question_answer 1) The gas in a vessel is subjected to a pressure of 20 atm at a temperature \[27{}^\circ C\]. The pressure of gas in a vessel after one-half of the gas is released from the vessel and the temperature of the remainder is raised by \[50{}^\circ C\] is
A)
8.5 atm
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B)
10.8 atm
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C)
11.7 atm
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D)
17 atm
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question_answer 2) A certain radioactive substance has a half-life of 5 years. Thus, for a nucleus in a sample of the elements, the probability of decay in 10 years is
A)
50%
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B)
75%
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C)
100%
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D)
60%
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question_answer 3) A reversible engine working between the temperature limits of 600 K and 1200 K receives 50 kJ of heat. The work done by the engine will be
A)
50 kJ
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B)
100 kJ
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C)
25 kJ
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D)
-25 kJ
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question_answer 4) A particle moving, with a velocity equal to 0.4 m/s is subjected to an acceleration of 0.15 \[m\text{/}{{s}^{2}}\] for 2 s in a direction at right angles to its direction of motion. The resultant velocity is
A)
0.7 m/s
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B)
0.5 m/s
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C)
0.1 m/s
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D)
between 0.7 and 0.1 m/s
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question_answer 5)
In the figure, the equivalence capacitance between A and B is
A)
3.75\[\mu F\]
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B)
5.25\[\mu F\]
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C)
6.5\[\mu F\]
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D)
10.5\[\mu F\]
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question_answer 6) A scooter of mass 120 kg is moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h, the force required to stop the vehicle in 10 s is
A)
360 N
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B)
720 N
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C)
180 N
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D)
120\[\times \]108 N
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question_answer 7) In a shunted ammeter, only 10% of current passes through the galvanometer of resistance G. The resistance of the shunt is
A)
\[9\,G\]
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B)
\[10\,G\]
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C)
\[\frac{G}{9}\]
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D)
\[\frac{G}{10}\]
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question_answer 8) Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 100 kg are separated by a distance of 2 m. The gravitational potential at the mid-point on the line joining the bodies is
A)
\[7.3\times {{10}^{-7}}J\text{/}kg\]
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B)
\[7.3\times {{10}^{-8}}J\text{/}kg\]
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C)
\[7.3\times {{10}^{-9}}J\text{/}kg\]
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D)
\[7.3\times {{10}^{-6}}J\text{/}kg\]
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question_answer 9) The decay constant A. of a radioactive sample is the probability of decay of an atom in unit time. Then,
A)
\[\lambda \] decreases as the atom becomes older
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B)
\[\lambda \] is independent of the age of atoms
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C)
\[\lambda \] increases as the age of atom
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D)
behaviour of \[\lambda \] with time depends on the nature of the activity
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question_answer 10) The average power dissipation is pure inductance is
A)
\[\frac{1}{2}L{{I}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[2\,L{{I}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{4}\,L{{I}^{2}}\]
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D)
zero
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question_answer 11) \[n\] identical mercury droplets charged to the same potential V coalesce to form a single bigger drop. The potential of new drop will be
A)
\[\frac{V}{n}\]
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B)
\[nV\]
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C)
\[n{{V}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[{{n}^{2/3}}V\]
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question_answer 12) For protecting sensitive equipment from external magnetic field, it should be
A)
wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
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B)
placed inside an iron core
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C)
surrounded with we shear
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D)
placed inside aluminium core
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question_answer 13) The potential energy of a charged parallel plate capacitor is\[{{U}_{0}}.\] If a slab of dielectric constant \[K\] is increased between the plates, then the new potential energy will be
A)
\[\frac{{{U}_{0}}}{K}\]
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B)
\[{{U}_{0}}{{K}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{{{U}_{0}}}{{{K}^{2}}}\]
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D)
\[U_{0}^{2}\]
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question_answer 14) Dimension of self-inductance are
A)
\[[ML{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-3}}]\]
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B)
\[[M{{L}^{-2}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-1}}]\]
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C)
\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-2}}]\]
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D)
\[[M{{L}^{-2}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-2}}]\]
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question_answer 15) The increase in length of a wire on stretching is 0.025%. If its poisons ratio is 0.4, then the percentage decrease in the diameter is
A)
0.01
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B)
0.02
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C)
0.03
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D)
0.04
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question_answer 16) The maximum height reached by a projectile is 4m. The horizontal range is 12m. Velocity of projection in \[m{{s}^{-1}},\]is (g = acceleration due to gravity)
A)
\[5\sqrt{\frac{g}{2}}\]
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B)
\[3\frac{g}{\sqrt{2}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{3}\frac{g}{\sqrt{2}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{5}\sqrt{\frac{g}{2}}\]
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question_answer 17) Four particles, each of mass 1 kg, are placed at the corners of a square of side 1m in the X-Y plane. If the point of intersection of the diagonals of the square, is taken as the origin the coordinates of the centre of mass are
A)
(1, 1)
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B)
(-1, 1)
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C)
(1, -1)
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D)
(0, 0)
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question_answer 18) Two rain drops reach of the earth with their terminal velocities in the ratio 4 : 9. The ratio of their radii is,
A)
4 : 9
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B)
2 : 3
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C)
3 : 2
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D)
9 : 4
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question_answer 19) Two bodies of same shape, same size and same radiating power have emissivitys 0.2 and 0.8. The ratio of their temperatures is
A)
\[\sqrt{3}:1\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{2}:1\]
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C)
\[1:\sqrt{5}\]
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D)
\[1:\sqrt{8}\]
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question_answer 20) Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with initial velocity\[4\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]. The cross-sectional area of the tap is A. The flow is steady and pressure is constant throughout the stream of water. The distance h vertically below the tap, where the cross-sectional area of the stream becomes \[\left( \frac{2}{3} \right)\]A, is (g = 10\[m\text{/}{{s}^{2}}\])
A)
0.5 m
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B)
1 m
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C)
1.5 m
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D)
2.2 m
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question_answer 21) A short magnetic needle is pivoted in a uniform magnetic field of induction 1 T. Now, simultaneously another magnetic field of induction \[\sqrt{3}\]T is applied at right angles to the first field, the needle deflects through an angle 8 whose value is
A)
\[30{}^\circ \]
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B)
\[45{}^\circ \]
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C)
\[90{}^\circ \]
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D)
\[60{}^\circ \]
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question_answer 22) The potential difference between two parallel plates is\[{{10}^{4}}V\]. If the plates are separated by 0.5 cm, the force on an electron between the plates is
A)
\[32\times {{10}^{-13}}N\]
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B)
\[0.32\times {{10}^{-13}}N\]
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C)
\[0.032\times {{10}^{-13}}N\]
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D)
\[3.2\times {{10}^{-13}}N\]
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question_answer 23) The diameter of objective of a telescope is 1 m. Its resolving limit for the light of wavelength 4538\[\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\], will be
A)
\[5.54\times {{10}^{-7}}\text{rad}\]
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B)
\[2.54\times {{10}^{-4}}\text{rad}\]
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C)
\[6.54\times {{10}^{-7}}\text{rad}\]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 24) A ball is falling freely from a height. When, it reaches 10 m height from the ground its velocity is \[{{v}_{0}}\]. It collides with the ground and loses 50% of its energy and rises back to height of 10 m. Then, the velocity\[{{v}_{0}}\]is
A)
7 m/s
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B)
10 m/s
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C)
14 m/s
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D)
16 m/s
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question_answer 25) A fly-wheel of mass 25 kg has a radius of 0.2m It is making 240 rpm. What is the torque necessary to bring to rest in 20 s?
A)
\[2\pi \,N\text{-}m\]
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B)
\[0.4\pi \,N\text{-}m\]
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C)
\[\frac{2}{\pi }\,N\text{-}m\]
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D)
\[4\pi \,N\text{-}m\]
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question_answer 26) Given the following sequence of reactions,\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}I\xrightarrow{NaCN}A\xrightarrow[Partial\,\,hydrolysis]{O{{H}^{-}}}B\]\[\xrightarrow[{}]{B{{r}_{2}}/NaOH}C\] The major product C is
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}\underset{O}{\mathop{\underset{\mathbf{|}\,\,\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-NHBr\]
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C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}-COON{{H}_{4}}\]
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{O}{\mathop{\underset{|\,\,|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-NB{{r}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 27) Nylon-66 is obtained by the condensation polymerisation of
A)
adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
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B)
phenol and formaldehyde
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C)
terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
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D)
sebacic acid and hexamethylene
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question_answer 28) The final product in the following sequence of reaction is\[CH\equiv CH\xrightarrow[{}]{NaN{{H}_{2}}}A\xrightarrow[{}]{C{{H}_{3}}Br}B\]
A)
\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[HC\equiv C-C{{H}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-C{{H}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]
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question_answer 29)
The IUPAC name of following compound is
A)
N, N-dimethyl- 3-methyl pentan-3-amine
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B)
3-N, N-dimethyl, 3-methyl pentanamine
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C)
3-methyl-3-N, N-dimethyl pentane
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D)
3-methyl-3-N, N-dimethyl butane
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question_answer 30) Which of the following compounds is known as the antisterility factor?
A)
\[\alpha \text{-}\]tocopherol
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B)
Retinol
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C)
Calciferol
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D)
Pyridoxine
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question_answer 31) A 400 mg iron capsule contains 100 mg of ferrous fumarate, \[{{(CHCOO)}_{2}}Fe\,.\] The percentage of iron present in it is approximately
A)
33%
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B)
25%
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C)
14%
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D)
8%
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question_answer 32) Which of the following has maximum dipole moment?
A)
\[NC{{l}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[NBr\]
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C)
\[N{{H}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[N{{I}_{3}}\]
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question_answer 33)
Gases X, Y, Z, P and Q have the van der Waals constants a and b (in CGS units) as shown below. X Y Z P Q A 6 6 20 0.05 30 B 0.025 0.15 0.1 0.02 0.2
The gas with the higher critical temperature is
A)
P
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B)
Q
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C)
Y
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D)
X
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question_answer 34) The incorrect statement among the following is
A)
the first ionisation potential of Al is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg
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B)
the second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Na
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C)
the first ionisation potential of Na is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg
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D)
the third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than that of Al
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question_answer 35)
When \[NaN{{O}_{3}}\] is heated in a closed vessel, \[{{O}_{2}}\]is liberated and \[NaN{{O}_{2}}\]is left behind. At equilibrium, I. addition of\[NaN{{O}_{3}}\]favours forward reaction II. addition of \[NaN{{O}_{2}}\]favours backward reaction III. increasing pressure favours reverse reaction IV. increasing temperature favours forward reaction Correct options are
A)
I, II and III
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B)
II, III and IV
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C)
I, III and IV
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D)
I, II, III and IV
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question_answer 36) If 900 J/g of heat is exchanged at boiling point of water then increase in entropy is
A)
43.4 J/mol
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B)
87.2 J/mol
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C)
900 J/mol
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D)
zero
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question_answer 37) A solid is a compound of group 1 element and it gives a bright red colour in the flame test. The solid is
A)
LiBr
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B)
CsCI
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C)
KCI
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D)
NaCI
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question_answer 38) Mixture of sugar and common salt is separate by crystallisation by dissolving in
A)
\[{{H}_{2}}O\]
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B)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]
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C)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 39) Identify the product C in the following series of reactions,\[\text{Glucose}\xrightarrow{HCN}A\xrightarrow{{{H}_{2}}O}B\xrightarrow{HI}C\]
A)
heptanoic acid
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B)
hexanoic acid
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C)
\[\alpha \text{-}\]methyl caproic acid
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 40)
The final product Y is medicine. Which of the following is incorrect regarding V ?
A)
It has analgesic as well as antipyretic properties
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B)
It helps to prevent heart attack
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C)
It has anti-blood clotting action
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D)
It suppresses the gastric anomalies
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question_answer 41) Optical isomerism is shown by octahedral complexes
A)
having all monodentate ligands
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B)
having all the three bidentate ligands
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C)
having two trans bidentate ligands
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D)
having two trans monodentate ligands
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question_answer 42)
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\overset{\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{\mathbf{|}}{\overset{\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
done
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\overset{\mathbf{|}}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]
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question_answer 43) The Brownian movement is due to
A)
enthalpy change during the formation of colloids
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B)
attractive forces between the colloidal particles and the molecules of dispersion medium
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C)
the impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
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D)
the movement of positively charged colloidal particle to negatively charged particle
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question_answer 44) The standard reduction potential,\[E{}^\circ \]for the half-reactions are as \[Zn\,\,\,\,Z{{n}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}};\] \[E{}^\circ =+\,0.76\,V\] \[Fe\,\,\,\,F{{e}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}};\]\[E{}^\circ =+\,0.41\,V\] The \[E_{cell}^{\text{o}}\] for the cell formed by these two electrodes is
A)
- 0.35 V
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B)
- 1.17 V
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C)
+ 0.35 V
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D)
+ 1.17 V
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question_answer 45) The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g glucose \[({{p}_{1}}),\] 10 g urea \[({{p}_{2}})\]and 10 g sucrose \[({{p}_{3}})\] are dissolved in 250 mL of water is
A)
\[{{p}_{1}}>{{p}_{2}}>{{p}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[{{p}_{3}}>{{p}_{2}}>{{p}_{1}}\]
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C)
\[{{p}_{2}}>{{p}_{1}}>{{p}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[{{p}_{2}}>{{p}_{3}}>{{p}_{1}}\]
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A)
Only I
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B)
Only II
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C)
Only III
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D)
I and II
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question_answer 47) Which one is correct statement?
A)
Basicity of \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\] and \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\] is 3 and 3 respectively
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B)
Acidity of \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\] and \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\] is 3 and 3 respectively
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C)
Acidity of \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\] and \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\] is 3 and 2 respectively
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D)
Basicity of \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\] and \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\] is 3 and 2 respectively
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question_answer 48) The volume strength of 1.5 N \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]solution is
A)
16.8 L
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B)
8.4 L
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C)
4.2 L
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D)
5.2 L
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question_answer 49) The oxidation number of oxygen in \[O{{F}_{2}}\]is
A)
+2
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B)
-2
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C)
+1
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D)
-1
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question_answer 50) If uncertainties in the measurement of position and momentum of an electron are equal, the uncertainty in the measurement of velocity is
A)
\[8.0\times {{10}^{12}}m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[4.2\times {{10}^{10}}m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[8.5\times {{10}^{10}}m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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D)
\[6.2\times {{10}^{10}}m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 51) The largest RBCs among vertebrates are found in
A)
amphibians
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B)
reptiles
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C)
mammals
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D)
aves
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question_answer 52) Which of the following algae is used as a source of proteins?
A)
Porphyra tenera
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B)
Chlorella
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C)
Spirulina
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D)
Chara
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question_answer 53) The Imperial Forest Research Institute (IFRI) established in 1906 changed its name to
A)
IARI
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B)
FRI
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C)
CDRI
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D)
CSIR
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question_answer 54) Choose the genetically engineered variety of organisms created to deal with the problem of oil leakage
A)
Agrobacterium rhizogenes
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B)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
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C)
Escherichia coli
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D)
Pseudomonas putida
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question_answer 55) Klinefelters syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality in humans. It is linked to
A)
21 chromosome
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B)
44 autosomes + XO
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C)
44 autosomes + XXY
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D)
1st chromosome
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question_answer 56) Pollens are preserved for long time in fossils due to presence of
A)
pectocellulose
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B)
cuticle
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C)
sporopollenin
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D)
germ pores
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question_answer 57) Latimeria (coelocanth) is a
A)
living fossil
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B)
connecting link between fishes and amphibians
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C)
bony fish,
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 58)
Identify the incorrect statement about DNA. I. Base composition of DNA varies from one species to another. II. Z-DNA is a right handed helix. III. Prokaryotic genomic DNA and many viral DNAs are circular molecules. IV. Hershey and Chase experiments observed the transformation in mice.
A)
I and II
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B)
II and III
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C)
II and IV
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 59) The crunchy and granular feeling when we chew pear fruit is due to
A)
parenchyma
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B)
collenchyma
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C)
chlorenchyma
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D)
sclerenchyma
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question_answer 60) A bone that lies at the base of the tongue and is not articulated with rest of the skeleton is
A)
maxilla
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B)
hyoid
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C)
coccyx
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D)
innominate
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question_answer 61)
Match the following columns. Column-I (Disease) Column-II (Vector) A. Yellow fever 1. Tse-tse fly B. Sleeping sickness 2. Sandfly C. Filariasis 3. Aedes D. Kala-azar 4. Culex
Codes
A)
A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
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B)
A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
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C)
A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
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D)
A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
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question_answer 62) Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
A)
it does not depend on light energy
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B)
it can occur in dark also
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C)
it cannot occur during day light
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D)
it occurs more rapidly at night
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question_answer 63) A pigment called leghaemoglobin is present in the root nodules of legumes. Its function is
A)
convert atmospheric \[{{N}_{2}}\] to\[N{{H}_{3}}\]
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B)
transport \[{{O}_{2}}\]for activity of nitrogenase
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C)
convert ammonia to nitrate
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D)
protect nitrogenase from oxygen
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question_answer 64) The theory where ratio between number of X chromosomes and number of complete set of autosomes determine sex is
A)
chromosome theory of sex determination
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B)
genie balance theory of sex determination
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C)
environmental sex determination theory
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D)
hormonal balance theory of sex determination
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question_answer 65) Which of the following is correctly matched?
A)
Glycolysis - Inner mitochondrial membrane
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B)
Krebs cycle - Mitochondrial matrix
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C)
Electron transport system - Cytosol
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D)
Fermentation - Mitochondrial matrix
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question_answer 66) In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass is 1 tonne. The tiger biomass shall be
A)
100 kg
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B)
200 kg
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C)
10 kg
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D)
1 kg
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question_answer 67) The venom of honeybees is used in the treatment of
A)
arthritis
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B)
diphtheria
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C)
pertussis
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D)
diabetes
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question_answer 68) A plant cell with 0.5% concentration of salt in its cell sap is placed in a solution with 5% salt concentration. The cell will
A)
swell due to exosmosis
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B)
show no change in shape
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C)
shrink due to endosmosis
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D)
shrink due to exosmosis
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question_answer 69) What is correct about test-tube baby?
A)
Fertilisation inside female genital tract and growth in test-tube:
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B)
Fertilisation outside and gestation inside womb of mother
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C)
Premature born baby reared in incubator
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D)
Both fertilisation and development outside the female genital tract
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question_answer 70)
Match the items in Column I with those of Column II. Column I Column II A. Polymerase chain reaction 1. Banting and Best B. Insulin 2. Chemical scalpel C. Eli Lilly 3. Humulin D. Restriction enzymes 4. Kornberg 5. Kary Mullis
A)
A-4 B-5 C-3 D-2
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B)
A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
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C)
A-5 B-1 C-3 D-2
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D)
A-1 B-4 C-3 D-5
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question_answer 71) A fleshy false fruit which develops from fleshy thalamus is
A)
drupe
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B)
berry
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C)
pome
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D)
pepo
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question_answer 72) Statement I Jelly fish and dog fish belong to the same class. Statement II Both of them are aquatic organisms and possess a hard exoskeleton. Choose the correct option
A)
Statement I is correct but-statement II is incorrect
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B)
Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect
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C)
Both statements are correct
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D)
Both statements are incorrect
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question_answer 73) Competitive inhibition could be reversed by increasing the concentration of
A)
coenzyme
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B)
substrate
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C)
product
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D)
enzyme
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question_answer 74) Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
A)
Cardiac sphincter-Between oesophagus and anterior stomach
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B)
Pyloric sphincter-Between small intestine and bowl
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C)
Sphincter of oddi - Terminal part of alimentary canal
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D)
lleocaecal sphincter-Between duodenum and posterior stomach
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question_answer 75) A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks water more frequently as he has to
A)
eliminate extra salt from blood
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B)
eliminate extra glucose from blood
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C)
eliminate extra insulin from blood
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D)
eliminate extra water from blood
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question_answer 76) Which of the following schemes was launched to promote basic education in India and attract children in school going age to attend the classes?
A)
Pulse Polio Abhiyan
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B)
Operation Flood
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C)
Mid-Day Meal Scheme
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D)
Operation Black Board
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question_answer 77) Yen is the currency of
A)
Japan
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B)
Taiwan
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C)
North Korea
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D)
South Korea
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question_answer 78) The bank rate is the rate of interest at which the Reserve Bank of India provides loans to the
A)
scheduled commercial banks
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B)
public sector
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C)
corporate sector
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D)
foreign institutional investors
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question_answer 79) Which of the following is not one of the Fundamental Rights?
A)
Right to freedom of religion
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B)
Right to freedom of thought and expression
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C)
Right to equality
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D)
Right to equal pay for equal work for man as well as worqan
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question_answer 80) Panchayati Raj System in India is laid down under
A)
Fundamental Rights
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B)
Fundamental Duties
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C)
Directive Principles of State Policy
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D)
Election Commission Act
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question_answer 81) What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India?
A)
Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
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B)
Conterminous with the tenure of the President
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C)
As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
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D)
Five years
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question_answer 82) The words Satyameva Jayate in the state Emblem of India have been adopted from which one of the following?
A)
Mundak upanishad
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B)
Brahma Upanishad
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C)
Mudgala upanishad
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D)
Maitreyi upnishad
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E)
Aryabhatta
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question_answer 83) Ramayan the Tamil version of the great epic Ramayana was made by
A)
Kamban
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B)
Awaiyar
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C)
llango adigal
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 84) Which of the following is true about sedimentary rock?
A)
They are rocks whose structure is contingent on heat and pressure
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B)
The rocks are crystalline
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C)
The rocks have been deposited in layers
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D)
The rocks cannot be formed under water
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question_answer 85) Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
A)
Himalayas -tertiary fold mountain
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B)
Deccan Trap-volcanic cone eruption
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C)
Western Ghat -palaeozoic fold mountains
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D)
Aravalli-pre-combrian rlict mountain
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question_answer 86) Which one of the following is a fungus?
A)
Agaricus
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B)
Funaria
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C)
Rhizobium
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D)
Spirogyra
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question_answer 87) Study of nose and olfactory organs is called
A)
radiology
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B)
rhinology
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C)
radiography
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 88) The temperature of a Gas is measured with a
A)
platinum resistance thermometer
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B)
pyrometer
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C)
gas thermometer
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D)
vapour pressure thermometer
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question_answer 89) A computer portable and easy to carry by travellers is
A)
super computer
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B)
laptop
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C)
mini computer
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D)
file servers
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question_answer 90) Many individuals of the same species living together in a defined area form a/an
A)
community
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B)
genus
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C)
population
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D)
ecosystem
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question_answer 91) In the past decade, which of the following has not been a major cause of the increase in the worlds population?
A)
Longer life span
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B)
Lower infant mortality
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C)
Increase in birth rate
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D)
Improved sanitation
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question_answer 92) Rangaswami cup is associated with
A)
wrestling
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B)
football
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C)
hockey
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D)
golf
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question_answer 93) April 2 is observed as
A)
world day for war orphans
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B)
united nations day for South-South cooperation
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C)
world autism awareness day, recognized by the UN
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D)
international day for Biological Diversity, recognized by the UN
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question_answer 94) ISRO is the abbreviation for
A)
Indian Scientific Research Organization
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B)
Indian Space Research Organization
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C)
International Space Research Organization
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D)
International Scientific Research Organization
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question_answer 95) Saline Alt was an eminent
A)
Urdu poet
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B)
Ornithologist
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C)
Ghazal singer
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 96)
How many number of triangles in the following figure?
A)
16
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B)
22
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C)
28
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D)
32
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question_answer 97) Which of the following diagram best depicts the relationship among factory, machinery and product?
A)
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B)
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C)
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D)
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question_answer 98) The smallest number of 5 digits beginning with 3 and ending with 5 is
A)
30015
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B)
31005
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C)
30005
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D)
50003
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question_answer 99) Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (d) i.e., No error (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any),
A)
Handsome is usually used
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B)
/ of men but beautiful is not
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C)
/ usually used to talk about mans appearance,
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D)
/ No error
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question_answer 100) Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is i.e., No error (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any),
A)
Payal kept her drum
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B)
/besides her
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C)
/ always and she played wisely.
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D)
/ No error
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