question_answer 1)
A uniform circular disc of mass 12 kg is held by two identical springs as shown in the figure. When the disc is pressed down slightly and released, it executes SHM with a time period of 2 s. The force constant of each spring is
A)
\[236.6\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[118.3\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[59.15N{{m}^{-1}}\]
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 2) A cyclist bends, while taking turn, to
A)
reduce friction
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B)
generate required centrifugal force
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C)
reduce apparent weight
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D)
reduce speed
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question_answer 3) Consider two unequal masses\[{{m}_{2}}>{{m}_{1}}\]connected by a string which passes over a frictionless and massless pulley. The tension T in the string is
A)
\[T=2\frac{m_{1}^{2}+m_{2}^{2}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}g\]
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B)
\[T=\frac{2{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}g\]
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C)
\[T=\frac{2m_{2}^{2}+m_{1}^{2}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}g\]
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D)
\[T=2({{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}})g\]
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question_answer 4) For motion in a plane with constant acceleration a initial velocity \[{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}\] and final velocity\[\overrightarrow{v}\]after time\[t\]we have
A)
\[\overrightarrow{v}.(\overrightarrow{v}.\overrightarrow{a}t)={{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}({{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}+\overrightarrow{a}t)\]
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B)
\[\overrightarrow{v}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}={{a}^{2}}{{t}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[\overrightarrow{v}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}=\overrightarrow{a}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}t\]
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D)
\[{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}=\overrightarrow{a}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}\]
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question_answer 5) A torch is switched on and dropped on a reflecting surface g/2 meters below. Initial light beam reaches the torch after getting reflected from the polished surface and is reflected back by the torch, and so on. If speed of light is c then total distance covered by the initial beam of light is
A)
g
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B)
g/2
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C)
c
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D)
c/2
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question_answer 6) The potential energy function of a particle executing linear simple harmonic motion is given by \[U(x)=\frac{1}{2}k{{x}^{2}},\]where k the force constant of the oscillator is equal to\[0.5\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]. The amplitude of the particle when its total energy is 1 J is equal to
A)
\[2\sqrt{2}m\]
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B)
2m
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C)
\[\sqrt{2}m\]
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 7) A man mass 60 kg records his weight on a weighing machine placed inside a lift. The ratio of the weights of the man recorded when the lift is ascending up with a uniform speed of \[2\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]to when it is descending down with a uniform speed of\[\text{4 }m{{s}^{-1}}\]will be
A)
0.5
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B)
\[-1\]
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C)
2
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 8)
The speed time graph of a particle moving in a fixed direction is as shown in the figure. The distance traversed by the particle between\[t=0\]to\[t=5\text{ }s\]is
A)
24 m
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B)
30 m
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C)
36 m
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D)
40 m
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question_answer 9) Units of electric flux are
A)
\[weber/metr{{e}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[newton-metr{{e}^{2}}/coulomb\]
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C)
\[joule\times coulomb/metre\]
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D)
tesla
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question_answer 10) The S.I. unit of pole strength is
A)
\[A-{{m}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[A-m\].
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C)
\[A-{{m}^{-1}}\]
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D)
\[A-{{m}^{-2}}\]
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question_answer 11) In a streamlined flow if the gravitational head is h, the kinetic and pressure heads are
A)
\[\frac{1}{2}{{v}^{2}}\]and\[\frac{P}{\rho }\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{2}\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{g}\]and\[\frac{P}{\rho g}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{2}{{v}^{2}}\]and\[\frac{P}{\rho g}\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{2}\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{g}\]and\[\frac{P}{\rho }\]
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question_answer 12) Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the variation of the intensity of gravitational field\[(I)\]with the distance (r) from the centre of a spherical shell of mass M and radius a
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 13) A quantity X is defined by the equation \[X=3C{{B}^{2}}\]where C is capacitance in farad and B represents magnetic field in tesla. The dimensions of\[X\]are
A)
\[M{{L}^{-2}}\]
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B)
\[M{{L}^{-2}}{{T}^{-1}}A\]
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C)
\[M{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[{{L}^{-1}}{{A}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 14) Bernouillis equation for steady, non-viscous, incompressible flow expresses the
A)
conservation of angular momentum
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B)
conservation of density
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C)
conservation of momentum
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D)
conservation of energy
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question_answer 15) Velocity of sound in air is\[320\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]. A pipe closed at one end has a length of 1m. (Neglecting ends corrections). The air column in the pipe cannot resonate for sound of frequency
A)
80 Hz
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B)
240 Hz
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C)
320 Hz
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D)
400 Hz
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question_answer 16) A particle in S.H.M. is described by the displacement function \[x(t)=A\cos (\omega t+\phi ),\omega =\frac{2\pi }{T}\] If the initial\[(t=0)\]position of the particle is 1 cm, its initial velocity is n\[cm\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]and its angular frequency is\[n\text{ }{{s}^{-1}},\]then the amplitude of its motion is
A)
\[\pi \,cm\]
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B)
\[2\,cm\]
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C)
\[\sqrt{2}\,cm\]
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D)
\[1\,cm\]
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question_answer 17) Equation\[y={{y}_{m}}\sin (kx+\omega t)\]represents a wave
A)
travelling in\[y-\]direction
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B)
travelling in negative\[y-\]direction
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C)
travelling in\[y-\]direction
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D)
travelling in negative\[y-\]direction
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question_answer 18) To double the translational kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas one has to
A)
double the absolute temperature
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B)
reduce the absolute temperature to half
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C)
increase the absolute temperature fourfold
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D)
increase the absolute temperature by a factor of \[\sqrt{2}\]
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question_answer 19) The first law of thermodynamics, which accounts for the conservation of energy, is valid
A)
only for reversible processes
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B)
only for irreversible processes
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C)
for both of the above two processes
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D)
for none of the above processes
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question_answer 20) A comet orbits the sun in highly elliptical orbit. Which of the following quantities remains unchanged throughout its orbit? (Neglect any mass loss of the comet when it comes very close to the sun)
A)
torque
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B)
potential energy
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C)
kinetic energy
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D)
areal speed
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question_answer 21) Two bulbs when connected in parallel to a source take 60 W each. The total power consumed when they are connected in series with the same source is
A)
15 W
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B)
30 W
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C)
60 W
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D)
120 W
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question_answer 22)
A rectangular loop carrying a current\[i\]is situated near a long straight wire, such that the wire is parallel to one of he sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current\[I\]is established in the wire as shown in the diagram, the loop will
A)
move away from the wire
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B)
rotate about an axis parallel to wire
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C)
remain stationary
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D)
move towards the wire
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question_answer 23) In a voltameter the conduction takes place due to
A)
electrons only
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B)
electrons and holes
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C)
holes only
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D)
electrons and ions
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question_answer 24) A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if
A)
both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled
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B)
both the length and the radius of the wire are halved
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C)
the radius of the wire is doubled
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D)
the length of the wire is doubled
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question_answer 25) A magnetic needle placed in a non-uniform magnetic field experiences
A)
a force and a torque
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B)
a torque but not a force
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C)
a force but not a torque
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D)
neither a force not a torque
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question_answer 26)
In a region of space, the variation of the electric potential\[\phi \]with distance from the origin is shown in the figure. The electric field strength is zero at
A)
Point A
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B)
Point B
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C)
Point C
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D)
Point D
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question_answer 27) The instantaneous magnetic flux\[\phi \]in a circuit is \[\phi =4{{t}^{2}}-4t+1\]The total resistance of the circuit is \[10\,\Omega \]. At\[t=\frac{1}{2}s,\]the induced current in the circuit is
A)
0
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B)
0.2 A
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C)
0.4 A
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D)
0.8 A
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question_answer 28)
A circle of radius R is drawn in a uniform electric field E as shown in the figure\[{{V}_{A}},\]\[{{V}_{B}},{{V}_{C}}\]and\[{{V}_{D}}\]are respectively the potentials of points A, B, C and D at the periphery of the circle
A)
\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{C}};{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{D}}\]
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B)
\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{C}};{{V}_{B}}<{{V}_{D}}\]
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C)
\[{{V}_{A}}>{{V}_{C}};{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{D}}\]
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D)
\[{{V}_{A}}<{{V}_{C}};{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{D}}\]
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question_answer 29) If the distance of separation between two charges is increased, the electrical potential energy of the system will
A)
increase
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B)
decrease
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C)
may increase or decrease
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D)
remain the same
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question_answer 30) Let Q represent the charge on a parallel plate capacitor and E the electric field between the plates, then each plate of the capacitor experiences a force of magnitude
A)
zero
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B)
\[QE\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{2}QE\]
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D)
\[2QE\]
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question_answer 31) In the Youngs double slit experiment the separation between the slits is halved and the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The fringe width is
A)
halved
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B)
unchanged
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C)
doubled
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D)
quadrupled
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question_answer 32) When the light is incident on polarising angle which of the following is completely polarised
A)
reflected light
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B)
both reflected and refracted light
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C)
refracted light
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D)
neither reflected nor refracted light
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question_answer 33) Signal from a remote control to the device operated by it travels with the speed of
A)
sound
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B)
light
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C)
ultrasonics
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D)
supersonics
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question_answer 34) In spectral radiancy curve for cavity radiation the wavelength of the maximum spectral radiancy
A)
increases with temperature increasing
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B)
decreases with temperature increasing
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C)
sometimes increases sometimes decreases with increasing temperature
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D)
remains unaffected by temperature variation
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question_answer 35) For the normal setting of a telescope
A)
only the object is at infinity
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B)
only the final image is at infinity
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C)
both the object and the final image are at infinity
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D)
neither the object nor the final image has to be at infinity
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question_answer 36) A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is
A)
parallel
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B)
convergent
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C)
divergent
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D)
any of the above type
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question_answer 37) If\[{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\]and\[{{\mu }_{0}}\]are respectively, the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of free space,\[\varepsilon \]and\[\mu \]are the corresponding quantities in a medium the refractive index of the medium is
A)
\[\sqrt{\frac{\mu \varepsilon }{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}}\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{\mu \varepsilon }{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\]
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D)
\[{{\left( \frac{\mu \varepsilon }{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}} \right)}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 38)
In the given circuit, the rms value of e is 5V and the rms value of votage drop across L is 3 V. The rms value of the voltage across R will be
A)
2V
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B)
3 V
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C)
4 V
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D)
0 V
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question_answer 39)
The figure shows the connections of a rheostat with an external battery. A is an ammeter and is a voltmeter. The sliding contact R starts from point P and moves towards the end Q. Which of the following statements is correct?
A)
both ammeter and voltmeter show constant reading
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B)
the reading of ammeter remains constant but that of voltmeter increases
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C)
the reading of ammeter remains constant but that of voltmeter decreases
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D)
both ammeter and voltmeter reading increases
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question_answer 40) A conducting wire is drawn to double its length. Final resistivity of the material will be
A)
double of the original one
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B)
half of the original one.
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C)
one-fourth of the original one
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D)
same as original one
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question_answer 41) A\[p-\]type semiconductor is
A)
positively charged
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B)
uncharged
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C)
negatively charged
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 42)
For the given combination of gates, if the logic states of input A, B, C are as follows\[A=B=C=0\]and\[A=B=1,C=0\]then the logic states of output\[D\]are
A)
0, 0
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B)
0, 1
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C)
1, 0
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D)
1, 1
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question_answer 43) A material with overlapping conduction and valence bands will be
A)
an insulator
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B)
a semiconductor
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C)
a metal
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D)
a superconductor
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question_answer 44) Assuming that the junction diode is ideal, in the circuit shown here, the current through the diode is
A)
zero
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B)
1 mA
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C)
10 mA
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D)
30 Ma
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question_answer 45) When a beta\[(\beta )\]negative particle is emitted from a radioactive nucleus, the ratio of the number of neutrons to the number of protons in the resulting nucleus
A)
decreases
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B)
remains same
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C)
increases
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 46) An electron starts from rest in an electric field and acquires a speed u in reaching a point A. The potential difference between the starting point and the point A is\[{{V}_{A}}\]
A)
\[u\propto V_{A}^{2}\]
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B)
\[u\propto {{V}_{A}}\]
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C)
\[u\propto \sqrt{{{V}_{A}}}\]
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D)
\[u\propto V_{A}^{2/3}\]
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question_answer 47) The binding energy per nucleon for deuteron\[(_{1}^{2}H)\]and helium\[(_{2}^{4}He)\]are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV and 7.0 MeV respectively. The energy released when two deuterons fuse to form a helium nucleus is
A)
2.2 MeV
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B)
28 MeV
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C)
23.6 V
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D)
30.2 MeV
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question_answer 48) The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass 1 mg moving with a velocity\[1\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]will be
A)
\[{{10}^{3}}h\] metre
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B)
\[{{10}^{5}}h\]metre
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C)
\[{{10}^{-3}}h\]metre
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D)
\[{{10}^{-5}}h\]metre
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question_answer 49) Sodium surface is subjected to ultraviolet and infrared radiations separately and the stopping potential of photoelectrons determined. Then the stopping potential
A)
is equal in both cases
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B)
more when ultraviolet is used
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C)
more when infrared used
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D)
may be more or less for ultraviolet depending upon its intensity as compared to the intensity of infrared light
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question_answer 50) An\[\alpha \]particle and a proton having same momentum enter into a region of uniform magnetic field and move in circular paths. The ratio of the radii of curvature of their paths,\[\frac{{{r}_{\alpha }}}{{{r}_{p}}}\], in the field is
A)
\[\frac{1}{2}\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{4}\]
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C)
1
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D)
4
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question_answer 51) Which of the following is not a transition metal?
A)
\[Cr\]
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B)
\[Mn\]
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C)
\[Sn\]
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D)
\[Cu~\]
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question_answer 52) Copper reacts with hot cone.\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]to give
A)
\[S{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[{{H}_{2}}S\]
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C)
\[CuS{{O}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[C{{u}_{2}}O\]
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question_answer 53) What is the approximate percentage of\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] in a sample labelled as 10 vol?
A)
10%
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B)
9%
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C)
3%
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D)
1%
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question_answer 54) Addition of\[HgC{{l}_{2}}\]to\[SnC{{l}_{2}}\]gives a brown black colour which is due to the
A)
formation of amalgam
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B)
oxidation of tin
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C)
oxidation of mercury
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D)
reduction of mercury
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question_answer 55) Name the compound\[{{O}_{2}}Pt{{F}_{6}}\].
A)
oxygenyl fluoroplatinate (IV)
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B)
dioxygenyl fluoroplatinate (V)
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C)
dioxygenyl hexafluoroplatinate (IV)
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D)
dioxygenyl hexafluoroplatinate (V)
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question_answer 56) A gas has a volume of 15 ml at 300 K and 740 mm of Hg. Find the temperature if volume becomes 10 ml at 760 mm pressure of Hg.
A)
205 K
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B)
209 K
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C)
275 K
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D)
\[-200\text{ }K\]
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question_answer 57) Which one of the following is the strongest acid?
A)
\[Cl{{O}_{3}}(OH)\]
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B)
\[Cl{{O}_{2}}(OH)\]
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C)
\[HCl\]
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D)
\[HN{{O}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 58) Phosphorus on reaction with cone\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]yields
A)
\[HP{{O}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]
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C)
\[{{N}_{2}}O\]
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D)
\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]
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question_answer 59) Malachite is a mineral of
A)
\[Mg\]
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B)
\[Cu\]
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C)
\[Al\]
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D)
\[Fe\]
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question_answer 60) Which is the correct decreasing order of bond angle in the following series?
A)
\[N{{H}_{3}}>{{H}_{2}}O>{{H}_{2}}S\]
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B)
\[{{H}_{2}}S>N{{H}_{3}}>{{H}_{2}}O\]
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C)
\[{{H}_{2}}S>{{H}_{2}}O>N{{H}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[{{H}_{2}}O>N{{H}_{3}}>{{H}_{2}}S\]
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question_answer 61) Which profile is a true representation of chemosorption?
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 62) A process for converting a precipitate into a colloidal solution is known as
A)
coagulation
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B)
peptization
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C)
dialysis
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D)
ozonolysis
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question_answer 63) When river water meets sea water delta formation takes place. This is due to the phenomenon of
A)
electrophoresis
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B)
dialysis
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C)
coagulation
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D)
adsorption
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question_answer 64) 1.5 g of a substance when dissolved in 60 g water lowered the freezing point by\[0.136{}^\circ C\]. Calculate the molecular weight of the substance when depression constant of water is 1.86.
A)
329.1
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B)
439.5
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C)
341.9
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D)
335.9
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question_answer 65)
Consider the modes of transformations of a gas from state A to state B as shown in the following P-V diagram Which one of the following is true?
A)
\[\Delta H=q\]along\[A\to C\]
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B)
\[\Delta S\]is same along both\[A\to B\]and \[A\to C\to B\]
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C)
\[w\]is same along both\[A\to B\]and\[A\to C\to B\]
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D)
\[w>0\]along both\[A\to B\]and\[A\to C\]
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question_answer 66) Sulphur tetrafluoride molecule is
A)
square planar
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B)
octahedral
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C)
tetrahedral
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D)
trigonal bipyramidal with a lone pair in the equatorial position
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question_answer 67) The types of bonds present in\[CuS{{O}_{4}}.5{{H}_{2}}O\] are only
A)
electrovalent and covalent
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B)
electrovalent and coordinate-covalent
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C)
electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent
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D)
electrovalent, covalent and hydrogen
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question_answer 68) The ionisation potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the ionisation potential for the\[H{{e}^{+}}\]is
A)
54.4 eV
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B)
6.8 eV
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C)
13.6eV
done
clear
D)
24.5 eV
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 69) Molecular shape of\[P{{F}_{5}}\]is
A)
square planar
done
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B)
trigonal bipyramidal
done
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C)
tetrahedral three-dimensional
done
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D)
octahedral three-dimensional
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 70) Which is not formed in a reaction of potassium permanganate with\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]?
A)
\[{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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B)
\[MnS{{O}_{4}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{H}_{2}}O\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 71) Consider the following half cell reactions: \[C{{u}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}}=Cu\] \[E_{C{{u}^{2+}}/Cu}^{o}=0.34\,V\] \[A{{g}^{+}}+{{e}^{-}}=Ag\] \[E_{A{{g}^{+}}/Ag}^{o}=0.80\,V\] Which one of the following is true?
A)
copper can displace silver from\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]solution
done
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B)
silver can displace copper from\[Cu{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]solution
done
clear
C)
silver is more reactive than copper
done
clear
D)
\[C{{u}^{2+}}/Cu\]and\[A{{g}^{+}}/Ag\]with positive\[E{}^\circ \]values cannot be coupled to form a Galvanic cell
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 72) The maximum work which a system can perform at constant temperature and pressure equals
A)
\[q-\Delta E\]
done
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B)
\[\Delta H-\Delta E\]
done
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C)
\[P\Delta V-\Delta G\]
done
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D)
\[(-\Delta G)\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 73) The equation\[\Delta G=\Delta H-T\Delta S\]is for
A)
open system
done
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B)
closed system
done
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C)
isolated system
done
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D)
for all the above
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 74) If the melting point of ice is\[0{}^\circ C\]and latent heat of fusion is\[5.46\text{ }KJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}},\] the entropy change for the conversion of 18 g of ice to water at 1 atm is
A)
zero
done
clear
B)
\[20\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[50\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\text{360 }J{{K}^{-1}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 75) During the crystallization of a solid from the aqueous solution, the following statement is correct\[(\Delta H=-ve)\]
A)
\[\Delta H=T\Delta S\]
done
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B)
\[\Delta H>T\Delta S\]
done
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C)
\[\Delta H<T\Delta S\]
done
clear
D)
none of the above
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 76) The\[p{{K}_{a}}\]of acetyl salicylic acid (aspirin) is 3.5. The pH of gastric juice in human stomach is around 2 and the pH in small intestine is around 8. Aspirin will be
A)
unionized in stomach as well as in intestine
done
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B)
ionized in stomach as well as in intestine
done
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C)
unionized in stomach but ionized in intestine
done
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D)
ionized in stomach but unionized in intestine
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 77) In the reaction\[A+B\rightleftharpoons 2C,\]the initial concentrations of A and B are 1.0 and 2.0 mol \[li{{t}^{-1}}\]respectively. If at equilibrium the concentration of C is 0.4 mol\[li{{t}^{-1}}\], the value of equilibrium constant is
A)
0.028
done
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B)
0.111
done
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C)
0.166
done
clear
D)
0.200
done
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question_answer 78) If a 0.00001 molar solution of\[HCl\]is diluted thousand folds the pH of the resulting solution will be
A)
5
done
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B)
7
done
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C)
8
done
clear
D)
6.98
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 79) The conjugate acid of\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}NH\]is
A)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}N-COOH\]
done
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B)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}{{N}^{-}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}{{N}^{+}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}NH_{2}^{+}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 80) Which of the following solution has the highest osmotic pressure?
A)
\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }HCl\]
done
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B)
0.1 M urea
done
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C)
\[0.1\,M\,BaC{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
0.1 M glucose
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 81) Which one of the following is a trihydric alcohol containing only secondary hydroxyl groups?
A)
\[\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ HO \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-OH\]
done
clear
D)
\[\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ HO \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ HO \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 82) Which one of the following compounds is likely to be optically active?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ H \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ H \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 83) Carbon carbon length is the shortest in
A)
ethane
done
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B)
ethene
done
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C)
ethyne
done
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D)
benzene
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 84) Nitrogen in an organic compound can be estimated by
A)
Kjeldahl method
done
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B)
Carius method
done
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C)
Victor Meyers method
done
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D)
Lassaignes method
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 85) Which one has a chiral centre?
A)
2-methylpentane
done
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B)
3-methylpentane
done
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C)
2, 3-dimethylpentane
done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4-trimethylpentane
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 86) How much copper is supposed to be deposited when a current of 0.75 amperes passes through a copper sulphate solution for 25 minutes?
A)
0.34 g
done
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B)
0.33 g
done
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C)
0.35 g
done
clear
D)
( d) 0.37 g
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 87) Which of the following metals will not react with solution of\[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]?
A)
\[Fe\]
done
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B)
\[Zn\]
done
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C)
\[Mg\]
done
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D)
\[Ag\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 88) The decay from\[_{92}^{235}U\]to\[_{82}^{211}Pb\]involves the emission of
A)
\[2\alpha \] and\[6\beta \]particles
done
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B)
\[5\alpha \] and\[6\beta \]particles
done
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C)
\[6\alpha \] and\[2\beta \]particles
done
clear
D)
\[10\alpha \] and\[6\beta \]particles
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 89) In the reaction\[_{1}^{2}H+_{1}^{2}H\to _{2}^{4}He,5.5\times {{10}^{8}}\]K cal/mole of energy is produced. Calculate the energy per gram of He
A)
\[5.50\times {{10}^{8}}K.cal\]
done
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B)
\[1.10\times {{10}^{8}}K.cal\]
done
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C)
\[2.75\times {{10}^{8}}K.cal\]
done
clear
D)
\[1.37\times {{10}^{8}}K.cal\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 90) The missing particle in the radioactive decay is\[_{15}^{30}P\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}\,_{14}^{30}Si+?\]
A)
electron
done
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B)
hydrogen atom
done
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C)
positron
done
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D)
neutron
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 91) \[R\,C{{H}_{2}}\,C{{H}_{2}}\,CN\]can be easily obtained by which of the following reaction?
A)
\[RCH=C{{H}_{2}}+HCN\]
done
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B)
\[R\,C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}+HCN\]
done
clear
C)
\[R\,C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}-Br+KCN\]
done
clear
D)
\[R\,C{{H}_{2}}-CON{{H}_{2}}+{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 92) Which one of the following chemicals can be used in the preparation of paracetamol?
A)
done
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B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 93) Ethyne can be oxidised to oxalic acid by using
A)
chromic acid
done
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B)
alkaline\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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C)
hypochlorous acid
done
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D)
all reagents
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 94) Enzymes are essential as bio-catalysts. They function well in
A)
aqueous medium, temp\[\simeq 30-35{}^\circ C;pH\simeq 7\]
done
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B)
organic medium (solvent)
done
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C)
aqueous medium in extreme pH conditions
done
clear
D)
none of them
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 95) Which compound/set of compounds is used in the manufacture of Nylon 6?
A)
\[HOOC(C{{H}_{2}})COOH+N{{H}_{2}}{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{6}}N{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,=C{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 96)
In the reaction This reactive species (most likely) is
A)
\[NO_{2}^{-}\]
done
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B)
\[NO_{2}^{+}\]
done
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C)
\[N{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 97) Identify the compound which has a nitro group in it
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-O-N=O\]
done
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B)
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-N=O\]
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 98) Which reagent is effective in direct conversion of a carboxylic group with a\[1{}^\circ -\] alcoholic group? \[(-COOH\to -C{{H}_{2}}OH)\]
A)
Na-Ethanol
done
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B)
\[NaB{{H}_{4}}\]
done
clear
C)
Catalytic hydrogenation
done
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D)
\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 99) For the preparation of t-butyl methyl ether which one of the following methods should be recommended?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}Br+\overset{+}{\mathop{Na}}\,\overline{O}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}\overline{O}\overset{+}{\mathop{Na}}\,+C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-Br\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}OH+HO-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow[{}]{conc/{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-Br+C{{H}_{3}}OH\xrightarrow[{}]{\overset{-}{\mathop{HO}}\,\overset{+}{\mathop{Na}}\,}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 100) Reaction of phenol with\[CC{{l}_{4}}\]and\[NaOH\] followed by hydrolysis is likely to give
A)
done
clear
B)
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 101) Municipal waste, containing human and animal excreta, food residues, detergents etc. and rich in bacteria and organic substances, is called
A)
sewage
done
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B)
sewer
done
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C)
sewerage
done
clear
D)
none of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 102) BOD stand for
A)
bacterial overgrowth database
done
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B)
biological oxygen demand
done
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C)
biological and organic diversity
done
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D)
none of the above.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 103) The pulling strength of community waste water is usually characterized by its
A)
BOD
done
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B)
CFC
done
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C)
MIC
done
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D)
ABS.
done
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question_answer 104) When the pollutant flow is conveyed in well defined channels as municipal or industrial waste it is called
A)
diffuse source
done
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B)
non-point source
done
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C)
point source
done
clear
D)
all of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 105) Water comes polluted due to the presence or addition of
A)
inorganic substances
done
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B)
organic substances
done
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C)
biological agents
done
clear
D)
all of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 106) Photochemical combination of hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides emitted by automobiles produces health threatening
A)
acid rains
done
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B)
CFC
done
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C)
fly ash
done
clear
D)
smog.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 107) The removal of lead and its products from petrol used in automobiles is necessary because lead
A)
causes cancer of skin
done
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B)
impairs respiration
done
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C)
hampers haemoglobin formation
done
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D)
all of the above.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 108) Large quantities of carbon monoxide, produced by gas heaters, charcoal stoves, coal mines etc., usually prove fatal as the pollutant
A)
is carcinogenic
done
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B)
impairs respiration
done
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C)
is combustible
done
clear
D)
none of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 109) Air pollution is caused by excess of
A)
dinitrogen
done
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B)
hydrogen
done
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C)
water vapour
done
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D)
none of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 110) The indiscriminate use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides may cause pollution of
A)
air
done
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B)
soil
done
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C)
water
done
clear
D)
all of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 111) Spadix is an inflorescence found only in
A)
monocots
done
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B)
dicots
done
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C)
poaceae
done
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D)
asteraceae.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 112) The agency responsible for seed dispersal in cotton, poppy and orchids is
A)
bird
done
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B)
water
done
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C)
man
done
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D)
wind.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 113) Among the following sets of fruits, those that belong to the same category, from the point of view of classification, are
A)
coconut, chestnut and cashewnut
done
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B)
coconut, mango and almond
done
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C)
coconut, butternut and chestnut
done
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D)
coconut, orange and tomato.
done
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question_answer 114) In general, the feature common to the flowers of spadix, cyathium and hypanthodium is that they are
A)
monandrous
done
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B)
synandrous
done
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C)
diclinous
done
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D)
achlamydeous.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 115) Floral diagram fails to indicate
A)
epiphylly and epipetaly
done
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B)
aestivation and placentation
done
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C)
position of ovary on the thalamus
done
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D)
cohesion of carpels and stamens.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 116) Porous dehiscence of capsular fruits is seen in
A)
okra
done
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B)
poppy
done
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C)
cotton
done
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D)
datura
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 117) Explosive fruits are a characteristic of
A)
balsam
done
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B)
poppy
done
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C)
castor
done
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D)
none of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 118) Cladode is a characteristic morphological feature of
A)
Asparagus and Riiscus
done
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B)
Casuarina and Opuntia
done
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C)
Cladophora and Cactus
done
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D)
Citrus and Euphorbia
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 119) Nuclear reactor malfunction in any country is a cause of concern for
A)
the reactors employees and neighbours
done
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B)
the entire human population
done
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C)
some enlightened persons world-wide
done
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D)
some developed and developing countries.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 120) Eutrophication of water bodies is associated with water
A)
hole
done
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B)
hyacinth
done
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C)
lily
done
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D)
none of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 121) Cork cambium is also called
A)
phellem
done
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B)
phellogen
done
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C)
phelloderm
done
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D)
none of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 122) The division of an individual vascular cambial cell results in the formation of
A)
two xylem mother cells
done
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B)
two phloem mother cells
done
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C)
one xylem and one phloem mother cell
done
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D)
one xylem or one phloem mother cell and one cambium cell.
done
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question_answer 123) The vascular bundles of dicot roots are
A)
endarch and polyarch
done
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B)
exarch and polyarch
done
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C)
exarch and radial
done
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D)
endarch and collateral.
done
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question_answer 124) The difference between alburnum and duramen is the presence in the former of
A)
companion cell
done
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B)
living cells
done
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C)
raw cells
done
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D)
lignified cells.
done
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question_answer 125) Fascicular, interfascicuiar and extra stelar cambium together constitute
A)
lateral meristems
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B)
apical meristems
done
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C)
intercalary meristems
done
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D)
ground meristems.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 126) A monocot root is characterized by vascular bundles that are closed as well as
A)
endarch, collateral and tri-to pentarch
done
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B)
exarch, polyarch and radial
done
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C)
endarch, polyarch and radial
done
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D)
collateral, exarch and polyarch.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 127) The protective tissue in the plant body consists of
A)
xylem, phloem and cambium
done
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B)
epidermis, cork and bark
done
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C)
sclerenchyma, prosenchyma and collenchyma
done
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D)
all of the above.
done
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question_answer 128) The difference between shoot and root apex lies in lateral appendages being
A)
present in the former
done
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B)
absent in the former
done
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C)
present in the latter
done
clear
D)
none of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 129) The most highly evolved and perfect type of inflorescence is
A)
hypanthodium
done
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B)
spadix
done
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C)
capitulum
done
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D)
polychasial cyme.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 130) The flowers in a cyathium resemble the ray florets of sunflower in being
A)
sessile
done
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B)
imperfect
done
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C)
neuter
done
clear
D)
bisexual.
done
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question_answer 131) Microsporogenesis is the
A)
development of megaspore
done
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B)
development of pollen grain
done
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C)
development of male gametophyte
done
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D)
development of female gametophyte.
done
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question_answer 132) In a mature fertilized angiosperm ovule\[n,2n\]and 3n condition is found respectively in
A)
antipodals, synergids and integuments
done
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B)
egg, antipodals and nucellus
done
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C)
antipodals, egg and endosperm
done
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D)
endosperm, nucellus and egg.
done
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question_answer 133) Pollination brought about by different flowers of the same individual plant is called
A)
allogamy
done
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B)
autogamy
done
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C)
cleistogamy
done
clear
D)
geitonogamy.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 134) The highly resistant biological material of which the exine of a pollen grain is made up is called
A)
cutin
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B)
lignin
done
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C)
suberin
done
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D)
none of these.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 135) The functional megaspore develops after three successive mitotic division into
A)
embryo
done
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B)
embryo sac
done
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C)
ovule
done
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D)
zygote.
done
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question_answer 136) Most plant cells are surrounded by a cell wall. There are some exceptions, for example
A)
bacteria
done
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B)
gametes
done
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C)
stem hairs
done
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D)
root hairs.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 137) The similarity between palisade and spongy parenchyma of dorsiventral leaf lies in their
A)
arrangement
done
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B)
function
done
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C)
shape
done
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D)
size.
done
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question_answer 138) Some common commercial fibres, like jute and flax, are obtained from
A)
collenchyma
done
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B)
chlorenchyma
done
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C)
sclerenchyma
done
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D)
sclereids.
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 139) Collenchyma resembles parenchyma in being
A)
potentially meristematic
done
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B)
partially cutinised
done
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C)
provided with air spaces
done
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D)
devoid of chloroplasts.
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 140) The nature of sieve elements in the phloem are
A)
dead
done
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B)
enucleate
done
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C)
thick-walled
done
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D)
living but non-functional.
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question_answer 141) Maintenance of ecosystems depends upon
A)
food-chains and webs
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B)
energy flow
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C)
materials cycles
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D)
viruses.
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question_answer 142) Metabolism, replication and homeostasis are the main characteristics of
A)
eukaryotes
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B)
prokaryotes
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C)
organisms
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D)
viruses.
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question_answer 143) The first organisms to appear on earth were
A)
photoautotrophs
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B)
chemoautotrophs
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C)
chemoheterotrophs
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D)
coacervates.
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question_answer 144) From the point of view of early chemical evolution that preceded the origin of life on earth, the most important simple organic molecules formed were
A)
sugars and amino-acids
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B)
glycerol and fatty acids
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C)
purines and pyrimidines
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D)
all of the above.
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question_answer 145) Whereas todays atmosphere contains gases like\[C{{O}_{2}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O\]vapour, but at the time of the origin of life was made up mainly of
A)
\[N{{H}_{3}},C{{H}_{4}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O\]vapour
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B)
\[NO,N{{O}_{2}}\]and\[C{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[N{{H}_{3}},N{{O}_{2}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O\]vapour
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D)
\[C{{H}_{4}},NO\]and\[C{{O}_{2}}\].
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question_answer 146) The long gap of 300 million years between the origin of earth and of life on it was due to lack of
A)
oxygen
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B)
water
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C)
DNA
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D)
suitable temperature.
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question_answer 147) Whereas the earth is believed to be 4,500 million years old, life on this planet is estimated to have originated not earlier than
A)
4,200 million years ago
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B)
3,500 million years ago
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C)
1, 600 million years ago
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D)
459 million years ago.
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question_answer 148) Pollination by bats is called
A)
anemophily
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B)
hydrophily
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C)
ornithophily
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 149) In nature, allogamy is met within
A)
unisexual flowers only
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B)
neuter flowers only
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C)
underground flowers only
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D)
none of the above.
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question_answer 150) Anther culture may be used as a technique for producing haploid plants. However, some diploid plants may also be obtained in the process due to
A)
fusion of male and vegetative cells
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B)
development of exine and entine
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C)
development of another wall cells
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D)
fusion of male cells.
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question_answer 151) The theory of continental drift was originally proposed by
A)
Alfred Wegener
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B)
Robert I Bowman
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C)
Charles Darwin
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D)
Alfred Bailey.
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question_answer 152) Splint bone is a vestigial structure in
A)
man
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B)
whale
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C)
horse
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D)
Rhea.
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question_answer 153) The primitive mammals originated during
A)
triassic period
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B)
Jurassic period
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C)
cretaceous period
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 154) Author of the book Historia Generalis Plantarum is
A)
Caroleus Linnaeus
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B)
George Bentham
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C)
John Ray
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D)
Dalton Hooker.
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question_answer 155) Most petroleum bearing regions shows the presence of fossil states of
A)
Tetrahymena
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B)
Radiolaria
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C)
Paramecium
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D)
Trichonympha.
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question_answer 156) Sea cucumbers belong to class
A)
echinoidea
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B)
holothuroidea
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C)
ophiuroidea
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D)
asteroidea.
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question_answer 157) Skull is dicondylic in
A)
reptilia
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B)
aves
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C)
mammalia
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D)
both [b] and [c].
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question_answer 158) Botryoidal tissue is found in
A)
hirudina
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B)
polychaeta
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C)
oligochaeta
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D)
all of these.
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question_answer 159) The larva of Petromyzon is known as
A)
redia
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B)
spat
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C)
ammocoete
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D)
tornaria.
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question_answer 160) The theory of chemical evolution of life was experimentally proved by
A)
Miller
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B)
Haldane
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C)
Redi
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D)
Spallanzani.
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question_answer 161) In presence of vasopressin, the greatest fraction of filtered water is absorbed in the
A)
loop of Henie
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B)
proximal tubule
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C)
distal tubule
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D)
collecting duct.
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question_answer 162) Which of the following is not primarily a function of blood plasma?
A)
transport of\[{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
transport of hormones
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C)
transport of antibodies
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D)
maintenance of RBC size.
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question_answer 163) In an ECG, the QRS stands for
A)
arterial depolarization
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B)
ventricular depolarization
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C)
arterial repolarization
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D)
ventricular repolarization.
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question_answer 164) Thrombin indirectly deactivates factor VIII and V via
A)
antithrombin II
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B)
protein C
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C)
tissue factor, pathway inhibtor
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D)
plasmin.
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question_answer 165) Which one of the following is an example of a conjugated protein?
A)
casein
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B)
albumin
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C)
globulin
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D)
globin.
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question_answer 166) Which of the following minerals needed for the activity of enzymes required for the synthesis of oligosaccharides and glycoproteins?
A)
\[Mn\]
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B)
\[Mg\]
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C)
\[Cu\]
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D)
\[Mo\]
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question_answer 167) The major fibrous proteins that provide external protection to vertebrates are
A)
collagen
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B)
elastin
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C)
\[\alpha -\]keratins
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 168) Desmosomes are
A)
a special type of chromosomes
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B)
a cell organelle
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C)
cell junction of connective tissue
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D)
cell junction of epithelial tissue.
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question_answer 169) The secretory epithelium of sebaceous glands is
A)
cuboidal
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B)
stratified squamous
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C)
columnar
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D)
stratified columnar.
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question_answer 170) Argyrophilic fibre is another name for
A)
collagen fibre
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B)
reticular fibre
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C)
elastic fibre
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 171) Diagrammatic representation of the chromosomes of an organism arranged according to their size is called
A)
karyotype
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B)
genotype
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C)
ecotype
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D)
idiogram.
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question_answer 172) Glucagon is not normally found in the
A)
pancreas
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B)
gastro intestinal tract
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C)
adrenal
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D)
all of these.
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question_answer 173) All hypophysiotropic hormones are peptides except
A)
corticotropin releasing hormone
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B)
growth hormone
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C)
somatostatin
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D)
prolactin release inhibiting hormone.
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question_answer 174) Which of the following is not synthesized in both the brain arid endocrine glands?
A)
ACTH
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B)
cortisol
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C)
oxytocin
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D)
somatostatin.
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question_answer 175) Cumulus proligerus cells are found around
A)
oviducal funnel
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B)
corpus albicans
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C)
ovum
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D)
ovary.
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question_answer 176) Which of the following hormones does not have a particular target organ in the body?
A)
growth hormone
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B)
thyroxine
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C)
oxytocin
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D)
FSH.
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question_answer 177) Which one of the following acts as a transmitter at the neuromuscular junction?
A)
gamma aminobutyric acid
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B)
acetylcholine
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C)
thyroxine
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D)
melatonin.
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question_answer 178) Refractory period comes in between
A)
resting potential and depolarization
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B)
depolarization and repolarization
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C)
action potential and depolarization
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D)
two cycles of impulse conduction.
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question_answer 179) The helicotrema is the communicating link between the
A)
sacculus and cochlea
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B)
tympanic and vestibular canals
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C)
vestibular and median canals
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D)
sacculus and utriculus.
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question_answer 180) Trimethylamine oxide is an excretory product in
A)
fresh water teleosts
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B)
marine teleosts
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C)
marine invertebrate
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 181) Among HIV viruses which one is more virulent causing AIDS in 90% of the cases?
A)
HIV-I
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B)
HIV-II
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C)
HIV-III
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D)
all of these.
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question_answer 182) Which zone of a lake has no photosynthetic organism?
A)
profundal zone
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B)
littoral zone.
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C)
limnetic zone
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D)
both [b] and [c].
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question_answer 183) Terai forest is
A)
tropical forest
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B)
coniferous forest
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C)
both [a] & [b]
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D)
temperate deciduous forest.
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question_answer 184) The Wildlife Protection Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in
A)
1962
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B)
1972
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C)
1983
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D)
1989.
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question_answer 185) During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication respectively?
A)
pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions)
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B)
pachytene and interphase Gust prior to prophase I)
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C)
pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I)
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D)
zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I).
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question_answer 186) From a diploid condition of 2N, which condition can arise due to non-disjunction of chromosomes?
A)
3N
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B)
5N
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C)
\[2N+1\]
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D)
N.
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question_answer 187) Which is not X-linked?
A)
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
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B)
protanopea
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C)
G6PD
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D)
congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
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question_answer 188) Human chromosome number was determined correctly by
A)
Landsteiner
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B)
Moorehead
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C)
Tijo and Levan
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D)
J.L. Hamerton.
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question_answer 189) Nucleic acids have multiple negative charges due to
A)
sugars
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B)
phosphoryl groups
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C)
associated protein
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D)
purine and pyrimidines.
done
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question_answer 190) At the end of prophase, nucleolus disappears because of
A)
its enzymatic dissolution into its macromolecules
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B)
its dispersion into cytoplasm
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C)
its dispersion into nucleoplasm
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D)
its poor stainability.
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question_answer 191) Waggle dance in honey bees tells about
A)
direction of food source
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B)
distance of food source
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C)
both [a] and [b]
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D)
none of the above.
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question_answer 192) Normal functioning of sex glands is regulated by
A)
tocopherol
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B)
calciferol
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C)
phylloquinone
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D)
pyridoxine.
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question_answer 193) Riboflavin contains the nucleotides
A)
FMN
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B)
FAD
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C)
both FMN and FAD
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 194) Which of the following has the highest pH?
A)
gastric juice
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B)
bile
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C)
pancreatic juice
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D)
secretion of the intestinal glands.
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question_answer 195) The activity of the enzyme threonine deaminase is inhibited by
A)
malonic acid
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B)
sulphur drugs
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C)
glucose-6-phosphate
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D)
isoleucine.
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question_answer 196) Which is not a correct situation?
A)
\[ATP\xrightarrow[{}]{~ATPase}\]3, 5, cyclic AMP
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B)
\[ATP~\xrightarrow[{}]{Adenylate\,cyclase}\] 3, 5 cyclic AMP
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C)
\[ATP~\to ADP+Pi\]
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D)
\[ADP~\to AMP+Pi\]
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question_answer 197) Sporozoites are
A)
uninucleate
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B)
binucleate
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C)
multinucleate
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D)
none-of these.
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question_answer 198) Interferon\[\beta \]is also termed as
A)
immune interferon
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B)
fibroblast interferon
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C)
leucocyte interferon
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D)
anti-immune interferon..
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question_answer 199) The causative agent of Hansens disease is
A)
Myobacterium tuberculosis
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B)
Myobacterium leprae
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C)
Cornybacterium diphtheriae
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D)
Clostridium tetani.
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question_answer 200) A pure cell line of human cancer cells used for cultivation of viruses are called
A)
malignant cells
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B)
myeloma
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C)
HeLa cells
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D)
none of these.
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