C)

Glycerol

D)

Castor oil

View Answer
61) Which of the following fraction of coal tar distillation is obtained at\[{{270}^{o}}-{{360}^{o}}C\]?

A)

Light oil

B)

Middle oil

C)

Green oil

D)

Heavy oil

View Answer
62) The amount of oxalic acid, required to prepare \[300ml\text{ }2.5M\]solution, is:

A)

\[67.5g\]

B)

\[9.45g\]

C)

\[6.75g\]

D)

\[94.5g\]

View Answer
63) The carbon di-oxide gas does not follow gaseous laws at all ranges of pressure and temperature because:

A)

it is triatomic gas

B)

its internal energy is quite high

C)

there is attraction between its molecules

D)

it solidify at low temperature

View Answer
64) The bond-angle in \[As{{H}_{3}}\] is greater than that in:

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
65) Which of the following gas, diffuse most slowly?

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

D)

All of these diffuse at equal rate

View Answer
66) Oxidation number of fluorine is \[+1\] in:

A)

\[{{F}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[N{{F}_{3}}\]

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of these

View Answer
67) Which radioisotope is used in the treatment of leukeamia?

A)

\[P-32\]

B)

\[Na-24\]

C)

\[1-128\]

D)

\[Co-59\]

View Answer
68) A metal having higher value of \[{{E}^{o}}\], can:

A)

replace hydrogen from dilute \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

replace hydrogen from concentrate \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

act as oxidising agent

D)

all of these

View Answer
69) The method, which is used to purify colloidal solution is:

A)

electrophoresis

B)

dialysis

C)

chromatography

D)

peptisation

View Answer
70) Four gases ethane, ethene, ethyne and propene are passed into a wolf bottle containing ammonical \[AgN{{O}_{3}}\] solution. Which gas will come out of wolf bottle?

A)

Only ethyne

B)

Ethane and ethyne

C)

Ethane and ethane

D)

Ethane, ethene and propene

View Answer
71) How many conformers are known of ethane?

A)

Two

B)

Three

C)

\[>3\]

D)

Ethane cannot show conformation

View Answer
72) Interfering radicals interfere in the usual test of:

A)

acid radicals

B)

basic radicals

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of these

View Answer
73) Flux in the smelting process is added to:

A)

decrease the solubility of impurities

B)

increase the fusion temperature of roasted ore

C)

convert impurities into slag

D)

all of these

View Answer
74) The heat of formation of \[MgO\], \[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\] and\[Si{{O}_{2}}\] are \[-692,\] \[-1676,\] \[-911,\] \[kJ\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. Most stable oxide is:

A)

\[MgO\]

B)

\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[Si{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

cannot be predicted

View Answer
75) Which of the following reaction/will be favoured by low pressure?

A)

\[PC{{l}_{5}}PC{{l}_{3}}+C{{l}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}+3{{H}_{2}}2N{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[2NO+{{O}_{2}}2N{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
76) In III group of basic radical analysis, \[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]is added before group reagent\[N{{H}_{4}}OH\]. This is done to:

A)

increase the solubility product of III group salts

B)

decrease the solubility product of III group salts

C)

increase the ionic product of \[O{{H}^{-}}\]and III group radicals

D)

decrease the degree of ionisation of group reagent

View Answer
77) Representative elements are:

A)

s-block elements

B)

p-block elements

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of these

View Answer
78) Which of the following equation is used in Paulings scale of electronegativity?

A)

\[{{x}_{A}}=0.187(IE+EA)+0.17\]

B)

\[{{x}_{A}}-{{x}_{B}}=0.182[{{E}_{A-B}}-{{\sqrt{({{E}_{A-A}}\times {{E}_{B-B}})]}}^{1/2}}\]

C)

\[{{x}_{A}}=\frac{0.359{{Z}_{eff}}}{r_{A}^{2}}+0.744\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
79) Which hybridisation has sulphur in \[S{{O}_{2}}\]?

A)

\[s{{p}^{2}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}}\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

D)

\[sp\]

View Answer
80) The energy of last electron of \[Li\] will be:

A)

\[-30.6eV\]

B)

\[-13.6eV\]

C)

\[-24.6eV\]

D)

\[-28.6eV\]

View Answer
81) Benzaldehyde, in presence of dil. \[NaOH\], changes into benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate. This reaction is an example of:

A)

rearrangement

B)

oxidation

C)

disproportionation

D)

none of these

View Answer
82)  Which of the following is the strongest acid?

A)

o-nitro benzoic acid.

B)

m-nitro benzoic acid

C)

m-chloro benzoic acid

D)

m-cyano benzoic acid

View Answer
83) What is the product X in the reaction,\[C{{H}_{3}}COCl\xrightarrow{C{{H}_{3}}COONa}X\]

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

B)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}}CO)}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{2}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{2}}COOH\]

View Answer
84) A \[0.5g/l\]solution of glucose is found to be isotonic with a \[2.5\text{ }g/l\] solution of an organic compound. What will be the molecular weight of that organic compound?

A)

\[300\]

B)

\[600\]

C)

\[900\]

D)

\[1200\]

View Answer
85) Which of the following ion does not follow EAN rule?

A)

\[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{4-}}\]

B)

\[{{[Ag{{(CN)}_{2}}]}^{-}}\]

C)

\[{{[PtC{{l}_{6}}]}^{2-}}\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
86) Potassium, on burning in oxygen atmosphere, gives:

A)

\[{{K}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[{{K}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[K{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
87) Which method is employed to prepare copper sol?

A)

Peptisation

B)

Bredigs arc method

C)

Double decomposition

D)

Reduction of CuCb

View Answer
88) How much copper will be deposited at cathode, on passing 4 coulomb charge in 15 minutes?

A)

\[0.0195g\]

B)

\[0.0013g\]

C)

\[0.020g\]

D)

\[0.0020g\]

View Answer
89) If 50% of a radioactive substance dissociates in 15 minutes, then the time .taken by substance to dissociate 99% will be:

A)

50 minutes

B)

100 minutes

C)

99 minutes

D)

150 minutes

View Answer
90) Which of the following alcohol give positive iodoform test?

A)

Methanol

B)

Ethyl carbinol

C)

Pentanol-3

D)

Methyl carbinol

View Answer
91) Human body is an example of :

A)

open system

B)

closed system

C)

isolated system

D)

none of these

View Answer
92) The atomic size of cerium and promethium is quite close, due to:

A)

they are in same period in periodic table

B)

their electronic configuration is same

C)

f-electrons have poor shielding effect

D)

nuclear charge is higher on cerium than promethium

View Answer
93) Brown glass and cement have, which element common in them?

A)

\[Fe\]

B)

\[Al\]

C)

\[Na\]

D)

All of these

View Answer
94) The most common isomerism, found in ethers, is:

A)

chain isomerism

B)

tautomerism

C)

metamerism

D)

optical isomerism

View Answer
95) t-butyl chloride preferrably undergo hydrolysis by:

A)

\[S{{N}^{1}}\] mechanism

B)

SN mechanism

C)

any of (a) and (b)

D)

none of these

View Answer
96) Which of the following has lowest boiling point?

A)

\[NaCl\]

B)

\[CuCl\]

C)

\[CuC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[CsCl\]

View Answer
97) Which of the following is true for the reaction\[CO+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}C{{O}_{2}}\]

A)

\[{{K}_{p}}>{{K}_{c}}\]

B)

\[{{K}_{p}}<{{K}_{c}}\]

C)

\[{{K}_{p}}={{K}_{c}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{p}}\ge {{K}_{c}}\]

View Answer
98) Which of the following is not a buffer solution?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH+C{{H}_{3}}COONa\]

B)

\[{{H}_{3}}B{{O}_{3}}+N{{a}_{3}}B{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[HCl{{O}_{4}}+NaCl{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{4}}OH+(N{{H}_{4}})S{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
99) Which of the following ore is concentrated by both, magnetic and gravimetric separation?

A)

Dolomite

B)

Tin stone

C)

Galena

D)

Bauxite

View Answer
100) Which of the following is not a polymer?

A)

RNA

B)

Oxytocin

C)

Cholesterol

D)

Amylose

View Answer
101) Which one is correctly matched?

A)

Oncogenes-ageing

B)

Replication fork-rn-RNA

C)

AIDS virus-reverse franscriptase

D)

Initiation factors-amino acid activation

View Answer
102) Which of the following is not an organ of central nervous system?

A)

Brain

B)

Cranial nerves

C)

Spinal cord

D)

None of these

View Answer
103) The first codon discovered by Nirenberg and Mathai was :

A)

CCC

B)

GGG

C)

UUU

D)

AAA

View Answer
104) Maximum amount of energy ATP is liberated on oxidation of :

A)

fats

B)

proteins

C)

starch

D)

vitamins

View Answer
105) The thermoregulatory centre in the body is :

A)

spinal cord

B)

hypothalamus

C)

cerebellum

D)

pituitary

View Answer
106) Which is not cancer?

A)

Leukemia

B)

Trachoma

C)

Carcinoma

D)

Sarcoma

View Answer
107) Bio gas production from waste bio mass with the help of methanogenic bacteria is :

A)

multi step process

B)

one step process

C)

two step process

D)

three step process

View Answer
108) Pace-maker in heart is situated :

A)

in the wall of left atrium

B)

in the wall of right atrium

C)

on inter-ventricular septum

D)

on inter-auricular septum

View Answer
109) Genetic code is said to be degenerate because :

A)

one amino acid is coded by more than one codon

B)

codons degenerate very quickly

C)

one codon codes for more than one amino acid

D)

none of the above

View Answer
110) Spinal cord is protected by :

A)

trachea

B)

aorta

C)

sternum

D)

vertebral column

View Answer
111) Which of the following is free-living, aerobic and non-photosynthetic nitrogen fixing bacterium?

A)

Azospirillum

B)

Nostoc

C)

Azotobacter

D)

Rhizobium

View Answer
112) Stramonium is a drug obtained from the plant species of :

A)

Datura

B)

Ocimum

C)

Rauwolffia

D)

Asphodelus

View Answer
113) In the animal body bold bank is :

A)

heart

B)

spleen

C)

lungs

D)

liver

View Answer
114) Addisons disease results from :

A)

hypertrophy of gonads

B)

hypo-secretion of adrenal cortex

C)

hyperactivity of cells of Leydig

D)

none of the above

View Answer
115) What is true for photosynthesis?

A)

Carbon dioxide is oxidised and water is reduced

B)

Carbon dioxide is reduced and water is oxidized

C)

Both carbon dioxide and water are reduced

D)

Both carbon dioxide and water are oxidized

View Answer
116) Drinking of alcohol affects :

A)

cerebrum

B)

cerebellum

C)

medulla oblongata

D)

diencephalon

View Answer
117) Disease aggravated by pollution is :

A)

haemophilia

B)

rheumatism

C)

scurvy

D)

bronchitis

View Answer
118) L.S.D. is obtained from :

A)

Claviceps purpurea

B)

Rauwolffia serpentine

C)

Papaver somniferum

D)

Cannabis sativa

View Answer
119) Australopithecus existed in :

A)

Pliocene

B)

Miocene

C)

Pleistocene

D)

both a and b

View Answer
120) The two pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by :

A)

Blackman

B)

Hill

C)

Emerson

D)

Arnon

View Answer
121) Homo habilis originated in :

A)

Oligocene

B)

Miocene

C)

Pleistocene

D)

Holocene

View Answer
122) Who proved that oxygen evolved in photosynthesis comes from water?

A)

Calvin

B)

Mayer

C)

Blackman

D)

Ruben, Hassid and Kamen

View Answer
123) Sulphur dioxide affects :

A)

plasmodesmata

B)

cell wall

C)

all membrane systems

D)

nucleus

View Answer
124) The process in which water is split during photosynthesis is :

A)

plasmolysis

B)

photolysis

C)

hydrolysis

D)

haemolysis

View Answer
125) Jaundice is a disease of :

A)

pancreas

B)

kidney

C)

liver

D)

duodenum

View Answer
126) Morphine is obtained from :

A)

Rauwolffia serpentine

B)

Papauer somniferum

C)

Cannabis satiua

D)

Cajanus cajan

View Answer
127) Heroin is obtained from plant of family :

A)

Papaveraceae

B)

Leguminosae

C)

Cruciferae

D)

Liliaceae

View Answer
128) Leprosy is due to :

A)

TMV

B)

Monocystis

C)

Salmonella

D)

Mycobacterium

View Answer
129) Opium (poppy) is a plant belonging to the family:

A)

Apocynaceae

B)

Papaveraceae

C)

Solanaceae

D)

Liliaceae

View Answer
130) Cocaine alkaloid is obtained from :

A)

Erythroxylon coca

B)

Then chinensis

C)

Coffea arabica

D)

Theobroma cocao

View Answer
131) HIV has a protein coat and a genetic material which is :

A)

ss-RNA

B)

ds-RNA

C)

ds-DNA

D)

ss-DNA

View Answer
132) End product of glycolysis is :

A)

pyruvic acid

B)

acetyl Co-A

C)

glucose 1-phosphate

D)

fructose 1-phosphate

View Answer
133) Which pair of disease is viral?

A)

AIDS, Rabies

B)

Typhoid, Tetanus

C)

Rabies, Syphilis

D)

Cholera, T.B.

View Answer
134) More \[C{{O}_{2}}\] is evolved than the volume of oxygen consumed when the respiratory substrate is :

A)

fat

B)

sucrose

C)

glucose

D)

organic acid

View Answer
135) Which one of the following is bio-fuel?

A)

Wood

B)

Petroleum

C)

Natural gas

D)

Coal

View Answer
136) Immunoglobin found in serum is :

A)

IgM

B)

IgA

C)

IgN

D)

IgG

View Answer
137) Cancerous cells spread through :

A)

lymph

B)

blood

C)

secondary growths of malignant tumour

D)

all of the above

View Answer
138) Coffeine, cocaine and amphetamine are :

A)

hallucinogens

B)

sedative

C)

transquilliser

D)

stimulant

View Answer
139) During the process of blood coagulation vitamin K helps in the :

A)

formation of thromboplastin

B)

formation of prothrombin

C)

conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

D)

conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

View Answer
140) In a healthy adult man the normal diastolic pressure is :

A)

90 mm Hg

B)

120 mm Hg

C)

80 mm Hg

D)

100 mm Hg

View Answer
141) Carotid artery supplies :

A)

de-oxygenated blood to liver

B)

de-oxygenated blood to kidneys

C)

oxygenated blood to brain

D)

oxygenated blood to limbs

View Answer
142) Blood group A has :

A)

antibody a on RBC

B)

antibody a in plasma

C)

antigen A on RBC

D)

antigen A in plasma

View Answer
143) Krebs cycle begins with the reaction :

A)

citric acid + acetyl Co-A

B)

oxalacetic acid + pyruvic acid

C)

oxalacetic acid + citric acid

D)

oxalacetic + acetyl Co-A

View Answer
144) Mendel conducted     hybridization experiments on:

A)

garden pea

B)

pigeon pea

C)

wild pea

D)

sweet pea

View Answer
145) Olfactory lobes of man are :

A)

fused and hollow

B)

fused and solid

C)

free and hollow

D)

solid

View Answer
146) Carrier organisms refers to an individual which carries a :

A)

dominant gene that is not expressed

B)

recessive gene that is not expressed

C)

recessive gene that is expressed

D)

dominant gene that is expressed

View Answer
147) Electron transport system of mitochondria is located in :

A)

inner membrane

B)

outer membrane

C)

outer chamber

D)

inter cristal space

View Answer
148) Principles and rules of classification are studied under :

A)

natural classification

B)

systematics

C)

nomenclature

D)

taxonomy

View Answer
149) Contraction of gall bladder is carried by :

A)

rennin

B)

gastrin

C)

cholecystokinin

D)

none of these

View Answer
150) Foetal sex is determined by examining cells from amniotic fluid looking for :

A)

chiasmata

B)

Barr bodies

C)

sex-chromosomes

D)

drum sticks

View Answer
151) Baldness is more common in men than in woman. It could be explained on the basis that :

A)

genes of baldness are located on X-chromosomes only

B)

baldness genes are located on Y-chromosomes

C)

genes of baldness are autosomal but influenced by androgens

D)

genes of baldness are located on X-chromosomes only

View Answer
152) Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by :

A)

Darwin

B)

Wallace

C)

Lamarck

D)

de Vries

View Answer
153) Removal of anthers of some flowers during plant breeding is :

A)

emasculation

B)

anthesis

C)

pollination

D)

for collection of pollen

View Answer
154) Polar nuclei are located in :

A)

embryosac

B)

thalamus

C)

pollen tube

D)

ovule

View Answer
155) Transgenic crops are modified through genetic engineering to develop natural resistance to insect pests. Which one is a transgenic plant ?

A)

Tobacco and cotton

B)

Tomato and rice

C)

Maize and sugarcane

D)

Tomato and wheat

View Answer
156) Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop through :

A)

mutations

B)

hybridization

C)

mutations with natural selection

D)

continuous variations with natural selection

View Answer
157) Pomato is :

A)

natural mutant

B)

somatic hybrid

C)

androgenic hybrid

D)

somaclonal variant

View Answer
158) Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is :

A)

cadmium

B)

lead

C)

mercury

D)

copper

View Answer
159) A major use of embryo culture is in :

A)

production of alkaloids

B)

clonal propagation

C)

induction of somaclonal variations

D)

over coming hybridization barriers

View Answer
160) Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) the ratio of :

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]produced to \[{{O}_{2}}\]consumed

B)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]produced to substrate consumed

C)

Oxygen consumed to water produced

D)

Oxygen consumed to \[C{{O}_{2}}\]produced

View Answer
161) VAM is useful for :

A)

phosphate nutrition

B)

breaking of dormancy

C)

decrease in diseases

D)

retarding flowering

View Answer
162) Parathyroid hormone is a :

A)

peptide

B)

carbohydrate

C)

lipid

D)

steroid

View Answer
163) The first living beings were :

A)

chemo-heterotrophs

B)

chemo-autotrophs

C)

oxygenic photoautotrophs

D)

anoxygenic photoautotrophs

View Answer
164) A clone is :

A)

heterozygote obtained asexually

B)

homozygote obtained asexually

C)

heterozygote produced by sexual methods

D)

homozygoteproduced by sexual reproduction

View Answer
165) A petroleum plant is :

A)

Euphorbia lathyrus

B)

Acacia Arabica

C)

Finns roxburghii

D)

Prosopis cineraria

View Answer
166) Hormone is :

A)

enzyme

B)

chemical messenger

C)

excretory product

D)

glandular secretion

View Answer
167) Azolla is used as bio-fertilizer as it has :

A)

mycorrhiza

B)

cyanobacteria

C)

Rhizobium

D)

large quantity of humus

View Answer
168) Father of Indian Green Revolution is :

A)

M.S. Swaminathan

B)

K.C. Mehta

C)

B.P. Pal

D)

Norman Borlaug

View Answer
169) Progesterone hormone is secreted by :

A)

corpus albicans

B)

corpus collosum

C)

corpus luteum in ovaries

D)

corpus uteri

View Answer
170) Triploid endosperm occurs only in :

A)

Angiosperms

B)

Gymnosperms

C)

Pteridophytes

D)

Spermatophytes

View Answer
171) Continuity of germplasm theory was given by:

A)

de Vries

B)

Weismann

C)

Lamarck

D)

Darwin

View Answer
172) Hormone responsible for the control of the development   of   secondary   sexual characters in female is :

A)

androgen

B)

oestrogen

C)

progesterone

D)

oxytocm

View Answer
173) The law of segregation of characters is also called the law of purity of gametes because:

A)

gametes have only one of the two alleles for each characters

B)

gametes cannot be contaminated

C)

gametes are very different type of cells

D)

it was just another name adopted accidentally

View Answer
174) Cinchona officinalis belongs to family :

A)

Cruciferae

B)

Malvaceae

C)

Rubiaceae

D)

Leguminosae

View Answer
175) Which is the largest body cell?

A)

Neurons

B)

RBCs

C)

Osteocytes

D)

Sperms

View Answer
176) Meiosis in AaBb will produce gametes :

A)

AB, aB, Ab, ab

B)

AB, ab

C)

Aa, bb

D)

Aa, Bb

View Answer
177) Degeneracy of genetic code was discovered by:

A)

Ochoa

B)

Khorana

C)

McClintock

D)

Bern field and Nirenberg

View Answer
178) Corpus luteum is a part of :

A)

mammalian lung

B)

mammalian ovary

C)

mid brain

D)

hind brain

View Answer
179) Initiation of polypeptide chain is through :

A)

methionine

B)

glycine

C)

lysine

D)

leucine

View Answer
180) Adrenal gland is associated with :

A)

kidney

B)

pharynx

C)

brain

D)

pancreas

View Answer
181) In vitro synthesis of RNA and DNA was carried out first by :

A)

Ochoa and Nirenherg

B)

Ochoa and Kornberg

C)

Nirenberg and Khorana

D)

Kornberg and Nirenberg

View Answer
182) Secretin stimulates :

A)

pancreas

B)

gall bladder

C)

lungs

D)

gastric gland

View Answer
183) In Barr-body (sex-chromatin)of a normal female:

A)

one of the X-chromosome of paternal side becomes inactive to form Barr-body

B)

Y-chromosomes form Barr-body

C)

heterochromatin condense near centre of nucleus to form Barr-body

D)

one of the X-chromosome of maternal side becomes inactive and form Barr-body near nuclear membrane

View Answer
184) Dominant lethal gene is one which :

A)

allows the organism to survive but not reproduce

B)

determines sex of off springs

C)

allows the organism to survive and reproduce

D)

kills the organism

View Answer
185) Respiratory centre in brain occurs in :

A)

medulla oblongata

B)

cerebellum

C)

hypothalamus

D)

pericardium

View Answer
186) A pseudocereal is :

A)

Fagopyrum esculentum

B)

Triticum aestivum

C)

Zea mays

D)

Oryza saliua

View Answer
187) Taste area lies in the :

A)

frontal lobe

B)

occipital lobe

C)

parietal lobe

D)

temporal lobe

View Answer
188) Capitulum infloresence is found in :

A)

Liliaceae

B)

Papilionaceae

C)

Compositae

D)

Rosaceae

View Answer
189) Mutations are generally induced by means of :

A)

\[\text{ }\!\!\alpha\!\!\text{ -}\]rays

B)

\[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ -}\]rays

C)

\[\text{ }\!\!\gamma\!\!\text{ -}\]rays

D)

UV radiations

View Answer
190) Whorl of small, green structures present around sunflower is :

A)

involucre

B)

calyx

C)

epicalyx

D)

leaves

View Answer
191) Hepatitis is a :

A)

viral disease

B)

bacterial disease

C)

fungal disease

D)

protozoan disease

View Answer
192) Sex-linked characters are transmitted through :

A)

Y-chromosome of male only

B)

X-chromosome of female only

C)

X-chromosomes of both male and female

D)

X-chromosome of male only

View Answer
193) Pollen grains are shed at:

A)

1-celled stage

B)

2-3-celled stage

C)

4-celled stage

D)

5-celled stage

View Answer
194) The first definite proof of mutagenic action of X-rays was given by :

A)

Muller

B)

Hooker

C)

Lister

D)

Leeuwenhoek

View Answer
195) Turners syndrome is caused by :

A)

polyploidy

B)

autosomal aneuploidy

C)

sex-chromosome aneuploidy

D)

trisomy

View Answer
196) Spadix in floresence occurs in :

A)

mulberry

B)

banana

C)

Dclomx

D)

coriander

View Answer
197) Cytoplasmic inheritance always shows :

A)

paternal characters

B)

maternal characters

C)

parental characters

D)

little parental and more maternal characters

View Answer
198) Phrase Survival of the Fittest was used by:

A)

Hugo de Vries

B)

Charles Darwin

C)

Herbert Spencer

D)

Jean Baptiste Lamarck

View Answer
199) Persons having trisomy on 21 chromosome are known to suffer from :

A)

Edwards syndrome

B)

Downs syndrome

C)

Turners syndrome

D)

Pataus syndrome

View Answer
200) Tautonym is:

A)

un-scientific explanation of a phenomenon

B)

common name used as scientific name

C)

non-latinised name

D)

same name for genus and species

View Answer
201) In sex-linkage the speciality is :

A)

atavism

B)

reversion

C)

gene flow

D)

criss cross inheritance

View Answer
202) Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is :

A)

progamy

B)

misogamy

C)

pseudogamy

D)

chalazogamy

View Answer
203) Micropyle helps in :

A)

germination of pollen grain

B)

growth of pollen tube

C)

coming out- of pollen tube from pollen grain

D)

allowing entry of pollen tube

View Answer
204) Cancer cells are damaged by radiations while others are not because cancer cells :

A)

being starved

B)

being different in nature

C)

undergoing rapid division

D)

none of the above

View Answer
205) In mature RBC, nucleus is present in :

A)

frog

B)

rabbit

C)

both a and b

D)

neither in frog nor in rabbit

View Answer
206) Interferons are synthesized in response to :

A)

bacteria

B)

viruses

C)

fungi

D)

mycoplasma

View Answer
207) Complete oxidation of a molecule of glucose yields :

A)

2 ATP molecules

B)

8 ATP molecules

C)

15 ATP molecules

D)

36 ATP molecules

View Answer
208) Congenital diseases are :

A)

deficiency diseases

B)

diseases present at birth

C)

spread from one individual to another

D)

occur during life

View Answer
209) Rh factor was discovered by :

A)

Watson

B)

Harvey

C)

Landsteiner

D)

Landsteiner and Weiner

View Answer
210) Energy cropping is :

A)

production of ethanol

B)

production of methane

C)

production of sugarcane

D)

production gas

View Answer
211) Microbial insecticide is :

A)

Bacillus polymixa

B)

Bacillus brevis

C)

Bacillus subtilis

D)

Bacillus thuringenesis

View Answer
212) \[S{{O}_{2}}\] and \[N{{C}_{2}}\] produce pollution by increasing :

A)

acidity

B)

alkalinity

C)

neutrality

D)

buffer action

View Answer
213) Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was :

A)

sodium isothiocyanate

B)

methyl isocyanate

C)

potassium isothiocyanate

D)

ethyl isothiocyanate

View Answer
214) In bacteria, the site for respiration is :

A)

episome

B)

mesosome

C)

cytoplasm

D)

plasmid

View Answer
215) Nobel prize for one gene one enzyme hypothesis was given to :

A)

Sutton and Boveri

B)

Watson and Crick

C)

Avery et. al.

D)

Beadle and Tatum

View Answer
216) Blood pressure is controlled by :

A)

adrenal

B)

thyroid

C)

thymus

D)

corpus luteum

View Answer
217) Pancreatic secretion is stimulated by :

A)

secretin

B)

duocrinin

C)

enterogasterone

D)

cholecystokin in-pancreozymin

View Answer
218) The branch that deals with the study of trees is :

A)

Pomology

B)

Anthology

C)

Dendrology

D)

Palynology

View Answer
219) Which one of the following branch applicable to both plants and animals?

A)

Herpetology

B)

Saurology

C)

Taxonomy

D)

Ichthyology

View Answer
220) In which of the following endospores are formed ?

A)

Mucor

B)

Clostridium

C)

Saccharomyces

D)

Rhizopus

View Answer
221) In banana, which of the following part is edible?

A)

Epicarp

B)

Mesocarp

C)

Endocarp

D)

Both b and c

View Answer
222) Which of the following drug is used in treatment of ovarian cancer ?

A)

PAS

B)

Isonex

C)

Taxol

D)

Ethambutol

View Answer
223) In pond ecosystem, diatoms represent:

A)

producers

B)

primary consumers

C)

secondary consumers

D)

tertiary consumers

View Answer
224) The number of cotyledons in Cuscuta are :

A)

one

B)

two

C)

always polycotyl

D)

none of these

View Answer
225) The leaves of Smilax and Colocasia is show :

A)

parallel venation

B)

reticulate venation

C)

forward venation

D)

lateral venation

View Answer
226) Aceiabularia is a :

A)

single celled marine green alga

B)

multi celled marine green alga

C)

single celled fresh water green alga

D)

multi celled fresh water green alga

View Answer
227) Sorosis is found in :

A)

jack fruit

B)

mulberry

C)

fig

D)

both a and b

View Answer
228) Cellulose is a polymer of :

A)

\[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }\]-D-glucose

B)

\[\text{ }\!\!\alpha\!\!\text{ }\]D-glucose

C)

\[\text{ }\!\!\alpha\!\!\text{ }\]1-glucose

D)

\[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }\]1-glucose

View Answer
229) Colchicine producing plant belongs to family

A)

Liliaceae

B)

Rubiaceae

C)

Malvaceae

D)

Solanaceae

View Answer
230) Sertoli cells are involved in :

A)

respiration

B)

nutrition of sperms

C)

excretion

D)

development of sex organs

View Answer
231) The myocardium is found in :

A)

heart of mammals

B)

brain of mammals

C)

lungs of mammals

D)

testes of mammals

View Answer
232) The main function of sweat gland is :

A)

excretion of salts

B)

  water regulation

C)

thermo-regulation

D)

excretory in function

View Answer
233) Isinglass is a product obtained from air bladder of :

A)

some snakes

B)

some fishes

C)

some aves

D)

none of the above

View Answer
234) Ribozyme was discovered by :

A)

Kuhne

B)

Duclaux

C)

Cechetal

D)

Altman

View Answer
235) Vocal cords occurs in :

A)

pharynx

B)

larynx

C)

glottis

D)

bronchial

View Answer
236) Crossing over takes place at :

A)

one strand stage

B)

two strand stage

C)

three strand stage

D)

four strand stage

View Answer
237) Plasmid is :

A)

plastid

B)

alga

C)

fungus

D)

extra nuclear DNA of bacterial cell

View Answer
238) Citric acid is produced by :

A)

Candida

B)

Streptococcus

C)

Aspergillus niger

D)

Acetobacter suboxidans

View Answer
239) Dinosaurs were most abundant in :

A)

Devonian

B)

Jurassic

C)

Permian

D)

Pleistocene

View Answer
240) Meristem consists of :

A)

undivided cells

B)

cells in continuous state of cells division

C)

dead cells

D)

cells which divide rarely

View Answer
241) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. All endonucleases cut DNA at specific sites. R. Endonucleases are found in viruses.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
242) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. Humulin is better than conventional insulin. R. Conventional insulin produces many side effects.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
243) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. Antibiotics may be used to promote the growth of live stock. R. Antibiotics promote protein synthesis in animals.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
244) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. Cryopreservation is one of the best methods of germplasm storage. R. In cryopreservation, the cells remain in a state of suspended animation.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
245) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. Plants clones obtained through tissue culture are very susceptible to new diseases. R. Clones are genetically identical.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
246) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. A river differs from a lake. R. Lakes are open heterotropic systems.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
247) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. Phosphorus cycle in a imperfect cycle. R. Addition of phosphate to lakes leads to eutrophication.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
248) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. The using of an insect and bat are analogous structures. R. Both are constructed similarly, though have different functions.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
249) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A. A farmer does not prefer to grow tobacco plant under long day conditions. R. Tobacco is a short days plant.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer
250) Direction: Each of the question below consist of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Mark of the appropriate response as under: A.Photorespiration decreases net photosynthesis. R. Rate of respiration in dark and light is almost same in all plants.

A)

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explantion of A.

B)

If both A and R are correct but R is not a correct explanation of A.

C)

A is true but R is false.

D)

Both A and R are false.

View Answer

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done Haryana PMT Solved Paper-2003 Total Questions - 250

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Haryana PMT Solved Paper-2003 Total Questions - 250