question_answer 1) Which one is not an advantage of dimensional analysis?
A)
Change of unit of physical quantities
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B)
Establishment of relation among physical quantities
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C)
Check out the correctness of an equation
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D)
Find out the value of constant occurred in equations
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E)
Operates only on product type dependency
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question_answer 2) If the voltage and current are given by \[V=(50\pm 4)V\] and \[I=(20\pm 0.4)\text{ }A,\] respectively, the percentage error in the resistance of conductor is
A)
7 %
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B)
10 %
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C)
20 %
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D)
5 %
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E)
9 %
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question_answer 3) A ball is thrown vertically up then choose the incorrect option.
A)
Time of ascent equals to time of descent
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B)
The maximum height reached by ball is the ratio of squared initial velocity to the twice of \[g\]
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C)
Ball will cover equal distance in each equal time interval
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D)
Gravitational acceleration is independent of mass of the ball
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E)
Sing of g is altered for two directions of motion
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question_answer 4) For a particle describing circular motion, the position is \[(r,\,\theta )\] then unit vector in radial direction can be given as
A)
\[{{e}_{r}}=\cos \theta \,\hat{i}+\sin \theta \hat{j}\]
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B)
\[{{e}_{r}}=\tan \theta \,\hat{i}+\cot \theta \hat{j}\]
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C)
\[{{e}_{r}}=-\cos \theta \,\hat{i}-\sin \theta \hat{j}\]
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D)
\[{{e}_{r}}=(\sin \theta +\cos \theta )\hat{j}\]
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E)
\[{{e}_{r}}=\cos \theta \hat{j}\]
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question_answer 5) A block of mass 2 kg with speed 1 m/s compresses a string through a distance 30 cm before its speed, is halved. The spring constant of spring is
A)
\[17\,N{{m}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[21\,N{{m}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[14\,N{{m}^{-1}}\]
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D)
\[27\,N{{m}^{-1}}\]
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E)
\[9\,N{{m}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 6) For normal operation of transistors, which one of the following statements is not correct?
A)
Emitter-base junction is always forward biased
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B)
Collector-base junction is reverse biased
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C)
Emitter base junction is always reverse biased
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D)
If the junction is forward biased, the electrons will diffuse from emitter to base
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 7) A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different processes. The half-life for the first type disintegration is \[{{t}_{1}}\] and that for second type of disintegration is \[{{t}_{2}},\]then the effective half-life t can be given by
A)
\[\frac{1}{t}=\frac{1}{{{t}_{1}}}-\frac{1}{{{t}_{2}}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{t}=\frac{1}{{{t}_{1}}\,{{t}_{2}}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{t}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{{{t}_{1}}\,{{t}_{2}}}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{t}=\frac{{{t}_{2}}}{{{t}_{1}}}+1\]
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E)
\[\frac{1}{t}=\frac{1}{{{t}_{1}}}+\frac{1}{{{t}_{2}}}\]
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question_answer 8) Parallel beams of monochromatic light having wavelength A. incident normally on a perfectly absorbing surface. The power transmitted through any cross-section is W. The force exerted by the beam on the surface is (suppose number of photon incident per second on the X-section is n)
A)
\[\frac{nch}{\lambda }\]
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B)
\[\frac{{{n}^{2}}h}{2\lambda }\]
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C)
\[\frac{2nh}{c\,\lambda }\]
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D)
\[\frac{n{{h}^{2}}}{{{\lambda }^{2}}}\]
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E)
\[\frac{nh}{\lambda }\]
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question_answer 9) Two non-touching conducting circular loops of radii \[{{R}_{1}}\] and \[{{R}_{2}}\] are concentric. If \[{{R}_{2}}<<{{R}_{1}}\] then the mutual inductance M will be
A)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}\pi {{R}_{2}}}{R}\]
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B)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{R}_{2}}}{\pi {{R}_{1}}}\]
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C)
\[\sqrt{2}{{\mu }_{0}}\,\pi R_{1}^{2}R_{2}^{2}\]
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D)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}\pi R_{2}^{2}}{2{{R}_{1}}}\]
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E)
\[2\frac{{{R}_{1}}{{R}_{2}}}{{{\mu }_{0}}\,\pi }\]
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question_answer 10) A toroid has the radius equal to 10/\[\pi \]cm while number of turns are 400 and carrying a current 2 A. If the magnetisation\[I\]is \[4.8\times {{10}^{-2}}A{{m}^{-1}}\] then, susceptibility is
A)
\[4.8\times {{10}^{-5}}\]
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B)
\[3.9\times {{10}^{-4}}\]
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C)
\[2.7\times {{10}^{-5}}\]
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D)
\[5.2\times {{10}^{-4}}\]
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 11) The magnetic meridian is
A)
a point
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B)
a line
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C)
a plane
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D)
space or region
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E)
a property
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question_answer 12) At\[60{}^\circ \]to the magnetic meridian, the apparent dip is\[45{}^\circ \]. The true dip is
A)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)\]
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B)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)\]
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C)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{6} \right)\]
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D)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{3}{7} \right)\]
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E)
\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{4}{3} \right)\]
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question_answer 13) If \[P\times Q=Q\times P,\] then angle between Q and P is
A)
\[\pi \]
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B)
\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]
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C)
\[\frac{\pi }{3}\]
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D)
\[\frac{\pi }{6}\]
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E)
\[\frac{7\pi }{3}\]
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question_answer 14) A man weighing 70 kg is now standing on a weighing machine kept inside a lift. If the lift falls freely downwards, then the reading of the spring balance will be
A)
zero
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B)
70 kg f
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C)
< 70 kg f
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D)
> 70 kg f
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 15) A body having mass M is projected with the velocity u in a direction making an angle \[45{}^\circ \] with the horizontal. When body strikes the ground, the magnitude of change of momentum will be
A)
\[\sqrt{3}\,Mu\]
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B)
\[\frac{Mu}{\sqrt{2}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{Mu}{\sqrt{3}}\]
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D)
\[\sqrt{2}\,Mu\]
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E)
\[Mu\]
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question_answer 16) What is the ratio of moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis through mid-point and perpendicular to its length and that about an axis through one end and perpendicular to its length?
A)
\[\frac{1}{4}\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{5}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{3}\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{7}\]
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E)
\[\frac{1}{8}\]
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question_answer 17) A body of mass m is released from a height equal to the radius R of the earth. What will be the velocity of the body when it strikes the surface of the earth?
A)
\[\sqrt{2}gR\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{gR}\]
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C)
\[\frac{gR}{\sqrt{2}}\]
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D)
\[\sqrt{3gR}\]
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E)
\[\frac{\sqrt{gR}}{3}\]
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question_answer 18) R is the range on a horizontal plane for a shot with the same velocity at two different angles of projection. If h and h be the greatest heights attained corresponding to the angles of projection, then \[{{R}^{2}}\]will be
A)
4 hh
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B)
8 hh
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C)
2 hh
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D)
16 hh
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E)
24 hh
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question_answer 19) The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave propagating in a medium is given by \[E={{E}_{0}}\sin \,(4\pi \times {{10}^{6}}x-1.2\,\pi \times {{10}^{15}}t)\]where, \[x\]is in meter and \[t\] in second. The wavelength of wave is founed to be
A)
\[5\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]
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B)
\[4\times {{10}^{-9}}m\]
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C)
\[6\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]
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D)
\[3\times {{10}^{-6}}m\]
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 20) Approximately how many half-life periods must be elapsed if the activity of a radioactive isotope sample is to be reduced to 0.004 of the original value?
A)
8
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B)
4
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C)
6
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D)
5
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E)
9
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question_answer 21) A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical cross-section given by\[y=\frac{{{x}^{3}}}{6}.\] If the frictional coefficient is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be placed without slopping is
A)
\[\frac{1}{6}\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{3}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{2}\]
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D)
\[1\]
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E)
\[\frac{1}{10}\]
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question_answer 22)
Consider the diagram given below The existence or co-existence of solid, liquid and vapour phases of a pure substance under different thermodynamical condition is shown in the diagram. Which variables are plotted along the Y-axis and X-axis respectively?
A)
Pressure and volume
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B)
Pressure and temperature
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C)
Volume and pressure
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D)
Volume and temperate
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 23) Bullets are fired at angular intervals of 10 s from a moving car A speeding at 36 km/h. At what interval will an officer seated in a car B hear the report when the car B is stationary and car A is moving towards car B. (velocity of sound = 340\[m{{s}^{-1}}\]and velocity of wind, = 20\[m{{s}^{-1}}\])
A)
9.7 s
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B)
10.2 s
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C)
6.7 s
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D)
5.8 s
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E)
3.7 s
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question_answer 24)
Consider the diagram given below The combination of three blocks is pushed by a horizontal force of 30 N on frictionless surface. Choose the correct option
A)
Force exerted by A on B is 5 N
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B)
Force exerted by A on B is 15 N
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C)
Force exerted by C on B is 15 N
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D)
Force exerted by 6 on A is 10 N
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question_answer 25) Consider a triangular loop ABC carrying current\[I\]. The triangle is equilateral with edge length a. A uniform magnetic field B exits in a direction parallel to AB. The forces on the arms AB, BC and CA will be respectively
A)
\[0,\,\sqrt{3}aBI,\sqrt{3}aBI\]
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B)
\[0,\,\frac{\sqrt{3}aBI}{2},\frac{\sqrt{3}aBI}{2}\]
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C)
\[0,\,0,\,\sqrt{3}aBI\]
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D)
\[0,\,0,\,0\]
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E)
\[0,\,0,\,0,\sqrt{2}aBI\]
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question_answer 26)
In the circuit, E, F, G and H are cells of emf 2, 1, 3 and 1 V respectively. 2, 1, 3 and 1 \[\Omega \] are their respectives potential resistances. The potenitial difference between the nodes B and D is
A)
\[\frac{2}{13}V\]
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B)
\[\frac{3}{13}V\]
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C)
\[\frac{3}{13}V\]
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D)
\[\frac{4}{13}V\]
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E)
\[\frac{1}{10}V\]
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question_answer 27) The vibration of string can be described by the equation \[y=0.75\,\{\cos \,(2\pi /5)x\}\sin \{(60\,\pi {{s}^{-1}})t\}\] The speed of wave travelling in the string is
A)
\[24\,\,\pi \,cm\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[0.3\,\,\pi \,cm\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[450\,\,cm\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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D)
\[150\,\,cm\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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E)
\[75\,\,cm\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 28)
Water stands at depth \[H\]H in a large open tank whose side walls are vertical are shown in the figure given below. If hole is made in one of the walls at a depth of \[h\] below the water surface, the emerging steam will strike the floor at a distance \[d\]is given by
A)
\[2H(H-h)\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{h\,(H-h)}\]
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C)
\[\sqrt{h\,(H+h)}\]
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D)
\[12\sqrt{h\,(H-h)}\]
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E)
\[\frac{2H}{h}\]
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question_answer 29) One mole of a perfect gas expends adiabatically. As a result of this, its temperature, pressure and volume changes \[{{T}_{1}},{{p}_{1}},{{V}_{1}}\] to \[{{T}_{2}},{{p}_{2}}\] and \[{{V}_{2}}\] respectively. If molar specific heat of constant volume is \[{{C}_{V}},\] then the work done by the gas is
A)
\[2.303{{p}_{1}}{{V}_{1}}\log \left( \frac{{{V}_{2}}}{{{V}_{1}}} \right)\]
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B)
\[R{{T}_{1}}\log \left( \frac{{{V}_{2}}}{{{V}_{1}}} \right)\]
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C)
\[\frac{p_{1}^{2}\,V_{1}^{2}-p_{2}^{2}\,V_{2}^{2}}{R({{T}_{2}}-{{T}_{1}})}\]
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D)
\[{{C}_{V}}({{T}_{1}}-{{T}_{2}})\]
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E)
\[R\,{{C}_{V}}\left( \frac{{{T}_{1}}+{{T}_{2}}}{2} \right)\]
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question_answer 30) The average of induced emf in coil in which current changes from 0.2 A to 0.4 A in 0.1 is 1 V, the self inductance of the coil is
A)
0.2 H
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B)
0.5 H
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C)
0.3 H
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D)
0.4 H
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E)
0.1 H
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question_answer 31) L, C and R represents the physical quantities, inductance, capacitance and resistance, respectively. Which of the following combinations have dimensions of frequency?
A)
\[\frac{1}{RC}\]
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B)
\[R/L\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}\]
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D)
\[C/L\]
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E)
\[\frac{L}{R}\]
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question_answer 32) A mass of 5 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If the mass moves with 300 revolutins per minute, its kinetic energy would be
A)
250 \[{{\pi }^{2}}\]
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B)
100\[{{\pi }^{2}}\]
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C)
5\[{{\pi }^{2}}\]
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D)
0
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E)
36\[{{\pi }^{2}}\]
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question_answer 33) The density of a non-uniform rod of length 1 m is given by \[\rho (x)=a(1+b{{x}^{2}})\] where a and b are constants and 0 \[\le \] x \[\le \] 1. The centre of mass of the rod will be
A)
\[\frac{3\,(2+b)}{4\,(3+b)}\]
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B)
\[\frac{4\,(2+b)}{3\,(3+b)}\]
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C)
\[\frac{3\,(2+b)}{4\,(2+b)}\]
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D)
\[\frac{4\,(3+b)}{3\,(2+b)}\]
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E)
\[\frac{2\,(3+b)}{3\,(6+b)}\]
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question_answer 34) The electrostatics force of repulsion between two positively charged ions carrying equal charge is \[3.7\times {{10}^{-7}}N,\] when they are separated by a distance of 5 \[\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]. What are the number of electrons are missing each ion?
A)
2
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B)
4
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C)
5
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D)
10
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E)
7
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question_answer 35) There are two concentric spheres of radius a and b respectively. If the space between them is filed with medium of resistivity p, then the resistance of the inter gap between the two spheres will be
A)
\[\frac{\alpha }{4\pi (b+a)}\]
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B)
\[\frac{\alpha }{4\pi }\left( \frac{1}{b}-\frac{1}{a} \right)\]
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C)
\[\frac{\alpha }{4\pi }\left( \frac{1}{{{a}^{2}}}-\frac{1}{{{b}^{2}}} \right)\]
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D)
\[\frac{\alpha }{4\pi }\left( \frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{b} \right)\]
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E)
\[\frac{\alpha }{4\pi (b-a)}\]
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question_answer 36) A sphere of radius R is made up of uniform!] distributed positive change of a distance r from the centre of the sphere and inside the sphere, the electric field is proportional to which one of the following?
A)
\[{{r}^{-2}}\]
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B)
\[{{r}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[r\]
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D)
\[{{r}^{2}}\]
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E)
The electric field does not depend on the distance r from the centre
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question_answer 37) A particle of mass m and charge q is at rest initially, in a uniform electric field E in x-direction and is released. If the particle moves through a distance of 5 m between time interval \[t=1\,s\] to \[t=2\,s,\]the magnitude of E will be
A)
\[\frac{10\,m}{3\,q}\]
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B)
\[\frac{7\,m}{2\,q}\]
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C)
\[\frac{3\,m}{4\,q}\]
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D)
\[\frac{4\,m}{3\,q}\]
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E)
\[\frac{8\,m}{7\,q}\]
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question_answer 38) A Carnot engine working between 300 K and 600 K has work output of 800 J per cycle. What is the amount of heat supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle?
A)
80 J
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B)
400 J
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C)
800 J
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D)
160 J
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E)
1600 J
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question_answer 39) In Michelson interferometer sharp circular fringes are observed. A very thin plate with optical thickness equal to twenty wavelengths of the light being used in inserted into one of the interferometer arms. What is the number of bright fringes that cross the field of view?
A)
10
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B)
20
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C)
30
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D)
35
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E)
40
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question_answer 40) If a short magnet is moved along the axis of coil with constant velocity, the variation of induced emf with time t is best represented as which of the following?
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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E)
done
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question_answer 41) Consider the fission process of decay\[\overset{236}{\mathop{A}}\,\xrightarrow{{}}\overset{144}{\mathop{B}}\,+\,\,\overset{89}{\mathop{C}}\,\,+3n\] If the approximate binding energy per nucleon is 7 MeV for A, 8MeV for B, and 8MeV for C, then the energy referred in decay of one nucleus of A will be
A)
208 MeV
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B)
205 MeV
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C)
203 MeV
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D)
212 MeV
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E)
223 MeV
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question_answer 42) A uniform disc. of radius 5cm and mass 200 g is fixed at its centre to a metal wire, the other end of which is fixed with a clamp. The hanging disc is rotated about the wire through an angle and is released. If the disc makes torsional oscillations with time period 0.20s, then what will be. the torsional constant of the wire (in \[kg\text{-}{{m}^{2}}\text{/}{{s}^{2}}\]).
A)
0.15
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B)
0.17
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C)
0.20
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D)
0.23
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E)
0.25
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question_answer 43)
Consider the figure shown below The size of image will be
A)
-0.4 cm
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B)
-0.5 cm
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C)
0.6 cm
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D)
0.7 cm
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E)
3.0 cm
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question_answer 44)
The situation is shown in the figure shown below The plane mirror is fixed at a height A above the bottom of a beaker containing water (v) upto a height d. The position of image formed formed from the mirror is
A)
\[h+\frac{d}{\mu }\]
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B)
\[\frac{h+d}{\mu }\]
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C)
\[\frac{h-2d}{\mu }\]
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D)
\[h-\frac{d}{\mu }\]
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E)
\[h-d+\frac{d}{\mu }\]
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question_answer 45)
There are two convex lenses arranged coaxially as shown in the figure. The focal length of each of the lens is 20 cm and the separation between them is 60 cm. What will be the position of image of a distance object formed by the combination by using thin lens formula separately for the two lenses?
A)
- 40 cm
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B)
- 30 cm
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C)
+ 30 cm
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D)
+ 40 cm
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E)
+ 20 cm
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question_answer 46) The angular dispersion produced by a prism
A)
increases if the average refractive index increases
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B)
increases if the average refractive index decreases
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C)
remains constant
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D)
has no relation with average refractive index
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E)
remains constant for a range of change of average refractive index
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question_answer 47) A boy is going away from noise producing centre on his motorbike speeding 36 km/h listening the noise. If the main frequency is of 600 Hz and a wind is blowing along the direction motion of motorbike at 36 km/h then the main frequency beared by boy is (in Hz) (speed of sound in still air is 340 m/s)
A)
589
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B)
586
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C)
585
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D)
590
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E)
583
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question_answer 48) By passing 1 A current through dilute solution of sulphuric acid for some time 1g of oxygen is liberated. How much hydrogen is liberated during this period?
A)
0.17 g
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B)
0.21
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C)
1 g
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D)
0.7 g
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E)
0.12 g
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question_answer 49) The cold junction of a thermocouple is maintained at \[10{}^\circ C\]. No thermo emf is developed when the hot junction is maintained at \[530{}^\circ C\]. Find the neutral temperature.
A)
\[310{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[263{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[265{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[267{}^\circ C\]
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E)
\[270{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 50) The deviation produced by two types of glass are 1.613 for red light and 1.632 for violet light. The angular dispersion produced by then prism of light glass having refractive angle \[5{}^\circ ,\]is
A)
\[0.095{}^\circ \]
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B)
\[0.302{}^\circ \]
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C)
\[3{}^\circ \]
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D)
\[0.85{}^\circ \]
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E)
\[0.225{}^\circ \]
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question_answer 51) For a closed organ pipe, the fundamental frequency is equal to first overtone frequency of an open organ pipe. If the length of the open pipe is 60 cm, then length of the closed organ pipe will be
A)
25 cm
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B)
18 cm
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C)
10 cm
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D)
111 cm
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E)
15 cm
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question_answer 52) For a wire, the value of \[\mu \] is \[5\times {{10}^{-3}}kg\,{{m}^{-1}}.\] The wire is streched between two rigid supports with a tension of 450 N. The wire resonates at a frequency of 420 Hz. The next higer frequency at which the same wire resonates is 490 Hz, then the length of the wire will be
A)
1.9 m
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B)
1.8 m
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C)
2.0 m
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D)
2.1 m
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E)
3.2m
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question_answer 53) The length of an elastic rope is 4.5 m and radius 3mm is fixed to a free-limb on an end. A monkey weighing 100 N jumps to catch the free end and stays there. If Youngs modulus for the rope is \[4.8\times {{10}^{11}}N{{m}^{-2}}\] and Poissons ratio is 0.2, then change in diameter corresponding to elongation would be
A)
\[8.6\times {{10}^{-5}}\,m\]
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B)
\[7.9\times {{10}^{-9}}\,m\]
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C)
\[8.2\times {{10}^{-7}}\,m\]
done
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D)
\[8.6\times {{10}^{-8}}\,m\]
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E)
\[8.8\times {{10}^{-9}}\,m\]
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question_answer 54) The water has surface tension 0.075 \[N{{m}^{-1}}\] white its density is 1000\[kg{{m}^{-3}}\]. There is an air bubble of radius 1.0 mm inside the water at depth 10 cm below the free surface. The difference between pressure inside the bubble and the atmospheric pressure is
A)
983 Pa
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B)
1070 Pa
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C)
1083 Pa
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D)
1130 Pa
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E)
1134 Pa
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question_answer 55) For a helium ion with one electron and nuclear charge 2q, where q is the charge on a proton. The energy of the state with principal quantum number n = 4, is
A)
2.4 eV
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B)
-8.4 eV
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C)
-7.2 eV
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D)
13.2 eV
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E)
-3.4 eV
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question_answer 56) A ball of mass m moving with velocity v strikes the bob of a pendulum at rest. The mass of the bob is also m. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the height upto which the bob will go up, is given by
A)
\[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{3\,g}\]
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B)
\[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{4\,g}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{3\,g}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{6\,g}\]
done
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E)
\[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{8\,g}\]
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question_answer 57) A cell of emf X is connected across a resistor R. The potential difference across the wire is measured as Y. The internal resistance of the cell should be
A)
\[\frac{R-X}{2Y}\]
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B)
\[\frac{X-R}{Y+R}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{Y}{X}+R\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{X-R}{R}\]
done
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E)
\[\left( \frac{X-Y}{Y} \right)R\]
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question_answer 58) For given plate voltage, the plate current ir triode is maximum when the terminal of
A)
the grid is positive and plate is negative
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B)
the grid is positive and plate is positive
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C)
the grid is zero and plate is positive
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D)
the gird is negative and plate is positive
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 59)
The output Y, when all the three inputs a first high and then low, will respectively bf
A)
1, 0
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B)
1, 1
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C)
0, 0
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D)
0, 1
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E)
1, -1
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question_answer 60) The wave impedance of free space is
A)
183 \[\Omega \]
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B)
273 \[\Omega \]
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C)
405 \[\Omega \]
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D)
363 \[\Omega \]
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E)
377 \[\Omega \]
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question_answer 61) Which of the following carbohydrate is the sweetest among them?
A)
Lactose
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B)
Sucrose
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C)
Glucose
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D)
Fructose
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E)
Both (a) and (b)
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question_answer 62) Antidepressant drugs follow which mechanism?
A)
These drugs inhibit the enzyme which degrade the noradrenaline
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B)
These catalyses the degradation of noradrenaline
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C)
They direct interact with it
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D)
Both (b) and (c)
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 63) Which of the following is correct?
A)
BHT\[\to \]Antioxidant
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B)
Aspartame \[\to \] Artificial sweetener
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C)
Ranitidine \[\to \] Antacid
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D)
(a) , (b), (c) all are correct
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E)
None are correct
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question_answer 64) Which of the following does not act as a free radical generating initiator?
A)
Ethyl alcohol
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B)
Tert-butyl peroxide
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C)
Benzoyl peroxide
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D)
Acetyl peroxide
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 65) On elimination of \[CH-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{\overset{\oplus }{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}},\] the major product will be
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}\underset{C{{H}_{2}}}{\mathop{\underset{|\,|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,=CHC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
Both (a) and (b)
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 66) \[ArX+2Na+ArX\xrightarrow{Dry\,\,ether}Ar-Ar+NaX\]Name of the reaction is
A)
Williamsons synthesis
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B)
Fittig reaction
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C)
Wurtz reaction
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D)
Sandmeyers reaction
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E)
Wurtz-Fittig reaction
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question_answer 67) Which of the following has least nucleophilic character (able to act as nucleophile) in a chemical reaction?
A)
\[B{{r}^{-}}\]
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B)
\[CH_{3}^{+}\]
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C)
\[N{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[O{{H}^{-}}\]
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E)
\[CO_{3}^{-}\]
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question_answer 68)
Which of the following is the best synthesis of 2-chloronitrobenzoic acid?
A)
(i) Benzoic acid (ii) \[\Delta \]with\[HN{{O}_{3}},{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] (iii) \[C{{l}_{2}},\,FeC{{l}_{3}},\Delta \]
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B)
(i) Toluene (ii) \[HN{{O}_{3}},\,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] (iii) \[C{{l}_{2}},\,FeC{{l}_{3}},\,\Delta \](iv) \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}},{{H}_{2}}O,\,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},\Delta \]
done
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C)
(i) Treat nitrobenzene with\[C{{l}_{2}},\,FeC{{l}_{3}}+\Delta \] (ii) \[C{{H}_{3}}Cl,\,AlC{{l}_{3}}\] (iii) \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}},{{H}_{2}}O,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},\Delta \]
done
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D)
(i) Benzoic acid (ii) \[HN{{O}_{3}}+{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] (iii) \[C{{l}_{2}},\,FeC{{l}_{3}},\Delta \](iv) \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}},{{H}_{2}}O,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},\Delta \]
done
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E)
(i) Treat nitrobezene with\[C{{l}_{2}},FeC{{l}_{3}}+\Delta \] (ii) \[HCl+HN{{O}_{3}}\] (iii) \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}},{{H}_{2}}O,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},\Delta \]
done
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question_answer 69) Which of the following substrates react with alcohols to form esters?
A)
Acid chlorides
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B)
Acid anhydrides
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C)
Carboxylic acids
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D)
None of these
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E)
All of these
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question_answer 70) Which of the following is correct combination of reagent used and the intermediate formed in Stephen reaction?
A)
Reagent Intermediate DIBAL-H Imine
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B)
Reagent Intermediate Stannous chloride Aldehyde
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C)
Reagent Intermediate DIBAL-H Aldehyde
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D)
Reagent Intermediate Stannous chloride Imine
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E)
Reagent Intermediate None of these -
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question_answer 71) The conversion of primary amide to a primary amine containing one carbon atom less. The name of the reaction is
A)
Hofmann bromamide reaction
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B)
Claisen reaction
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C)
Cannizaro reaction
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D)
Riemer-Tiemann reaction
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 72) The test that can be used by two distinguish formaldehyde and acetaldehyde, is
A)
Fehlings reagent
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B)
Tollens reagent
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C)
Shifts reagent
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D)
Iodoform test
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 73)
The name of the above reaction is
A)
Reimer-Tiemann reaction
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B)
Schotten-Baumann reaction
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C)
Clemmensen reduction
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D)
Rosenmund reduction
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 74) How m-chloroaniline can be prepared from benzene?
A)
(i) Cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}+\]conc. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] (ii) \[C{{l}_{2}}/Fe\](iii) \[Sn/HCl\]
done
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B)
(i) Cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}+\]cone. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\](ii) \[NaOH\](iii) Dil. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+C{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
(i) Cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}+\]cone. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\](ii) \[Sn/HCl\]
done
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D)
(i) Cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}+\] cone \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\](ii) \[Sn/HCl\]
done
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 75) \[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\] and \[HCHO\]give similar kind of reaction with all reagents except
A)
ammonia
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B)
Fehlings solution
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C)
Schiffs reagent
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D)
ammonical \[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 76)
What will be the end product D?
A)
Primary amine
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B)
Amide
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C)
Phenyl isocyanate
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D)
Secondary amine
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E)
Nitrobenzene
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question_answer 77) Cope reaction is
A)
\[{{E}_{2}}\] intra molecular reaction
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B)
\[{{E}_{1}}\] intra molecular reaction
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C)
\[{{S}_{N}}1\] intra molecular reaction
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D)
\[{{S}_{N}}2\] intra molecular reaction
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E)
Both (a) and (b)
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question_answer 78)
What is the correct order of the basic strength of the following?
A)
I > II > III
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B)
I > III > II
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C)
III > II > I
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D)
III > I > II
done
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E)
III \[\simeq \]II > I
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question_answer 79) Which of the following statements is correct about \[{{D}_{2}}O\] and \[{{H}_{2}}O\]?
A)
Heavy water can be represented in both \[{{D}_{2}}O\] and \[{{H}_{2}}O\]way
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B)
\[{{D}_{2}}O\] has lower dielectric constant than \[{{H}_{2}}O\]
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C)
\[NaCl\]is more soluble in \[{{D}_{2}}O\] than in \[{{H}_{2}}O\]
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D)
Both (b) and (c)
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E)
All of the above
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question_answer 80) For soap, the CMC is in the range of
A)
\[{{10}^{4}}-{{10}^{3}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[{{10}^{-4}}-{{10}^{-3}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{10}^{-2}}-{{10}^{-1}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{10}^{-4}}-{{10}^{-1}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}\]
done
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E)
\[{{10}^{-4}}-{{10}^{4}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 81) Adsorption from solution phase is explained by the help of Freundlich adsorption isotherm which is given by the expression
A)
\[\frac{x}{m}=\frac{k}{c}\]
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B)
\[\frac{x}{m}=k{{c}^{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[\log \frac{x}{m}=\log k+\frac{1}{n}\log C\]
done
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D)
\[\log \frac{x}{m}=\frac{1}{n}\log k+\log C\]
done
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E)
\[\frac{1}{n}\log \frac{x}{m}=\log k+\frac{1}{n}\log C\]
done
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question_answer 82) What will be the emf for the cell\[Pt|{{H}_{2}}({{p}_{1}})|{{H}^{+}}(aq)||{{H}_{2}}({{p}_{2}})|Pt?\]
A)
\[\frac{RT}{F}{{\log }_{e}}\frac{{{\rho }_{1}}}{{{\rho }_{2}}}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{RT}{2F}{{\log }_{e}}\frac{{{\rho }_{1}}}{{{\rho }_{2}}}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{RT}{F}\log \frac{{{\rho }_{2}}}{{{\rho }_{1}}}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{RT}{2F}{{\log }_{e}}\frac{{{\rho }_{2}}}{{{\rho }_{1}}}\]
done
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E)
\[-\frac{RT}{F}{{\log }_{e}}\frac{{{\rho }_{1}}}{{{\rho }_{2}}}\]
done
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question_answer 83) The increase in the molar conductivity of\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\] with dilution is due to
A)
increase in degree of ionization
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B)
decrease in interionic forces
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C)
intermolecular forces increases
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D)
No degree of ionization
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 84) According to collision theory of bimolecular reactions,
A)
the collision between all molecules lead to chemical reaction
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B)
chemical reaction will occur when collisions in which the molecules acquire energy is equal to activation energy
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C)
reactions in gas phase are always of zero order
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D)
rate directly proportional to number of collisions per second
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E)
collision is independent of temperature
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question_answer 85)
Match the following columns. Column-I Column-II A. Schoottky defect 1. Due to missing of cation from its lattice site B. Metal deficiency defect 2. Ion disloated from its normal site C. Frenkel defect 3. Equal number of cations and anions are missing
Codes
A)
A-1 B-2 C-3
done
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B)
A-2 B-3 C-1
done
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C)
A-3 B-2 C-1
done
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D)
A-3 B-1 C-2
done
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E)
A-2 B-1 C-3
done
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question_answer 86) The correct statement(s) for F-centre is/are
A)
conductivity of the crystal increases due to F-centre
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B)
produce colour to the crystals
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C)
electrons are held in the voids of crystals
done
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D)
Both (a) and (b)
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E)
All of the above
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question_answer 87) Azeotropic mixture of two liquids has boiling point higher than either of them when it
A)
is saturated solution
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B)
shows positive deviation from Raoults law
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C)
shows negative deviation from Raoults law
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D)
shows no deviation
done
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E)
Both (a) and (b)
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question_answer 88) According to Arrhenius equation what will be the effect on log k with increase in\[\frac{1}{T}\]?
A)
Increase linearly
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B)
Change exponentially
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C)
Decrease linearly
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D)
Perabolically change
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E)
No change, constant
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question_answer 89) Which of the following statements is not correct?
A)
Open system \[\Delta m \ne 0,\,\Delta E\ne 0\]
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B)
Close system \[\Delta m =0,\,\Delta E\ne 0\]
done
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C)
Isolated system \[\Delta m \ne 0,\,\Delta E=0\]
done
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D)
All of the above
done
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E)
Both (a) and (c)
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question_answer 90) 18 g of ice is converted into water at \[0{}^\circ C\]and 1 atm. The entropies of \[{{H}_{2}}O\,(s)\] and \[{{H}_{2}}O\,(l)\] are 38.2 and\[60\,J\text{/}mol\text{ }K\]respectively. The enthalpy change for this conversion is
A)
595.14 J/mol
done
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B)
- 5951.4 J/mol
done
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C)
5951.4 J/mol
done
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D)
- 595.14 J/mol
done
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E)
21.8 J/mol
done
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question_answer 91) For an ideal gas, \[\frac{{{C}_{p}},\,m}{{{C}_{V}},\,m}=r.\]The molecular mass of the gas is M, its specific heat capacity at constant volume is
A)
\[\frac{rR}{M(r-1)}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{rRM}{r-1}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{M}{R(r-1)}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{R}{M(r-1)}\]
done
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E)
\[\frac{R}{M(1-r)}\]
done
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question_answer 92) Uncertainty in the position of electron moving with a velocity 300\[m{{s}^{-1}}\] accurate upon 0.001% will be [\[e=9.1\times {{10}^{-31}}\text{ }kg,\]\[h=6.63\times {{10}^{-34}}\text{ }J\text{ }s\]]
A)
\[5.76\times {{10}^{-2}}m\]
done
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B)
\[19.3\times {{10}^{-3}}m\]
done
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C)
\[1.93\times {{10}^{-2}}m\]
done
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D)
\[3.84\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]
done
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E)
\[4.84\times {{10}^{-2}}m\]
done
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question_answer 93)
Match the following columns. Column I Column II A. \[mvr=\frac{nh}{2\pi }\] 1. De-Broglie equation B. \[\lambda =\frac{h}{p}\] 2. Electrons total energy C. \[-\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{2r}\] 3. Paschen series D. Infrared 4. Bohrs equation
Codes
A)
A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
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B)
A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
done
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C)
A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
done
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D)
A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
done
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E)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
done
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question_answer 94) Daniell cell reaction is
A)
\[Zn(s)+CuS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\xrightarrow{{}}\]\[Cu(s)+ZnS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\]
done
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B)
\[Cu(s)+ZnS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\xrightarrow{{}}\]\[CuS{{O}_{4}}(aq)+Zn(s)\]
done
clear
C)
\[Ni(s)+ZnS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\xrightarrow{{}}\]\[NiS{{O}_{4}}(aq)+Zn(s)\]
done
clear
D)
\[2Na(s)+CdS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\xrightarrow{{}}\] \[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}(aq)+Cd(s)\]
done
clear
E)
\[Zn(s)+NiS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\xrightarrow{{}}\]\[ZnS{{O}_{4}}(aq)+Ni(s)\]
done
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question_answer 95)
Match the following column. Column I Column II A. Butter 1. Emulsion B. Milk 2. Sol C. Paint 3. Gel
Codes
A)
A-1 B-2 C-3
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B)
A-1 B-3 C-2
done
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C)
A-3 B-2 C-1
done
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D)
A-1 B-1 C-2
done
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E)
A-3 B-1 C-2
done
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question_answer 96)
Which of the following is correct? I. Ostwalds theory and Maxwells theory related to chemical kinetics. II. For a first order reaction, \[{{t}_{1/2}}=\frac{0.693}{k}\] III. Molecularity of a reaction may be fraction. IV. Rate of zero order is independent of initial concentration.
A)
I and II
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B)
I and III
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C)
III and IV
done
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D)
I, II and IV
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E)
All of these
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question_answer 97) 1L of buffer solution containing 0.01 M \[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\] and 0.1 M \[N{{H}_{4}}OH\] having \[\text{p}{{K}_{b}}\] of 5, has pH of
A)
9
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B)
6
done
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C)
10
done
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D)
7
done
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E)
4
done
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question_answer 98) The pH of a mixture when a 60 mL solution of pH = 1 is mixed with 60 mL of pH = 2, is
A)
0.56
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B)
1.76
done
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C)
1.18
done
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D)
2.06
done
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E)
1.56
done
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question_answer 99) \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}+x{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+yS{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}\]\[{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+C{{r}_{2}}{{(S{{O}_{4}})}_{3}}+z{{H}_{2}}O\] The above equation will be balance, when
A)
x = 4, y = 1, z = 4
done
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B)
x = 1, y = 3, z = 1
done
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C)
x = 3, y = 2, z = 3
done
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D)
x = 2, y = 2, z = 1
done
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E)
x = 2, y = 1, z = 2
done
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question_answer 100) PHBV stands for
A)
poly -\[\beta \]- hydroxybutyrate - co -\[\beta \]- hydroxyvalerate
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B)
poly -\[\alpha \]- hydroxybutyrate - co -\[\alpha \]- hydroxyvalerate
done
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C)
poly -\[\alpha \]- hydroxyvalerate - co - \[\alpha \] -hydroxybutyrate
done
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D)
poly -\[\beta \]- hydroxyvalerate - co -\[\beta \]- hydroxybutyrate
done
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E)
poly -\[\alpha \]- hydroxybutyrate - co -\[\beta \]-hydroxyvalerate
done
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question_answer 101) White precipitates is formed in
A)
ninhydrin test
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B)
xanthoprotic test
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C)
Millons test
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D)
Biuret test
done
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E)
None of the above
done
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question_answer 102) The formula of turnbulls and prussian blue respectively are
A)
\[{{K}_{3}}[\overset{(III)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}],\,\,{{K}_{4}}[\overset{(II)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]
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B)
\[K\overset{(II)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,[\overset{(III)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}],\,\,K\overset{(III)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,[\overset{(II)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]
done
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C)
\[\overset{\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,(III)}{\mathop{KFe}}\,\,[\overset{(II)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}],\,\,\overset{\,\,\,\,\,\,\text{(II)}}{\mathop{KFe}}\,\,[\overset{(III)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]
done
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D)
\[{{K}_{4}}\,[\overset{(II)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}],\,\,{{K}_{3}}\,[\overset{(III)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]
done
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E)
\[\,[\overset{(II)}{\mathop{KFe}}\,\,[\overset{(II)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}],\,\,\,[\overset{(III)}{\mathop{KFe}}\,\,\,[\overset{(III)}{\mathop{Fe}}\,\,{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]
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question_answer 103) What will be the correct order of basicity of fluoride?
A)
\[Xe{{F}_{6}}>Xe{{F}_{4}}>Xe{{F}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[Xe{{F}_{2}}>Xe{{F}_{4}}>Xe{{F}_{6}}\]
done
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C)
\[Xe{{F}_{2}}>Xe{{F}_{4}}<Xe{{F}_{6}}\]
done
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D)
\[Xe{{F}_{2}}=Xe{{F}_{4}}<Xe{{F}_{6}}\]
done
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E)
\[Xe{{F}_{2}}>Xe{{F}_{4}}=Xe{{F}_{6}}\]
done
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question_answer 104) What will be the formula of borax?
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 105) The compound having tetrahedral geometry is
A)
\[{{[Ni\,{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
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B)
\[{{[Pd\,{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{[NiC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{[PdC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 106) The diamagnetic species is/are
A)
\[{{[NiC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
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B)
\[{{[Ni\,{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{[CoC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{[Co{{F}_{6}}]}^{2-}}\]
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 107) The outer electronic configuration of transitional elements is
A)
\[(n+1){{s}^{2}}n{{d}^{\,1\,-\,5}}\]
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B)
\[(n-1){{s}^{2}}{{p}^{6}}(n-1)\,{{d}^{1-10}},n{{s}^{1,\,2}}\]
done
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C)
\[n{{s}^{2}}(n+1){{d}^{1\,-\,10}}\]
done
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D)
\[(n-1){{s}^{2}}n{{d}^{1\,-\,2}}\]
done
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E)
\[(n-2){{s}^{2}}n{{d}^{1\,-\,3}}\]
done
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question_answer 108) EAN of cobalt is 36 in \[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}(en)Cl].\] Thus, \[{{O}_{2}}\]is
A)
super oxide
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B)
peroxide
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C)
dioxide
done
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D)
oxide
done
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E)
Nacent oxygen
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question_answer 109) \[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]\,[Cr{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]and \[[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]\,[Co{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]are
A)
coordination isomers
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B)
ionisation isomers
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C)
linkage isomers
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D)
geometrical isomers
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 110) What will be the extent of hydration of \[N{{a}^{+}},\]\[M{{g}^{2+}},\]\[A{{l}^{3+}}\]?
A)
\[N{{a}^{+}}<A{{l}^{3+}}<M{{g}^{2+}}\]
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B)
\[A{{l}^{3+}}<M{{g}^{2+}}<N{{a}^{+}}\]
done
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C)
\[N{{a}^{+}}<M{{g}^{2+}}<A{{l}^{3+}}\]
done
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D)
\[N{{a}^{+}}=M{{g}^{2+}}<A{{l}^{3+}}\]
done
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E)
\[N{{a}^{+}}<M{{g}^{2+}}=A{{l}^{3+}}\]
done
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question_answer 111) What will be the correct order of decreasing covalent characters alkali metals?
A)
\[MF>MCl>MI>MBr\]
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B)
\[MF>MCl>MBr>MI\]
done
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C)
\[MCl>MI>MBr>MF\]
done
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D)
\[MI>MBr>MCl>MF\]
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 112) What will be the correct order of reducing character of (I) Li, (II) Na, (III) K, (IV) Rb in aqueous solution?
A)
IV < III < II < I
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B)
I < II < III < IV
done
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C)
II < III < IV < 1
done
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D)
IV < II < III < I
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 113) Which one is not an ore of aluminium?
A)
Dolomite
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B)
Bauxite
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C)
Felspar
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D)
Cryolite
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 114) Which of the following is correct about\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]?
A)
\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]is paramagnetic in nature
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B)
\[N{{O}_{2}}\]dimerises to \[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]
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C)
\[N{{O}_{2}}\]is diamagnetic
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D)
Itself ionises as \[N{{O}^{+}},\,NO_{3}^{-}\]
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 115) Which one of the following is square planar?
A)
\[Xe{{F}_{4}}\]
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B)
\[Xe{{O}_{4}}\]
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C)
\[Xe{{O}_{3}}F\]
done
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D)
\[Xe{{O}_{3}}{{F}_{2}}\]
done
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E)
\[Xe{{F}_{6}}\]
done
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question_answer 116) Which of the following oxides is highly basic?
A)
\[BaO\]
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B)
\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[N{{a}_{2}}O\]
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 117) Which of the following is correct 1 combination of primary pollutants?
A)
\[S{{O}_{2}},CO\]
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B)
\[CO,\,PAN\]
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C)
\[{{O}_{3}},\,S{{O}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[PAN,\,{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 118) Ozone depletion is initiated by
A)
\[\overset{\bullet }{\mathop{C}}\,{{F}_{2}}Cl\]
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B)
\[Cl\overset{\bullet }{\mathop{O}}\,\]
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C)
\[\overset{\bullet }{\mathop{C}}\,{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[\overset{\bullet }{\mathop{C}}\,l\]
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 119) Radioactive equilibrium is established in a uranium mineral between radium and 1 uranium atom in the 1:28 ratio. If \[\frac{1}{2}\] period of radium is 1620 yr, calculate the disintegration constant of uranium.
A)
\[1.43047\times {{10}^{12}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[4.844\times {{10}^{-13}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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C)
\[4.844\times {{10}^{+13}}s\]
done
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D)
\[1.43047\times {{10}^{-12}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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E)
\[1.43047\times {{10}^{+12}}{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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question_answer 120)
The correct IUPAC name of
A)
(2E, 4E) - 3-ethyl-2, 4-hexadiene
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B)
(2Z, 4E) - 3-ethyl-2, 4-hexadiene
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C)
(2Z, 4Z) - ethyl-2, 4-hexadiene
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D)
(2E, 4Z) - ethyl-2, 4-hexadiene
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E)
(2E, 4Z) - ethane-2, 4-hexadiene
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question_answer 121) Bovine spongiform excephalopathy (mad cow disease) and Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease (CJD) are caused by
A)
prions
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B)
viruses
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C)
bacteria
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D)
autoimmune disorder
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 122) Mark the right combination.
A)
sycon - Water vascular system
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B)
Sea-urchin - canal system
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C)
Hook worm - Pseudocoel
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D)
Cray fish - Skeletal system
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 123) Which of the following is not a lung fish?
A)
Neocerotodus
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B)
Acipenser
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C)
Lepidosiren
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D)
Protoptervs
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 124) The centum in typical centrum of frog is
A)
amphicoelous
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B)
precocious
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C)
heterocoelus
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D)
acoelous
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 125) In some chordates, the notochord is modified as the vertebrate column. Such animals are called vertebrates. Which one of the following statement proves it?
A)
All chordates are vertebrates, but all vertebrates are not chordates
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B)
All vertebrates are chordates and all chordates are vertebrates
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C)
All vertebrates are chordates, but all chordates are not vertebrates
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D)
Chordates are not vertebrates and vertebrates are not chordates
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 126)
Identify the true and false statement among the following and choose the correct option. I. In Urochordata, notochord is present only in larval tail. II. In Cephalochordata, notochord extends from head to the tail region. III. Branchiostoma belongs to Hemichordata. IV. Only one class of living members, class- Cyclostomata represents the super class- Agnatha.
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 127)
Which of the following statements are true/false? I. The blood transports\[C{{O}_{2}}\]comparatively easily because of its highter solubility. II. Approximately 8.9% of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] is transported being dissolved in the plasma of the blood. III. The \[C{{O}_{2}}\] produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood stream and passes into RBCs and react with water to form \[{{H}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}.\] IV. \[Hb{{O}_{2}}\]of erythrocyte is basic. V. The chloride ion diffuse from plasma into the erythrocyte to maintain ionic balance.
A)
True False I, III, V II, IV
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B)
True False I, III, V II, IV
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C)
True False II, III, IV I, IV
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D)
True False II, III, IV I, V
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E)
True False I, II, IV III, V
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question_answer 128) Coelomate animal in which blastopore develops into anus is called
A)
protostomia
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B)
deuterostomia
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C)
blastostomia
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D)
Neutrastomia
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 129) Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their are characteristic morphological feature?
A)
Animal Morphological feature Scorpion, spider cockroach Ventral solid central
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B)
Animal Morphological feature Cockroach, locust taneia Metameric segmentation
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C)
Animal Morphological feature Liver fluke sea anymone Bilateral symmetry
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D)
Animal Morphological feature Centipede, prawn sea urchin Jointed appendages
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E)
Animal Morphological feature Hook worm, spider Central nerous system
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question_answer 130) Sweet (sudorific) glands in mammals are
A)
compound and tubular
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B)
simple and alveolar
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C)
simple and coiled
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D)
compound and coiled
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 131) Which one of the following is the infective stage of Ascaris lumbricoides?
A)
Unregimented egg
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B)
Egg with first stage larvae
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C)
Egg with second stage larvae
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D)
Free third stage larvae
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 132) Which proteolytic enzyme induce lysis of fibrinin during fibrinolysis?
A)
Thrombin
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B)
Plasmin
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C)
Prothrombin
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D)
Fibrinogen
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 133)
Read the following statements and choose the sets of correct ones. I. Neopillina galatheae is the most primitive mollusc having metamerism like annelids. II. Peripatus resembles and arthropod in having haemocoel dorsal heart with ostia, tracheal respiration and the pattern of development. III. Latimeria chalumnae is a surviving member of crossopterygii the probable anscetor of the first amphibians. IV. The theory of natural selection was proposed by Darwin and Wallace.
A)
I and II
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B)
III and IV
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C)
I, II and III
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D)
All of the above
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 134) Which of the following is colourless Hydra?
A)
Hydra jusca
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B)
Hydra viridis
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C)
Hydra oligactis
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D)
Hydra vulgaris
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E)
All of the above
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question_answer 135) Thousands of year old mummies all still in their condition as they were before due to the some reason. Which of the following describes it the best?
A)
Due to the non-destruction of yellow elastin fibre
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B)
Due to the non-destruction of white elastin fibre
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C)
Due to the non-destruction of collagen fibre
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D)
Due to the non-destruction of veins
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 136) Llintiolic method is used for measuring
A)
Hb%
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B)
ESR ...
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C)
WBCs count
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D)
Lipid profile
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 137)
Study the pedigree chart given below. What does it show?
A)
Inheritance of a condition like-phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
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B)
The pedigree chart is wrong as their is not possible
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C)
Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like hemophilia
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D)
Inheritance of sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like-phenylketonuria
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 138) Blood group of a child is O. The blood group of his parent cannot be
A)
A and B
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B)
A and A
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C)
AB and O
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D)
B and O
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E)
A and O
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question_answer 139)
Which of the following are the reasons for rhematoid arthritis? Choose the correct option. I. Lymphocytes become more active. II. Body attack self-cells. III. More antibodies are produced in the body. IV. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self-cells is lost.
A)
I and II
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B)
II and IV
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C)
III and IV
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D)
I and III
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E)
I and IV
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question_answer 140) The most appropriate definition of neuroglial cells are
A)
non-sensory and supporting cells
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B)
secretory cells
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C)
sensory and supporting cells
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D)
non-sensory supporting or sensory cells
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 141) The bundle of His is a network of
A)
muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
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B)
nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
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C)
nerve fibres found though out the heart
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D)
muscle fibre distributed though out the heart wall
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 142) The ectoderm give rise to
A)
nails, blood vessels and epidermis
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B)
adrenal cortex and epidermis
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C)
neurons and epidermis
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D)
kidneys, blood vessels and heart
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E)
adrenal cortex and blood vessels
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question_answer 143) In Drosophild the XXY condition leads to femaleness whereas in human beings the same condition leads to Klinefelters syndrome in male. It proves
A)
in human being Y-chromosome is active in see determination
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B)
Y-chromosome is active in sex determination in both human being and Drosophila
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C)
In Drosophila Y-chromosome decides female ness
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D)
Y-chromosome of man have genes for syndrome
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 144) Sickle-cell anaemia is
A)
caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
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B)
caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
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C)
characterised by elongated sickle like-RBCs with a nucleus
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D)
an autosomal linked dominant trait
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 145)
Read the following statements and choose correct option. I. Colour blindness is autosomal recessive disorder. II. Gynaecomastia is enlargement of breasts in females. III. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal hereditary disorder. IV. Haemophilic is sex linked disease.
A)
I, II are correct, III, IV are incorrect
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B)
III, IV correct, but I, II are incorrect
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C)
III, V correct, but II, IV are incorrect
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D)
All are incorrect
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E)
All are correct
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question_answer 146) In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish-like heart, three chambered frog-like heart and finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?
A)
Principle of use and disuse of organs (Lamarkism)
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B)
Mendelian principle
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C)
Recapitulation theory
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D)
Hardy-Weinberg law
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 147)
Which of the given statement(s) is/are incorrect? I. Downs syndrome is a genetic disorder resulting from bisomy of chromosome 21. II. Klinefelters syndrome is an abnormality in man who are always sterile because of an extra X-chromosome. III. Huntingtons disease is a sex-linked disorder more common in man because they have a single X-chromosome on which the give is born. IV. Women generally do not suffer from haemophilia because its gene is borne on Y-chromosome.
A)
Only I
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B)
II and IV
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C)
II and III
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D)
Only IV
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E)
Only II
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question_answer 148) The colour blind daughter is born in case of a
A)
colour blind mother and normal father
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B)
carrier mother and colour blind father
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C)
normal mother and colour blind father
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D)
carrier mother and normal father
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 149)
Match the following column I with column II. Column-I Column-II A. Inguinal canal Network of seminiferous tubules B. Rete testis Secondary sexual characters C. Leydig cells For descending of testis D. Prepuce Dorsal bundles of muscles E. Corpora canernosa Terminal skin of penis
Codes
A)
A-3 B-1 C-2 D-5 E-4
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B)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-5 E-4
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C)
A-2 B-4 C-3 D-5 E-1
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D)
A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 E-5
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E)
A-4 B-1 C-3 D-5 E-2
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question_answer 150) Which of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
A)
Proliferativce phase - Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
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B)
Secretory phase - Development of corpus luteum and increased secretion of progesterone
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C)
Menstruation-Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized
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D)
Ovulation-LH and FSH obtain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 151) The branch of biology that deals with study of grasses is known as
A)
anatomy
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B)
agrostology
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C)
anthology
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D)
agronomy
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E)
ecology
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question_answer 152) Consider the following statements. Select the false statement.
A)
Scientists who study and contribute to the classification of organisms are known as systematists
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B)
Carolus Linnaeus developed the first scientific system of naming species
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C)
A five kingdom arrangement of organisms was introduced by RH Whittaker
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D)
Phycomycetes are called club fungi because of a club shaped end of mycelium known as basidium
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 153)
Match the following column I with column II. Column-I Column-II A. Ascus 1. Spirulina B. Basidium 2. Penicillium C. Protista 3. Agaricus D. Cyanobacteria 4. Euglena E. Animalia 5. Sponges
Codes
A)
A-2 B-3 C-4 D-5 E-1
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B)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-5 E-4
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C)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 E-5
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D)
A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 E-5
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E)
A-5 B-1 C-4 D-3 E-2
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question_answer 154)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? I. Prop roots give mechanical support to banyan tree. II. Pneumato phores present in mangrove vegetation, show positive geotropism. III. Potato is a modification of root while sweet potato is a stem modification. IV. Rhizome is commonly found in ginger.
A)
I and IV
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B)
II, III and IV
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C)
I and III
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D)
Only I
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E)
All of the above
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question_answer 155) Following are the names of same plants identify the order of plants that shows alternate, opposite and whorled phyllotaxy.
A)
China rose, Calotropis and Nerium
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B)
China rose, Nerium, Calotropis
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C)
Nerium, China rose, Calotropis
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D)
Nerium, Calotropis, China rose
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E)
Calotropis, Nerium, China rose
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question_answer 156)
Consider the following statements and select the true and false statements among the following codes given below. I. Trimerous conditions of floral whorl is characteristic of dicotyledons. II. Adiantum is also called as walking fern III. In gymnosperms the vascular system consists of xylem without vessels an phloem with companion cells. IV. Biccia and Marchantia are liverworts.
True False
A)
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B)
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C)
done
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D)
done
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E)
done
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question_answer 157)
Consider the following statement. Select the correct statements from the given code below. I. Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophqra II. Adventitious roots are seen in banyan tree III. Maize and sugarcane have prop roots. IV. From the region of elongation same epidermal cells form root hairs.
A)
II and III are correct
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B)
II and III are incorrect
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C)
I and II are correct
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D)
I and IV are incorrect
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E)
All are correct
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question_answer 158) Inverted omega-shaped vascular bundles are found in
A)
rachis of Cycas
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B)
leaflet of Cycas
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C)
roots of Cycas
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D)
old stew of Cycas
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 159)
Match the following column I with column II Column I Column II A. Anthoceros 1. Alga B. Adiantum 2. Hornwort C. Sargassum 3. Gametophyte D. Prothallus 4. Inferae E. Asterales 5. Walking fern
Codes
A)
A-2 B-5 C-1 D-3 E-4
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B)
A-5 B-4 C-3 D-2 E-1
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C)
A-5 B-1 C-2 D-4 E-3
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D)
A-3 B-2 C-1 D-5 E-4
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E)
A-5 B-4 C-1 D-2 E-3
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question_answer 160) Transfusion tissue for lateral conduction of water and food are found in
A)
roots of gymnosperms
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B)
stem of gymnosperms
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C)
leaves of gymnosperms
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D)
leaves of angiosperms
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 161)
In column I some animals and column II in their specificities. Match the following column I with column II. Column I Column II A. Bears 1. Diapause B. Snail 2. Hibernation C. Zooplankaton 3. Dormancy D. Seed 4. Aestivation
Codes
A)
A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
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B)
A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
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C)
A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
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D)
A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
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E)
A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
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question_answer 162)
Which of the following statement is true or false. Choose the correct option. I. Cork cambium is also called as phellogen. II. Cork is also called as phellem. III. Secondary cortex is called periderm. IV. Cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called phelloderm.
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 163) According to the widely accepted fluid mosaic model cell membrane are semifluid where lipids are integral proteins can differ randomly. In recent years, this model has been modified in several respects. In this regards, which of the following statement is incorrect.
A)
Proteins in cell membrane can travel within the lipid bilayer
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B)
Protein can also undergo flip-flop movement in lipid bilayer
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C)
Proteins can remains confined within certain domains of the membrane
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D)
Many proteins remains completely embedded within the lipid bilayer
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 164)
Observe the following figure of a mitochondria labell its parts shown as A, B, C and D. Choose the correctly matched part with its function.
A)
D-outer membrane - give rise to inner membrane by splitting
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B)
B-inner membrane - forms in folding called cristae
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C)
C-cristae-possesses single circular DNA molecular and ribosome
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D)
A-matrix - major site for respiratory chain enzyme
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 165) The meiosis is divided into two parts meiosis-I and II. The correct sequence of stages of cell division of meiotic-I, prophase is
A)
zygotene \[\to \] leptotene\[\to \]diplotene \[\to \] diakinesis \[\to \] pachytene
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B)
leptotene \[\to \] zygotene \[\to \] pachytene \[\to \] diplotene \[\to \] diakinesis
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C)
leptotene \[\to \] diplotene \[\to \] pachytene \[\to \] dikinesis \[\to \] zygotene
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D)
diakinesis \[\to \] diplotene \[\to \] pachytene \[\to \] zygotene \[\to \] leptotene
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E)
leptotene\[\to \]diakinesis \[\to \] zygotene \[\to \] pachytene
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question_answer 166)
Which of the following is/are characteristic feature (s) of meiosis? I. Number of chromosomes gets halved. II. Crossing over takes place between non-homologous chromosomes, resulting in variation. III. Helps in development of zygote into emboryo. IV. It occurs in reproductive cells only.
A)
I and IV
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B)
I, II and IV
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C)
II, III and IV
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D)
All of these
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 167) Which of the following events occur during diplotene stage of prophase-I of meiosis?
A)
Compaction of chromosomes
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B)
Formation of synaptonemal complex
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C)
Formation of recominational nodules
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D)
Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 168)
Match the following column and choose the correct options from the given codes below. Column I Column II A. Root Pockets 1. Nerium B. Spongy aril 2. Jussiaea C. Multiple epidermis 3. Pistia D. Respiratory roots 4. Nymphea
Codes
A)
A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
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B)
A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
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C)
A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
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D)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
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E)
A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
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question_answer 169) In oogamy fertilisation involves
A)
a small non-motile female gametes and a large motile male gametes
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B)
a large non-motile female gametes and a small motile male gamete
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C)
a large non-motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gametes
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D)
a large motile female gamete and a small non-motile male gamete
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 170) The light harvesting complex in light reaction is
A)
one molecule of chlorophyll-a
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B)
very few molecules of chlorophyll-a
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C)
hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins
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D)
chlorophyll-a + chlorophyll-b + protein + DNA
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 171) Darwin in the theory of natural selection, state that.
A)
characters acquired during the life of an individuals are inherited by its off springs
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B)
environment does not play any role in the evolution
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C)
natural selection acts a favourable variations, which appear among individuals of a species
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D)
heritable variations arise through changes in the gene complex of a species
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 172) In the past the age of the fossils was generally determined by radiocarbon method and other methods involve radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms, includes
A)
study of carbohydrates / proteins in families
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B)
study of the conditions of fossilization
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C)
Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) and from/DNA
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D)
study of carbohydrates / proteins in rocks
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 173)
Match the following column I with column II. Column I Column II A. Sago 1. Urgenia martini B. Turpentine oil 2. Gossypium hirsutum C. Rat poison 3. Pinus D. Cotton fibre 4. Extract of lichens E. Litmas paper 5. Cycus revoluta
Codes
A)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 E-5
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B)
A-5 B-3 C-1 D-2 E-4
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C)
A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1 E-5
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D)
A-4 B-5 C-3 D-2 E-1
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E)
A-4 B-2 C-5 D-3 E-1
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question_answer 174)
Arrange the steps of decomposition in sequential manner. I. Fragmentation II. Catabolism III. Leaching IV. Humification V. Mineralisation
Choose the correct option.
A)
V, IV, III, II, I
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B)
I, III, II, IV, V
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C)
I, II, III, IV, V
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D)
IV, V, I, II, III
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E)
II, III, V, I, IV
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question_answer 175) The Bt toxin is used for killing nematodes in crop plant. But, it is non-toxic to human. Select the correct reason for this
A)
the pro Bt toxin activation requires temperature above human body temperature
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B)
the Bt toxin recognises only insect specific target
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C)
the Bt toxin formation from pro Bt toxin requires pH lower than that present in human stomach
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D)
conversion of pro Bt toxin to Bt toxin takes place only in highly alkaline conditions
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 176) Immobilisation of enzyme is advantageous as it protects enzyme against
A)
attack by amylases
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B)
attack by proteases
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C)
high temperature
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D)
law temperature
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 177) A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
A)
drying of the lake very soon due to the algal bloom
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B)
an increased production of fish due to the lot of nutrients
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C)
death of fish due to the lack of oxygen
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D)
increased population of aquatic food web organization
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 178)
Read the following statements. Some words are missing. Identify the correct codes to fill there gaps with the suitable words. I. Bears go into A during winter to B cold weather. II. A conical age pyramid with a broad bare represents ...C... human population. III. A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an examples of ...D... . IV. An area with high levels of species richness is known as ...E... .
A)
C-stable, D-commensalism, E-marsh
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B)
A-aestivation, B-escape, C-stable, D-mutualism
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C)
C-expanding, D-commensalism, E-biodiversity park.
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D)
A-hibernation, B-escape, C-expanding, E-hot spot
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E)
A-stable, B-marsh, C-expanding, D-biodiversity
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question_answer 179) Choose the incorrect match from the following.
A)
Gossypium hirsutum - Bacillus cereus
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B)
Oryza sativa - Azototobacter chroococcum
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C)
Triticum vulgare - Azospirillum lipoferum
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D)
Glycini mex - Rhizobium leguminasorium
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E)
Npne of the above
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question_answer 180) Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methane-bacterium exemplify
A)
bacteria where DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled, but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
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B)
bacteria that contains a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
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C)
archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
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D)
archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling there found in eukaryotes, but where DNA is negatively supercoiled
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 181) Directions: Select the related letter/word/ number from the given alternatives. 8 : 81 :: 64 : ?
A)
525
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B)
125
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C)
250
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D)
625
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E)
750
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question_answer 182) Directions: Select the related letter/word/ number from the given alternatives. ABCD : ZYXW :: EFGH : ?
A)
PONM
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B)
XYZW
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C)
TSRQ
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D)
VUTS
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E)
ZYWX
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question_answer 183) Directions: Select the related letter/word/ number from the given alternatives. Bee : Hive :: Dog : ?
A)
Nest
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B)
kennel
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C)
Coop
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D)
Stable
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 184) Directions: Select the related letter/word/ number from the given alternatives. BDEG : MOPR :: ? : oqrt
A)
Dfgi
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B)
DFGI
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C)
dfge
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D)
dFgi
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E)
FIGD
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question_answer 185) Directions: Select the related letter/word/ number from the given alternatives. ELJH : MTRP :: UBZX : ?
A)
DJIG
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B)
CJHF
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C)
CIGE
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D)
CBYA
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E)
ABYC
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question_answer 186) Directions: Select the related letter/word/ number from the given alternatives. Star : Constellation :: Soldier : ?
A)
Hegiment
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B)
War
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C)
Bravery
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D)
School
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 187) Which new district (s) included in the National Capital Region (NCR) by National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB), in June,
A)
Jind
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B)
Karnal
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C)
Muzaffarnagar
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D)
All of these
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 188) A decision was taken by Indian Railways before celebration of first International Yoga Day that one train renamed to Yoga Express. Which train is that
A)
Kalinga Utkal
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B)
Haridwar Mail
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C)
Haridwar Express
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D)
Valsad Haridwar Express
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E)
Kalka Express
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question_answer 189) The Election Commission (EC) suspended the recognition of PA Sangmas National Peoples Party for failing to file its election expenditure statements. It is an alliance partner of which party?
A)
NDA
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B)
UPA
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C)
AAP
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D)
APA
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 190) Directions: Find the odd word/letter/ number pair from the given alternatives.
A)
1131
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B)
125
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C)
343
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D)
729
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E)
512
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question_answer 191) Directions: Find the odd word/letter/ number pair from the given alternatives.
A)
3, 5, 7, 9
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B)
5, 7, 9, 11
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C)
4, 6, 8, 10
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D)
2, 5, 9, 10
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E)
10, 12, 14, 16
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question_answer 192) Directions: Find the odd word/letter/ number pair from the given alternatives.
A)
45
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B)
63
done
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C)
108
done
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D)
56
done
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E)
81
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question_answer 193) Directions: Find the odd word/letter/ number pair from the given alternatives.
A)
BDEF
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B)
QSTU
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C)
IKLM
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D)
GHJK
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E)
ACDE
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question_answer 194) Directions: Find the odd word/letter/ number pair from the given alternatives.
A)
NOL
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B)
DEB
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C)
RTP
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D)
HIF
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E)
FGD
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question_answer 195) Directions: Find the odd word/letter/ number pair from the given alternatives.
A)
Mars
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B)
Jupiter
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C)
Earth
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D)
Comet
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E)
Mercury
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question_answer 196) Which word comes last in the dictionary? Bonanza, Beautiful, Balance, Bottle, Bolt
A)
Bottle
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B)
Bonanza
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C)
Beautiful
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D)
Balance
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E)
Bolt
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question_answer 197) Which word comes third in the dictionary? Seize, Season, Secret, Seed, Shabby
A)
Seed
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B)
Seize
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C)
Season
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D)
Secret
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E)
Shabby
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question_answer 198) Direction: In this question, series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. AFC, BHD, CJE, ?
A)
DLH
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B)
DLF
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C)
DHF
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D)
DLJ
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 199) Recently, India signed a Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) with which country for Development of Vaccines?
A)
Belarus
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B)
Japan
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C)
The Netherlands
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D)
Sri Lanka
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 200) Recently, a Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) was also signed between Indian Railways and whom for a joint research on material and engineering?
A)
IIT - BHU
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B)
IIT - Delhi
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C)
IIT - Kharagpur
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D)
IIT - Chennai
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E)
HT - Guwahati
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question_answer 201) Which telecom major launched 4G services in Mysore in June 2015 that will allow its customers to access high speed access to the Internet?
A)
Airtel
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B)
BSNL
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C)
Vodafone
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D)
Idea
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E)
Uninor
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question_answer 202) Which country has unveiled the worlds first ATM with facial recognition technology in June, 2015?
A)
Japan
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B)
China
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C)
The USA
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D)
India
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E)
Jermany
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question_answer 203) Delhi Metro to the IRENA Renewable Energy Target Setting report, how many countries have adopted at least one type of renewable energy target in 2014, up from just 43 countries in 2005?
A)
146
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B)
164
done
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C)
126
done
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D)
162
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E)
164
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question_answer 204) Which countrys doctors have successfully performed the worlds first skull-scalp transplant from a human donor on a 55-years -old man who suffered a large head wound from cancer treatment in a major breakthrough in transplant surgery?
A)
The UK
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B)
The USA
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C)
Japan
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D)
India
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E)
Russia
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question_answer 205) ZTO, YSN, XRM, ?
A)
WTL
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B)
WPL
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C)
BHM
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D)
WQL
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E)
ABC
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question_answer 206) 6, 12, 20, 30, 42,?
A)
46
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B)
48
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C)
56
done
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D)
50
done
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E)
58
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question_answer 207) SELECTION is coded as 856539742 and SESSION is coded as
A)
8397428
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B)
8688472
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C)
8588742
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D)
8588427
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E)
824641
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question_answer 208) Which one of the given responses can be added to all the given letters to make meaningful words? SL___,PR___,TR___,BR____,S___
A)
_OUR
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B)
EEN
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C)
_EEP
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D)
_ ICK
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E)
_NOR
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question_answer 209) Sushma scored more than Deepak. Rushil scored as much as Ansh. Samhita scored less than Vasavi. Deepak scored more than Rushil. Vasavi scored less than Ansh. Who scored the lpsvest?
A)
Vasavi
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B)
Samhita
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C)
Deepak
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D)
Ansh
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E)
Sushma
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question_answer 210) TOOLS is written as STOOL and WORDS is written as
A)
SROWD
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B)
ROWDS
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C)
SWORD
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D)
WORSD
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E)
DORSW
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question_answer 211) In a house there are eight 40 W bulbs which are burning for 5 h a day and four 80 W bulbs burning for 10 h a day. If electricity costs 12 per kilowatt per hour, what is the monthly bill?
A)
Rs. 328
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B)
Rs. 216
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C)
Rs. 268
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D)
Rs. 288
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E)
Rs. 346
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question_answer 212) Identify the wrong number in the given series. 21, 45, 72, 36, 12, 54, 27
A)
27
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B)
45
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C)
36
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D)
12
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E)
21
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question_answer 213)
Directions: In these question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
A)
5
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B)
9
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C)
3
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D)
4
done
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E)
9
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question_answer 214) Directions: In these question, select the missing number from the given alternatives. \[\begin{matrix} 7 & 9 & 4 \\ 6 & 8 & ? \\ 8 & 2 & 8 \\ 336 & 144 & 192 \\ \end{matrix}\]
A)
4
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B)
5
done
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C)
6
done
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D)
7
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E)
10
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question_answer 215) Directions: In these question, select the missing number from the given alternatives. \[\begin{matrix} 7 & 3 & 3 \\ 3 & 5 & 8 \\ 6 & 9 & ? \\ 126 & 135 & 168 \\ \end{matrix}\]
A)
9
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B)
8
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C)
7
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D)
6
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E)
11
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question_answer 216) If \[\,\times \] stands for \[\,+\] , \[\,\div \]stands for \[\,\,\times ,\,\,\,-\] stands for + and + stands for \[\,-,\]then which of the following is correct?
A)
\[40\div 8+10\times 5-8=47\]
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B)
\[40\times 8\div 10+5-8=123\]
done
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C)
\[40\div 8-10\times 5+8=314\]
done
clear
D)
\[40\div 8-10\times 5+8=-\,35\]
done
clear
E)
\[40+8-10\times 5+8=13\]
done
clear
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question_answer 217) In a row of houses, the house with a terrace is 25th from left end and 4th from the right end. How many houses are there in the row?
A)
29
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B)
26
done
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C)
27
done
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D)
28
done
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E)
30
done
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question_answer 218) Kunal starts jhouney straight towards East by car. After going 75 km, he turns his car to the left and goes 25 km straight. Again, he turns to the left, goes a distance of 40 km straight, again he turns to the left and moves a distance of 25 km. How far is he from the starting point?
A)
150 km
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B)
35 km
done
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C)
25 km
done
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D)
50 km
done
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E)
47 km
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question_answer 219) 6 persons are playing a card game. Suresh is facing Raghubir who is left the Ajay and to the right of Pramod, Ajau is to the left of Dheeraj exchanges his seat with Yogendra and Pramod with Raghubir, who will be sitting to the left of Dhiraj?
A)
Ajay
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B)
Yogendra
done
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C)
Raghubir
done
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D)
Suresh
done
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E)
Ajau
done
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question_answer 220) Raju travels 8 km to the North, turns left and travels 4 km and then again turns right and cover another 5 km. Then, he turns to right and travels for 4 km. How far is he from the staring point?
A)
21 km
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B)
9 km
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C)
13 km
done
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D)
17 km
done
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E)
18 km
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question_answer 221) Solve the equation using the below given values and answer in numeric values. = 10, = 6, \[\Delta \] = 15, O = 3, = 9, (\[\Delta \]+ ) \[\div \] O = ?
A)
10
done
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B)
6
done
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C)
12
done
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D)
8
done
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E)
14
done
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question_answer 222) Direction: Choose the word which most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold used in the passage. Pounded
A)
Weighed
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B)
Released
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C)
Paid
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D)
Attended
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E)
Caressed
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question_answer 223) Direction: Choose the word which most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold used in the passage. Mercilessly
A)
Calmly
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B)
Compassionately
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C)
Mildly
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D)
Forgivably
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E)
Sympathetically
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question_answer 224) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has said recently that it will provide navigational support to the countrys Railways through which system?
A)
GAGAN
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B)
GSAT8
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C)
GSAT10
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D)
GPS
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E)
GSAT9
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question_answer 225) Who won French Open womens singles title by defeating Lucie Safarova of Czechoslovakia, recently?
A)
Bethanie Mattek-Sands
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B)
Serena Williams
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C)
Casey Dellacqua
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D)
Yaroslava Shvedova
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E)
Martina hingis
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question_answer 226)
Directions: In these questions, you are given the address of a town followed by four alternatives of these only one matches while the other have some mistakes. You have to choose exactly the same as the given a one as your answer. Ms. Aruna Devi, 418/3 New Housing Colony, Rajpur Road, Dehradun 248001
A)
Ms. Aruna Devi, 418/3 New Housing Colony, Raipur Road, Dehradun 248001
done
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B)
Ms. Aruna Devi, 418/3 New Housing Colony, Rajpur Road, Dehradun 248101
done
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C)
Miss. Aruna Devi, 418/3 New Housing Colony, Rajpur Road, Dehradun 248001
done
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D)
Ms. Aruna Devi, 418/3 New Housing Colony, Rajpur Road, Dehradun 248001
done
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E)
Ms. Arona Devi, 418/3 New Housing Colony, Rajpur Road Dehradun 248001
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 227) Directions: In these questions, you are given the address of a town followed by four alternatives of these only one matches while the other have some mistakes. You have to choose exactly the same as the given a one as your answer. Mrs. J Sympson Braun and Braun Co. Ltd. 12, Kenneth Apartements Vasant Vihar, New Delhi 110020
A)
Mrs. J. Sympson Braun and Braun Co. Ltd. 12, Kenneth Apartements Vasant Vihar, New Delhi 110000
done
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B)
n Mrs. J Sympson Braun and Braun Co.Ltd. 12, Kenneth Apartements Vasant Vihar, New Delhi 110020
done
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C)
Mrs. J Sympson Braun and Braun Co. Ltd, 12, Keneth Apartments Vasant Vihar, New Delhi
done
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D)
Mrs. J Sympson Braun and Braun Co.Ltd. 12, Kenneth Apartements Vasant Vihar, New Delhi 110020
done
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E)
Mr. J Sympson Braun and Braun Co.Ltd. 12, Kenneth Apartements Vasant Vihar, New Delhi 110020
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 228)
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions. Below are given some roll numbers of candidates registered at different centres for an examination. The first two digits from the left stand for the centre code and the next four for the serial number of the candidates registered at the centre. 061391 041631 031863 069234 024268 046198 059721 011432 051491 010028 020063 046523 011432 050451 02978 040028
In which centre does the serial number 9234 occur?
A)
05
done
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B)
02
done
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C)
06
done
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D)
01
done
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E)
09
done
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question_answer 229)
Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions. Below are given some roll numbers of candidates registered at different centres for an examination. The first two digits from the left stand for the centre code and the next four for the serial number of the candidates registered at the centre. 061391 041631 031863 069234 024268 046198 059721 011432 051491 010028 020063 046523 011432 050451 02978 040028
How many candidates belong to centre 04?
A)
2
done
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B)
4
done
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C)
3
done
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D)
6
done
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E)
0
done
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question_answer 230) Suppose you are a team leader and some discussion arose.
A)
You believe in overall participation
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B)
You listen to other of view
done
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C)
You consider your ideas are supreme
done
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D)
You should be reluctant to accept the views of others
done
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E)
All of the above
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question_answer 231) When someone directly criticises your behaviors how will you behave?
A)
Ready to close up and stop listening
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B)
Become upset about it
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C)
Carefully listen to their opinion
done
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D)
Think of ways to change your behavior
done
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E)
Nothing
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question_answer 232) Who was sworn-in as the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh in June, 2015?
A)
Jyoti Prasad Rajkhowa
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B)
Nirbhay Sharma
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C)
K. Sreedhar Rao
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D)
Aziz Qureshi
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 233) When is world Environment Day observed?
A)
June 5
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B)
July 5
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C)
August 5
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D)
September 5
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E)
June 9
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question_answer 234) Which film won the best film category award of UFA awards?
A)
Queen
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B)
PK
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C)
Haider
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D)
Ek Villain
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E)
Marry Kom
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question_answer 235) Which eminent artists in the field of music won Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards (Akademi Puraskar) for the year 2014?
A)
Adayar Janardanan
done
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B)
Uma Dogra
done
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C)
Amusana Devi
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D)
Ashwini Bhide Deshpande
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E)
Dhrubo Ghosh
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 236) Directions: Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Reiterated
A)
Pleaded
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B)
Regurgitated
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C)
Protested
done
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D)
Repeated
done
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E)
Recapitulated
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question_answer 237) Directions: Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Extreme
A)
End
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B)
High
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C)
Severe
done
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D)
Serious
done
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E)
Moderate
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question_answer 238) Directions: Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the SAME in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Reluctant
A)
Disinclined
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B)
Opposed
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C)
Against
done
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D)
Resistant
done
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E)
None of these
done
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question_answer 239)
Out of 40 students, 16 go to Karinada and 27 to English classes. If 5 students overlap, select the venn diagram which shows. 1. Number of students who neither attend Kannada or English classes. 2. Number of students who attend only English or only Kannada classes. A = Kannada .classes, B = English classes
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
E)
done
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question_answer 240) Select the venn diagram that correctly shows the I relationship. Coffee : Sugar : Tea
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
clear
E)
done
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question_answer 241)
A piece of paper is folded and cut, shown below in the question figures. From the given, answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened. Question Figures Answer Figures
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
clear
E)
None of these
done
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question_answer 242)
If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure? Questions Figure Answer Figures
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
clear
E)
None of these
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question_answer 243)
Which answer figure will complete the question figure? Question Figure Answer Figures
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
clear
E)
None of these
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question_answer 244)
A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II from 5 to-9; A-letters from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by column number For e.g., A can be represented by 12, 24 etc. R can be represented by 57, 76 etc. Identify the set for the given words.
A)
44, 32, 21, 03
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B)
32, 31, 02, 04
done
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C)
20, 43, 33, 11
done
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D)
13, 12, 14, 10
done
clear
E)
13, 31, 21, 03
done
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question_answer 245)
From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded. Question Figure Answer Figures
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
clear
E)
None of these
done
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question_answer 246) \[\begin{matrix} 8 & 10 & 17 \\ 11 & ? & 10 \\ 16 & 11 & 8 \\ \end{matrix}\]
A)
18
done
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B)
10
done
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C)
12
done
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D)
14
done
clear
E)
18
done
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question_answer 247) \[\begin{matrix} 4 & 10 & 16 \\ 6 & 12 & 18 \\ 18 & ? & 20 \\ \end{matrix}\]
A)
14
done
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B)
15
done
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C)
12
done
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D)
13
done
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E)
11
done
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question_answer 248) A and B start walking in opposite directions. A covers 3 km and B covers 4 km. Then, A turns right and walks 4 km while B turns left and walks 3 km. How far is each from the starting point?
A)
10 km
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B)
8 km
done
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C)
5 km
done
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D)
4 km
done
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E)
12 km
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question_answer 249) One evening before sunset, two friends Raman and Arjun were talking to each other face to face. If Ramans shadow was exactly to his left side, which direction was Arjun facing?
A)
West
done
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B)
East
done
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C)
North
done
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D)
South
done
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E)
North east
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question_answer 250) 1 : 1 :: 10 : ?
A)
12
done
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B)
110
done
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C)
210
done
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D)
1000
done
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E)
215
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question_answer 251) A man starts from his house and walks 8 km northwards, turns left and walks 6 km, turns right again and walks 5 km. In which direction is he walking now?
A)
North
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B)
East
done
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C)
South
done
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D)
West
done
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E)
South-west
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question_answer 252) A man walks southwards and covers 10 distance. He then turns to his right and walks 15 km, after which he turns to his right again and walks 10 km. What is the shortest distance from his start to end point?
A)
35 km
done
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B)
10\[\sqrt{2}\]km
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C)
10 km
done
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D)
15 km
done
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E)
18 km
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question_answer 253) \[\sqrt{?}+24=\sqrt{2209}\]
A)
23
done
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B)
529
done
clear
C)
29
done
clear
D)
27
done
clear
E)
None of these
done
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question_answer 254) Directions: In the follow questions, select the related word / letters / number from the given alternatives. ABCDE : FGHIJ :: PQRST : ?
A)
TSRQP
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B)
UVWXY
done
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C)
KLMNO
done
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D)
EDCBA
done
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E)
ABEFH
done
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question_answer 255) Directions: In the follow questions, select the related word / letters / number from the given alternatives. FGEHJ : BCADF :: VWUXZ : ?
A)
NKLMQ
done
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B)
GFBAC
done
clear
C)
HIJKL
done
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D)
OPNQS
done
clear
E)
OPNAS
done
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question_answer 256) Directions: In the follow questions, select the related word / letters / number from the given alternatives. Tadpole : ? :: Caterpillar : Butterfly
A)
Crow
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B)
Goose
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C)
Fish
done
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D)
Frog
done
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E)
Pigoen
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question_answer 257) Directions: In the follow questions, select the related word / letters / number from the given alternatives. Cougar : South America :: Okapi : ?
A)
India
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B)
Central Africa
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C)
North America
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D)
Pakistan
done
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E)
Sri Lanka
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question_answer 258)
According to data released by the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy on June 4, 2015, consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has grabbed the number one position in solar power in the country. 2. Rajasthan is at second number with 1000 MW installed capacity. 3. The solar power cost was lesser as compare to cost of power from thermal sources.
Which of the .statements given above is/are correct?
A)
Only 1
done
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B)
Only 2
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C)
1 and 2
done
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D)
2 and 3
done
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E)
All of these
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question_answer 259) India and Kazakhstan launched the first exploratory drilling at Satpayev oil block. Which of the following Indian company is involved in drilling at Satpayev oil block?
A)
Reliance Petroleum
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B)
ONGC Videsh Limited
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C)
Indian Oil
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D)
Bharat Petroleum
done
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E)
Esser oil limited
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question_answer 260) Which of the following Indian companies has inked a pact with Airbus Helicopters to form a joint venture company to make helicopters in India?
A)
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
done
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B)
Mahindra Defence System
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C)
Defence Research and Development Organisation
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D)
Ashok Leyland
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E)
Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited
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question_answer 261)
With respect of NITI Aayog, which of the following statements is/are true? 1. Sindhushree Khullar is the first CEO of NITI Aayog. 2. Arivnd Panagariya is the Vice - Chairman of the NITI Aayog. 3. Economist Bibek Debroy and VK Sarawat are full time members.
Codes
A)
1 and 2
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B)
Only 2
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C)
2 and 3
done
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D)
Only 1
done
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E)
All of these
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question_answer 262) acme : mace :: face : ?
A)
cefa
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B)
cfae
done
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C)
cfea
done
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D)
afce
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 263) NEWS : 14, 5, 23, 19 : : PAPER : ?
A)
16. 5, 16, 1, 18
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B)
18, 5, 16, 1, 16
done
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C)
16, 1, 16, 5, 18
done
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D)
32, 2, 32, 10, 36
done
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E)
18, 5, 18, 1, 16
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question_answer 264) 386 : 383 :: 517: ?
A)
514
done
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B)
571
done
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C)
715
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D)
512
done
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E)
511
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question_answer 265) 63 : 21 : : 27 : ?
A)
6
done
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B)
9
done
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C)
1
done
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D)
3
done
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E)
3
done
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question_answer 266) Directions: Select the one which is different from the other four responses.
A)
7-1.45
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B)
6-108
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C)
5-75
done
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D)
4-48
done
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E)
12-60
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question_answer 267) Directions: Select the one which is different from the other four responses.
A)
17-142
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B)
71-34
done
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C)
41-28
done
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D)
14-28
done
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E)
21-24
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question_answer 268) Directions: Select the one which is different from the other four responses.
A)
3, 5, 7, 9
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B)
5, 7, 9, 11
done
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C)
4, 6, 8, 10
done
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D)
2, 5, 9, 10
done
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E)
11, 13, 15, 17
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question_answer 269) Directions: Select the one which is different from the other four responses.
A)
8662
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B)
5731
done
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C)
4628
done
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D)
2864
done
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E)
4264
done
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question_answer 270) Directions: Select the one which is different from the other four responses.
A)
Tagore
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B)
Raman
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C)
Bhaskara
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D)
Khurana
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E)
Sen
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question_answer 271)
Arrange the following words in a meaningful order: 1. Grapes 2. Vineyard 3. Whisky 4. Brewing 5. Distillation
A)
2, 1, 5, 4, 3
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B)
3, 5, 4, 2, 1
done
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C)
2, 1, 4, 3, 5
done
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D)
2, 1, 4, 5, 3
done
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E)
5, 1, 3, 2, 1
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question_answer 272) Directions: Choose the corn alternative from the given responses that will complete the series. ?, PSV, EHK, TWZ, ILO
A)
BEH
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B)
IMP
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C)
ACG
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D)
ADG
done
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E)
FEG
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question_answer 273) Directions: Choose the corn alternative from the given responses that will complete the series. 78, 86, ?, 88, 82, 90
A)
76
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B)
84
done
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C)
83
done
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D)
80
done
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E)
72
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question_answer 274) Directions: Choose the corn alternative from the given responses that will complete the series. CEG, JLN, QSU, ......?
A)
QQS
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B)
TVX
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C)
HJL
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D)
UVW
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question_answer 275) Select the letters that complete the first word and begin the second from the given alternatives PLAT (?) ATION
A)
TENT
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B)
FORM
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C)
TERR
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D)
EAU
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E)
ROM
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question_answer 276)
Consider the following statements regarding women milk bank Jeevan Dhara 1. Andhra Pradesh government recently open women milk bank Jeevan Dhara 2. The move is aimed at curbing the high infant mortality Crate of Andhra Pradesh. 3. The bank would store milk from donating lactating mothers that can be used for feeding infants who are deprived of it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
A)
1 and 2
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B)
2 and 3
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C)
Only 1
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D)
Only 2
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 277) Who among the following Indians has been conferred with highest French Civilian Award Commandeur de la Legion d Honneur (the Legion of Honour)?
A)
Franois Richier
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B)
Pranab Mukherjee
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C)
Sayed Haider Raza
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D)
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
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E)
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
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question_answer 278)
Consider the following statements about MUDRA Bank: 1. It has been set - up to provide loans to the small entrepreneurs. 2. Currently it is being operationalised as a subsidiary of Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) 3. It has received a budgetary support of 20000 crore 4. This bank would be registering and regulating Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 and 2
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B)
1, 3 and 4
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C)
1 and 4
done
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D)
Only 1
done
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E)
All of these
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question_answer 279) \[48099\div \sqrt{?}=167\times 9\]
A)
1646
done
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B)
1432
done
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C)
1024
done
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D)
1208
done
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 280) Rustom- 2 is a
A)
light weight aircraft
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B)
unmanned combat air vehicle
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C)
both A and B
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D)
air - to - air missile
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E)
anti-missile tank
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question_answer 281)
Consider the following regarding 35th National Games : 1. Sachin Tendulkar was selected as the Goodwill Ambassador for the 35the National Games 2. 35th National Gams of India were held across seven districts in Kerala 3. The Greot Hornbill or Great Indian Horbill, the state bird of Kerala, is the official Mascot of the 35th National Games. 4. 36th National Games will be hosted by Asom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 and 2
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B)
2 and 3
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C)
1, 2 and 3
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D)
All of these
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E)
Only 1
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question_answer 282) Who among the following has been named Ambassador for 2015 ICC World Cup?
A)
Sachin Tendulkar
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B)
Ricky Ponting
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C)
Brian Lara
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D)
Adam Gilchrist
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E)
Virat Kohli
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question_answer 283) Persons can fill, 35 boxes in 7 days. How many persons are required to fill 65 boxes in 5 days?
A)
39
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B)
49
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C)
33
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D)
36
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E)
None of the above
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question_answer 284) A man travels a certain distance at the rate of 10 km/h and returns to the same point at the rate of 15km/h. His average rate for the whole journey is
A)
12km/h
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B)
\[12\frac{1}{2}\]km/h
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C)
13km/h
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D)
\[13\frac{1}{2}\]km/h
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 285) A saree is sold at a profit of 20%. If both the cost price and selling price are Rs. 100 less, the profit would be 5% more. The cost price is
A)
Rs. 100
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B)
Rs. 200
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C)
Rs. 300
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D)
Rs. 500
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 286) Which of the following country won the Nongfu Spring Snookers World Cup 2015?
A)
China
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B)
Japan
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C)
Scotland
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D)
Germany
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E)
Australia
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question_answer 287)
Satellite Tracking System set-up in Himachal Pradesh. Consider the following about this : 1. Himachal Pradesh has set-up satellite tracking system to check the forest fire incident during summer season. 2. In case of any fire incident, the forest officials will immediately receive SMS on their mobile 3. Apart from this, the departments does not launch any awareness capaign across the state to protect forests.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A)
Only 1
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B)
Only 2
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C)
1 and 3
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D)
1 and 2
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E)
All of these
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question_answer 288) Which of the following two ingredients were responsible for the ban of Maggi in India?
A)
Mercury, Lead
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B)
Lead, Mono Sodium Glutamate
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C)
Sodium and Mercury
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D)
None of the above
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E)
Only Mercury
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question_answer 289) It is estimated that out of the total global warming the relative contribution of \[C{{O}_{2}},\]\[C{{H}_{2}},\]\[CFC\]and \[{{N}_{2}}O\] are found respectively.
A)
6%, 20%, 14% and 60%
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B)
6%, 14%, 20% and 60%
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C)
60%, 20%, 14% and 6%
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D)
20%, 20%, 14% and 6%
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E)
8%, 14%, 3% and 3%
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question_answer 290) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. AHL, ?, CFJ, DEI
A)
BGK
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B)
BKG
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C)
GKB
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D)
GBK
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E)
BFG
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question_answer 291) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ?
A)
23
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B)
26
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C)
20
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D)
22
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E)
18
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question_answer 292) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 10, 33, 102, 309, ?
A)
1030
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B)
1050
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C)
928
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D)
930
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E)
91
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question_answer 293) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. CO3KP, DO4KQ, EO5KR, FO6KS, ?
A)
GO7KP
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B)
GO6KT
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C)
GO6KP
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D)
GO7KT
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E)
GO6KR
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question_answer 294) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 31, 13, 45, 54, ?, 63
A)
36
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B)
54
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C)
61
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D)
58
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E)
63
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question_answer 295) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 8, 27, 64, ?
A)
216
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B)
224
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C)
64
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D)
125
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E)
343
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question_answer 296) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. CEG, IKM, OQS, ?
A)
VXZ
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B)
TVX
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C)
TUV
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D)
UWY
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E)
WXY
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question_answer 297) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. AZ, BY, CX,?
A)
EW
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B)
EU
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C)
GH
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D)
DW
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E)
GX
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question_answer 298) Directions: In the following questions, a-series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 285, 253,221, 189, ?
A)
122
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B)
153
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C)
157
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D)
151
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E)
159
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question_answer 299) The energy releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called
A)
Glycolysis
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B)
Aerobic respiration
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C)
Fermentation
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D)
Photo respiration
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E)
None of these
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question_answer 300) Who discovered recombinant DNA (RDNA) technology?
A)
JD Watson
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B)
Sutton and Boveri
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C)
Stanely Cohen and Herbert Boyer
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D)
Har Gobind Khorana
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E)
Rudolf Diesel
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