question_answer 1) A body falls from rest under gravity. Its speed is v when it has lost an amount U of its potential energy. The mass of the body is
A)
\[\frac{Ug}{{{v}^{2}}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{2g}\]
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C)
\[\frac{U}{g}\]
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D)
\[\frac{2U}{{{v}^{2}}}\]
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question_answer 2)
Two blocks of masses\[{{m}_{1}}\]and\[{{m}_{2}}\]are lying on a horizontal frictionless table connected by a weightless string as shown in the diagram. The blocks are pulled by a horizontal force F applied to \[{{m}_{1}}\] The common acceleration of the blocks is
A)
\[F/({{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}})\]
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B)
\[F/{{m}_{1}}\]
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C)
\[F/{{m}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[(F+T)/{{m}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 3) If the net external force on a system of masses is zero. Which of the following is/are always conserved?
A)
total kinetic energy
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B)
total linear momentum
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C)
total angular momentum
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D)
total kinetic energy as well as linear momentum
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question_answer 4) A body is moving under the action of two forces\[{{\overrightarrow{F}}_{1}}=2\hat{i}-5\hat{j};{{\overrightarrow{F}}_{2}}=3\hat{i}-4\hat{j}\] Its velocity will become uniform under a third force\[{{\overrightarrow{F}}_{3}}\]given by
A)
\[5\hat{i}-\hat{j}\]
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B)
\[-5\hat{i}-\hat{j}\]
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C)
\[5\hat{i}+\hat{j}\]
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D)
\[-5\hat{i}+9\hat{j}\]
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question_answer 5) A cannon at the ground fires a shell at speed of 50 km/hr. If the angle of projection is\[30{}^\circ ,\] the range of the shell (take\[g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]) is, in km.
A)
\[2.5\sqrt{{}}3\]
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B)
\[62.5\sqrt{{}}3\]
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C)
\[125\sqrt{{}}3\]
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D)
\[9.65\sqrt{{}}3\times {{10}^{-3}}\]
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question_answer 6) A body starts moving with a velocity of 6 m/s making an angle of\[30{}^\circ \]with the x-axis. It has a uniform acceleration of\[3\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]in the direction of\[x-\]axis. After 5 seconds, the ^-component of its velocity will be, in m/s.
A)
\[3\sqrt{{}}3\]
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B)
15
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C)
18
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D)
21
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question_answer 7) Two vectors \[\overrightarrow{A}=4\hat{i}+5\hat{j}+r\hat{k}\] and\[\overrightarrow{B}=2\hat{i}-4\hat{j}+6\hat{k}\] are perpendicular to each other if the scalar r is
A)
4
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B)
2
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C)
0
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D)
\[-2\]
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question_answer 8) A car is moving due north accelerated in the same direction, while a train is moving parallel to it also due north with a uniform speed of 100 km/hr. At the time when the speed of the car is 80 km/hr, an observer in the train finds the car speeding
A)
due south at 20 km per hour, accelerated due north
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B)
due north at 20 km per hour, accelerated due south
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C)
due south at 180 km per hour, accelerated due north
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D)
due north at 180 km per hour, accelerated due south
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question_answer 9) An\[\alpha -\]particle enters a straight hollow tube 1 m long with initial speed of\[1.0\times {{10}^{3}}\] m/s. After travelling horizontally with uniform acceleration. It leaves the tube with the speed of\[3.0\times {{10}^{3}}m/s\]. The time spent by the particle inside the tube is, in microseconds.
A)
1000
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B)
500
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C)
250
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D)
50
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question_answer 10) The dimensional formula for latent heat (in energy units) is
A)
\[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[ML{{T}^{-2}}\]
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C)
\[{{M}^{0}}{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}\]
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D)
\[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}\]
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question_answer 11) Average kinetic energy of an ideal gas consisting of N molecules is 3/2 NkT, where k is
A)
gas constant
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B)
Stefan constant
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C)
Boltzmann constant
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D)
Planck constant
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question_answer 12) Youngs modulus for the material of a wire depends On
A)
stretching force
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B)
length of the wire
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C)
cross-section area
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 13) When a body floats in water\[{{\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}^{rd}}\]of its volume remains outside, whereas\[{{\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)}^{th}}\]of its volume remains outside when it floats in a liquid. The density of the liquid, in gm/cc, is
A)
8/3
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B)
4/3
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C)
9/4
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D)
3/2
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question_answer 14) A liquid drop of radius R breaks into 27 small drops. What will be the change in surface energy if the surface tension of the liquid is\[T\]?
A)
\[8\pi {{R}^{2}}T\]
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B)
\[12\pi {{R}^{2}}T\]
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C)
\[8{{\pi }^{2}}{{R}^{2}}T\]
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D)
\[12{{\pi }^{2}}{{R}^{2}}T\]
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question_answer 15) A stone is dropped from the top of a tower of height H. At the same time a second stone is projected vertically with a velocity\[\sqrt{3gH}\]from the foot of the tower. At what height, from the foot of the tower, will the two meet?
A)
\[3H/4\]
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B)
\[5H/6\]
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C)
\[3H/8\]
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D)
\[H/2\]
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question_answer 16) A body of mass m is projected to describe a parabolic path in vertical plane with velocity \[(3\hat{i}+8\hat{j})\]m/s. The time of flight of the body is about
A)
3.2 sec
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B)
1.6 sec
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C)
6.4 sec
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D)
1.2 sec
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question_answer 17) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)
torque does not change the angular momentum
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B)
in a rotational motion, force along a radial vector changes the angular momentum
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C)
angular velocity, angular momentum and torque are axial vectors
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D)
angular momentum and torque are always perpendicular to each other
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question_answer 18)
Three identical spheres of radius r and mass m touch each other (as shown). If the centre of mass of one of them is (0,0) then the centre of mass of the system is
A)
\[r,r/2\]
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B)
\[r,r/3\]
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C)
\[\frac{\sqrt{{}}3}{2}r,r\]
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D)
\[r,r\sqrt{{}}3\]
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question_answer 19) Work done by a force of 2 N acting along the \[x-\]axis on a body that moves from a point (3, 4) to another point (6, 8), distances being in metres, is
A)
6 J
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B)
8 J
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C)
10 J
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D)
16 J
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question_answer 20) A body of mass 100 g stops after travelling a certain distance on a rough horizontal surface. If its initial speed was 200 cm/s, the work done by it against the force of friction is
A)
\[-0.2\text{ }J\]
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B)
\[+0.2\text{ }J\]
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C)
cannot be calculated because the coefficient of friction is not given
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D)
cannot be calculated because the distance moved is not given
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question_answer 21) Two concentric spherical shells, made of copper, have radii r and\[R(R>r)\]and carry changes q and Q respectively. The potential at the surface of the inner spherical shell will be zero if Q is equal to
A)
\[-\frac{(r+R)}{r}q\]
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B)
\[\frac{(r-R)}{r}q\]
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C)
\[-\frac{R}{r}q\]
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D)
\[\frac{r}{R}q\]
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question_answer 22) An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E. The couple required to rotate it through an angle 9 from the initial position is
A)
\[pE\tan \theta \]
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B)
\[pE\cos \theta \]
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C)
\[-pE\cos \theta \]
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D)
\[pE\sin \theta \]
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question_answer 23) The equation of a wave travelling on a string is \[y=5\cos \pi (0.5x-200t)cm\] Which is the wrong statement for the given wave?
A)
the velocity of the wave is 4 m/s
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B)
the two consecutive points on the wave having equal and opposite displacement are separated by a distance 2 cm.
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C)
the phase difference between two points separated by a distance of 0.42 m is\[\pi /2\]
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D)
the displacement of the point distant 200 cm from the source will be zero at \[t=\frac{201}{400}\]sec.
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question_answer 24) In a tank full of water, waves travel a distance of 45 cm in 3 s. If the distance between two consecutive crests is 3 cm, the frequency of the vibrator causing the waves, measured in Hz is
A)
5
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B)
7.5
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C)
3
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D)
15
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question_answer 25) A particle of mass m is executing damped oscillations. The force acting on the particle is given by the equation
A)
\[F=-k{{x}^{2}}-kv(t)\]
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B)
\[F=-kx-k{{d}^{2}}x/d{{t}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[F=-k{{x}^{2}}-kdx/dt\]
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D)
\[F=-kx-kdx/dt\]
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question_answer 26) If a spring of force constant\[k\]is divided into n equal parts and one such part is attached to a mass m then the period is given by
A)
\[T=2\pi \sqrt{m/k}\]
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B)
\[T=2\pi \sqrt{nm/k}\]
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C)
\[T=2\pi n\sqrt{m/k}\]
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D)
\[T=2\pi \sqrt{m/nk}\]
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question_answer 27) Physical significance of the first law of thermodynamics is that in a process involving heat.... remains constant.
A)
total energy
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B)
kinetic energy of the molecules
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C)
internal energy
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D)
temperature
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question_answer 28)
A system in going from\[i\]to\[f\]via a, as shown in the figure, does work of 30 cal and absorbs 40 cal heat. In going from\[f\]to\[i\]along the curved path, work done is\[-5\text{ }cal\]and the heat absorbed in cal, is
A)
\[-15\]
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B)
\[+15\]
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C)
\[+5\]
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D)
\[-5\]
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question_answer 29) An irreversible engine works between\[500{}^\circ K\] and\[200{}^\circ K\]. Its efficiency is
A)
0.6
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B)
0.7
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C)
0.8
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 30) Water boils at\[100{}^\circ C\]and freezes at\[0{}^\circ C\]at sea level atmospheric pressure. At higher pressure, water will boil at a
A)
lower temperature and ice melts at a lower temperature
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B)
lower temperature and ice melts at a higher temperature
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C)
higher temperature and ice melts at a higher temperature
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D)
higher temperature and ice melts at a lower temperature
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question_answer 31) In a series LCR circuit the resonance frequency is
A)
\[2\pi \sqrt{LC}\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{LC}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{2\pi \sqrt{LC}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{2}{\sqrt{LC}}\]
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question_answer 32) A magnet is allowed to fall through a metal ring. Its acceleration a during the fall is
A)
\[a<g\]
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B)
\[a>g\]
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C)
\[a=g\]
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D)
\[a=2g\]
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question_answer 33) A magnet 20 cm long and having a pole strength of 5 units is deflected through\[30{}^\circ \]from the magnetic meridian. If the earths magnetic field is 0.32 oersted, value of the deflecting couple will be, in dynes cm.
A)
16
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B)
8
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C)
4
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D)
2
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question_answer 34) A charge particle experiences maximum force in a magnetic field when it is
A)
at rest
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B)
moving in the direction of the field
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C)
moving in a direction making an angle of 45 to the field
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D)
moving perpendicular to the direction of the field
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question_answer 35) The weight of a horizontal current carrying wire can be supported by a magnetic field which is
A)
horizontal and perpendicular to the wire
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B)
horizontal and parallel to the wire
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C)
vertical upward
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D)
vertical downward
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question_answer 36) In a thermocouple, the neutral temperature is\[270{}^\circ C\]What will be the temperature of inversion if the temperature of the cold junction is\[20{}^\circ C\]?
A)
\[560{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[520{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[540{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[500{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 37)
In the adjoining circuit, potential difference between points 2 and 5, in volts, is
A)
2.5
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B)
5.0
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C)
7.5
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D)
10.0
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question_answer 38) A high voltage electrical cable consists of a steel core surrounded by six aluminium conductors. If the resistance of the steel core is\[{{R}_{s}}\]and that of the aluminuium conductors is \[{{R}_{a}},\]the resistance of the composite cable is
A)
\[{{R}_{s}}+6{{R}_{a}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{{{R}_{s}}}+\frac{1}{6{{R}_{a}}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{{{R}_{s}}{{R}_{a}}}{{{R}_{s}}+6{{R}_{a}}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{{{R}_{s}}{{R}_{a}}}{6{{R}_{s}}+{{R}_{a}}}\]
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question_answer 39) Resistivity of a conductor increases with temperature because
A)
number of free electrons increases
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B)
number of free electrons decreases
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C)
mean free path of free electrons increases
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D)
mean free path of free electrons decreases
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question_answer 40) A capactior of\[3\mu F\]capacity can be formed by connecting three\[2\mu F\]capacitors as in
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 41) A zero magnitude star has luminosity \[{{I}_{0}}=2.52\times {{10}^{-8}}W{{m}^{-2}}\]. Luminosity of a\[-10\] magnitude star is
A)
\[2.52\times {{10}^{-4}}W{{m}^{-2}}\]
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B)
\[2.52\times {{10}^{-5}}W{{m}^{-2}}\]
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C)
\[2.52\times {{10}^{-6}}W{{m}^{-2}}\]
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D)
\[2.52\times {{10}^{-7}}W{{m}^{-2}}\]
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question_answer 42)
The following circuit is functionally equivalent to
A)
AND gate
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B)
NOR gate
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C)
NAND gate
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D)
none of these
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question_answer 43) If\[{{I}_{0}}\]and\[{{I}_{d}}\]denote drift and diffusion current respectively in a forward biased junction diode, then
A)
\[{{I}_{d}}<<{{I}_{0}}\]
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B)
\[{{I}_{d}}>>{{I}_{0}}\]
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C)
\[{{I}_{d}}={{I}_{0}}\]
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D)
\[{{I}_{0}}=0\]
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question_answer 44) A sample of radioactive substance has\[8\times {{10}^{8}}\]nuclei. Its half life is 20 minutes. The number of nuclei that will decay in one hour is
A)
\[2\times {{10}^{8}}\]
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B)
\[4\times {{10}^{8}}\]
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C)
\[1\times {{10}^{8}}\]
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D)
\[7\times {{10}^{8}}\]
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question_answer 45) In the hydrogen spectrum, spectral lines which are emitted due to the jump of electron from a higher orbit to the innermost orbit, correspond in frequency to the region.
A)
visible
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B)
ultraviolet
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C)
infrared
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D)
all of the above
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question_answer 46) The de Broglie wavelength of a particle having mass m and velocity v is
A)
directly proportional to its mass
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B)
directly proportional to its energy
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C)
inversely proportional to its momentum
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D)
directly proportional to its momentum
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question_answer 47) The maximum frequency of continuous X-rays emitted from an X-ray tube operating at an accelerating voltage V depends
A)
nature of target material
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B)
nature of the gas in tube
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C)
current in the tube
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D)
accelerating voltage applied
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question_answer 48) If Youngs double slit experiment is performed using two identical conventional sources of light instead of two slit and one source then
A)
the interference fringes will be brighter
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B)
no fringes will be obtained
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C)
the interference fringes will be darker
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D)
the contrast between bright and dark fringes will increase
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question_answer 49) In a telescope, the distance between the objective and the eye piece is 24.0 cm. The focal length of the objective is 18.0 cm. Its magnifying power is
A)
3.0
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B)
3/2
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C)
2/3
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D)
0.3
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question_answer 50) The focal length of a convex lens made of glass\[{{(}^{a}}{{\mu }_{g}}=1.5)\]is 40 cm. When the lens is completely immersed in water\[{{(}^{a}}{{\mu }_{w}}=1.33)\]its focal length, in cm, will be about
A)
60
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B)
80
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C)
120
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D)
155
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question_answer 51)
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List-I (outer electronic configuration) List-II (types of elements) A. \[[Ne]3{{s}^{1}}\] 1. alkali metal B. \[[Ne]3{{s}^{2}}3{{p}^{5}}3{{d}^{0}}4{{s}^{0}}\] 2. halogens(non-metallic) C. \[[Ar]3{{s}^{5}}4{{s}^{1}}\] 3. transition element D. \[[He]2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{0}}\] 4. inert (non-reactive) 5. inner transition 6. alkaline earth metals
A)
A-1, B-2, C-5, D-4
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B)
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
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C)
A-6, B-3, C-1, D-2
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D)
A-3, B-6, C-1, D-4
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question_answer 52) Lucas test is used to determine the type of
A)
alcohols
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B)
aldehydes
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C)
acids
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D)
phenols
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question_answer 53)
Which one of the following pressure versus volume plots represents Boyles Law? (see the accompanied diagram).
A)
line AB
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B)
line COD
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C)
line EF
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D)
line GH
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question_answer 54) Which of the following statements is incorrect in respect of ideal gaseous behaviour?
A)
all the molecules are identical and have intermolecular force of attraction
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B)
the gaseous molecules exchange energies during molecular collisions
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C)
the collisions are inelastic
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D)
all the above
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question_answer 55) Hofmann bromamide reaction is used to prepare
A)
primary amine
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B)
secondary amine
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C)
tertiary amine
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D)
all the above
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question_answer 56) Which one of the following is incorrect for the Bohr model of hydrogen atom?
A)
\[\frac{Z{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{2}}}=\frac{m{{v}^{2}}}{{{r}^{2}}}\]
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B)
angular momentum is quantized
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C)
mass of proton is ignored
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 57) The IUPAC name of \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}}}\,\]
A)
4-Ethyl-2-methylhexane
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B)
2-Methyl-4-ethylhexane
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C)
3-lsobutylpentane
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D)
2-Ethyl-isopropylbutane
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question_answer 58) Heisenbergs uncertainty in position and momentum is shown by
A)
\[\Delta x.\Delta p\ge \frac{{{h}^{2}}}{4\pi }\]
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B)
\[\Delta x.\Delta p\ge \frac{h}{2\pi }\]
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C)
\[\Delta x.\Delta p\ge \frac{h}{4\pi }\]
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 59) Which one gives secondary alcohol when treated with Grignard Reagent?
A)
\[HCHO\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]
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C)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CO\]
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D)
All the above
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question_answer 60) For isothermal change in the case of an ideal gas
A)
\[\Delta C=\Delta H-T\Delta S\]
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B)
\[\Delta C=-T\Delta S\]
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C)
\[\Delta A\text{ }=\Delta E-T\Delta S\]
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 61) Which of the following compound gives formic acid on hydrolysis?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{2}}Cl\]
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C)
\[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}Cl\]
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question_answer 62) The electropositive character decreases from
A)
Li to Cs (lithium to cesium) in the 1 group
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B)
\[Cl\]to\[I\](chlorine to iodine) in the VII group
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C)
\[Al\]to Na (aluminium to sodium) in the same period
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 63) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is found in
A)
p-niiro phenol
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B)
o-nitro phenol
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C)
w-nitro phenol
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D)
phenol
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question_answer 64) Assertion: The rate of a reaction is enhanced in the presence of a positive catalyst. Reason: The positive catalyst provides an alternative path of higher activation energy
A)
both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
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B)
both assertion and reason are true but reason is NOT the correct explanation of assertion
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C)
asserton is true but reason is false
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D)
both assertion and reason are false
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question_answer 65) The most unlikely representation of resonance structure of\[p-\]nitrophenoxide ion is
A)
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer 66) The solubility product of\[AgCl\]is\[4.0\times {{10}^{-10}}\]at 298 K. The solubility of\[AgCl\]in\[0.04M\text{ }CaC{{l}_{2}}\] will be
A)
\[2.0\times {{10}^{-5}}M\]
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B)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-4}}M\]
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C)
\[5.0\times {{10}^{-9}}M\]
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D)
\[2.2\times {{10}^{-4}}M\]
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question_answer 67) Which one of the following statements is not true?
A)
variable valencies are shown by the transition elements.
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B)
electrons enter into the\[3d-\]orbitals in the first series of the transition elements.
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C)
electropositive character decreases in lanthanide elements because of lanthanide contraction.
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 68) Pernicious Anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin
A)
\[{{B}_{1}}\]
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B)
\[{{B}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[{{B}_{6}}\]
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D)
\[{{B}_{12}}\]
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question_answer 69) Assertion: Spin quantum number can have the value\[+{\scriptstyle{}^{1}/{}_{2}}\] or\[-{\scriptstyle{}^{1}/{}_{2}}\]. Reason: (+) sign here signifies the wave function.
A)
both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
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B)
both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the not correct explanation of assertion
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C)
assertion is true but reason is false
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D)
both assertion and reason are false
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question_answer 70) Which one will give positive iodoform test?
A)
ethanol
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B)
propanone
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C)
2-Propanol
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D)
all the above
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question_answer 71) In\[{{H}_{2}}\]molecule, each of the two electrons
A)
is attracted by its own nucleus in accordance with the valence bond treatment:
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B)
is attracted by both the nuclei in the light of the molecular orbital consideration:
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C)
is attracted by both the nuclei in MO consideration and also they experience repulsion among themselves besides nuclear repulsion.
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D)
behave as stated above (a to c) in accordance with the VB and MO treatments.
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question_answer 72) Which of the following statements is not correct for an electron that has the quantum number\[n=4\]and\[m=2\]?
A)
the electron may have the quantum number \[s=+\text{ }1/2\]
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B)
the electron may have the quantum number\[l=2\].
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C)
the electron may have the quantum numbers \[l=3\]
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D)
the electron may have the quantum numbers\[l=0,1,2\]
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question_answer 73) A bond order of value 1/2 is found in
A)
\[He_{2}^{+}\]
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B)
\[H_{2}^{+}\]
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C)
\[He_{2}^{+}\]and \[H_{2}^{+}\]
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D)
all the above
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question_answer 74) Which one of the following compounds on nitration easily produces nitro derivative?
A)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]
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B)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C{{H}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OC{{H}_{3}}\]
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question_answer 75) The correct outer electronic configuration of chromium atom is
A)
\[[Ar]3{{d}^{5}}4{{s}^{1}}\]
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B)
\[[Ar]3{{d}^{4}}4{{s}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[[Ar]3{{d}^{6}}\]
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D)
\[[Ar]3{{d}^{0}}4{{s}^{2}}4{{p}^{4}}\]
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question_answer 76) The formation of the product is facilitated by increasing the pressure in
A)
\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2NO(g)\]
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B)
\[2N{{H}_{3}}(g){{N}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}(g)\]
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C)
\[2NO(g){{N}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\]
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 77) The de Broglie relation is obtained by equating
A)
\[E={\scriptstyle{}^{1}/{}_{2}}m{{c}^{2}}\]and \[E=h\upsilon \]
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B)
\[E=m{{c}^{2}}\]and \[E=h\upsilon \]
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C)
\[E={{p}^{2}}/2m\]and \[E=h\upsilon \]
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 78) X on oxidation with alkaline\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]gives benzoic acid. The X may be
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
all of the above
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question_answer 79)
In the mixtures of two miscible volatile liquids obeying Raoults law, the correct behaviour is explained by
A)
AB stands for the vapour pressure of component B in presence of solute A
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B)
CD stands for the vapour pressure of solvent A in presence of solute B
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C)
BC stands for the total vapour pressure in accordance with the Daltons law of partial pressures
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D)
all of the above
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question_answer 80) Octahedral, tetrahedral, and planar metal complexes have, respectively,
A)
\[{{d}^{2}},s{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{3}},\]and\[s{{p}^{2}}\]hybridisation
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B)
\[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}},s{{p}^{3}},\]and\[sp\]hybridisation
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C)
\[{{d}^{2}}s{{p}^{3}}\]or\[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}},s{{p}^{3}},\]and\[ds{{p}^{2}}\]hybridization
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D)
\[{{d}^{2}}s{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{3}},\]and\[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}}\]hybridization
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question_answer 81) The oxidation states of\[Mn\]in\[MnS{{O}_{4}},Mn{{O}_{2}}\] \[{{K}_{2}}Mn{{O}_{4}}\]and\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]are respectively
A)
1, 2, 4, 4
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B)
2, 4, 6, 7
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C)
1, 2, 4, 6
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D)
2, 4, 7, 6
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question_answer 82) The\[_{92}{{U}^{238}}\]absorbs a thermal neutron. The correct sequence of radioactive decay, is [A]\[_{92}{{U}^{238}}{{+}_{0}}{{n}^{1}}{{\to }_{92}}{{U}^{239}}\xrightarrow[{{\frac{^{t}1}{2}}^{-23\,\min }}]{{}}93\,N{{p}^{239}}+{{\beta }^{-}}\] [B] \[_{93}N{{p}^{239}}{{\xrightarrow[{{\frac{^{t}1}{2}}^{-2-3day}}]{{}}}_{24}}P{{u}^{293}}+{{\beta }^{-}}\] [C] \[_{94}P{{u}^{239}}\xrightarrow[\begin{smallmatrix} by\,thermal\,neutron \\ \left( {{\frac{^{t}1}{2}}^{-24.000\,yrs}} \right) \end{smallmatrix}]{fissionable}{{\,}_{92}}{{U}^{235}}+\alpha \]is shown by
A)
A and B
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B)
B and C
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C)
C and A
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D)
all of these
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question_answer 83) Lowering of vapour, pressure,\[\Delta p\]: elevation in boiling point.\[\Delta {{T}_{b}}\]: and depression in freezing point,\[\Delta {{T}_{f}}\]of a solvent for the same molar concentration of each of the three solutes: [A] sugar, [B]\[NaCl,\] and [C]\[BaC{{l}_{2}}\]follow the sequence:
A)
\[\Delta p:A<B<C\]
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B)
\[\Delta {{T}_{b}}:C>B>A\]
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C)
\[\Delta {{T}_{f}}:A<B<C\]
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D)
all of these
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question_answer 84) In 0.1 M solutions of each of the following: Sucrose,\[NaCl,\]and\[MgC{{l}_{2}},\]the solutes will depress the freezing point of the solvent in the order:
A)
\[sucrose>NaCl>MgC{{l}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[NaCl>MgC{{l}_{2}}>sucrose\]
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C)
\[MgC{{l}_{2}}>sucrose>NaCl\]
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D)
\[MgC{{l}_{2}}>NaCl>sucrose\]
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question_answer 85) Which one among the following contains a phenolic\[-OH\]group
A)
citric acid
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B)
picric acid
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C)
formic acid
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D)
oxalic acid
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question_answer 86) The work done in expansion of an ideal gas from an initial volume\[{{V}_{1}}\]to a final\[{{V}_{2}}\]litres against a pressure of 1 atm at 300 K is
A)
\[2.303R\times 300\,log({{V}_{2}}/{{V}_{1}})\]
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B)
\[2.303R\times 300\,log({{V}_{1}}/{{V}_{2}})\]
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C)
\[1\text{ }atm\times ({{V}_{2}}/{{V}_{1}})\text{ }litre\]
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D)
zero
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question_answer 87) For spontaneous reaction
A)
\[\Delta E\]or\[\Delta U\]must decrease
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B)
\[\Delta H\] must decrease
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C)
\[\Delta S\] must decrease
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D)
\[\Delta G\]must decrease
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question_answer 88) Which of the following depends on the path followed?
A)
internal energy change
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B)
enthalpy change
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C)
work done
done
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D)
free-energy change
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question_answer 89) The final product of the following sequence of reactions is \[C{{H}_{3}}Br+Mg\xrightarrow[{}]{Ether}A\xrightarrow[{}]{HCHO}B\xrightarrow[{}]{{{H}_{2}}O}C\]
A)
acetic acid
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B)
acetaldehyde
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C)
ethyl alcohol
done
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D)
formic acid
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question_answer 90) Caprolactum is the monomer of
A)
nylon-6
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B)
glyptal
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C)
dacron
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D)
melamine
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question_answer 91) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A)
ionisation potential decreases in a group while atomic volume increases
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B)
electron affinity increases from V to VII groups
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C)
transition metals give coloured ions and exhibit variable valencies
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D)
none of these
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question_answer 92) Acetic acid shows twice of its expected molecular weight value experimentally. This is because of
A)
its dissociation into\[{{H}^{+}}\]and\[C{{H}_{3}}CO{{O}^{-}}\] ions
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B)
colligative property measurement
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C)
molecular association through H-bonding
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 93) Which one of the following acids would you expect to be the strongest?
A)
\[FC{{H}_{2}}COOH\]
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B)
\[ClC{{H}_{2}}COOH\]
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C)
\[BrC{{H}_{2}}COOH\]
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D)
\[lC{{H}_{2}}COOH\]
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question_answer 94)
Match List 1 and List 2 and select the correct answer, using the codes given below the lists. Match: List 1 (compounds) List 2 (types of bond) A. \[MgO\] 1. Electrovalent B. \[{{H}_{2}}\] 2. Covalent C. \[Cu[N{{H}_{3}}]_{4}^{++}\] 3. Coordinate 4. Hydrogen bond
A)
A-1, B-2, C-3
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B)
A-1, B-4, C-3
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C)
A-2, B-4, C-1
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D)
A-3, B-2, C-1
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question_answer 95) The reducing reagent in Clemmensen reduction is
A)
\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]
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B)
\[Zn-NaOH\]
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C)
\[Na-NaOH\]
done
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D)
\[Zn-Hg-HCl\]
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question_answer 96) Assertion: According to Arrhenius equation \[K=A{{e}^{-{{E}_{a}}/RT}},\] ne energy of activation is independent of temperature. Reason: The plot of log k versus 1/T is linear
A)
assertion and reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
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B)
assertion and reason both are correct but reason is NOT the correct explanation of assertion
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C)
assertion is true but reason is false
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D)
both assertion and reason are false
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question_answer 97) Assertion: The reaction.\[A+B\](excess)\[\xrightarrow[{}]{k}C,\]for which\[\xrightarrow[dt]{d[C]}\propto [A],\]follows the first order kinetics. Reason: The order of a reaction is the number of molecules whose concentration determines the rate of reaction at a given temperature.
A)
both assertion and reason are true: and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
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B)
both assertion and reason are true: but reason is NOT the correct explanation of assertion
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C)
assertion is true but reason is false
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D)
assertion is false but reason is true
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question_answer 98) The amphoteric behaviour is shown by
A)
\[{{H}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]and \[HCO_{3}^{-}\]
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B)
\[{{H}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O\]
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C)
\[HCO_{3}^{-}\] and \[{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}\]
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D)
none of the above
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question_answer 99) The incorrect match for the pH values and the corresponding concentration for the aqueous solutions of\[HCl,\text{ }NaCl,\]and\[NaOH\]is shown by
A)
\[\begin{align}
& \frac{HCl}{pHconcn(m/l)}\frac{NaCl}{pHconcn(m/l)}\frac{NaOH}{pHconcn(m/l)} \\
& \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,3\times {{10}^{-3}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,7\times {{10}^{-5}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,11\times {{10}^{-3}} \\
\end{align}\]
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B)
\[\begin{align}
& \frac{HCl}{pHconcn(m/l)}\frac{NaCl}{pHconcn(m/l)}\frac{NaOH}{pHconcn(m/l)} \\
& \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,4\times {{10}^{-4}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,5\times {{10}^{-5}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,10\times {{10}^{-4}} \\
\end{align}\]
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C)
\[\begin{align}
& \frac{HCl}{pHconcn(m/l)}\frac{NaCl}{pHconcn(m/l)}\frac{NaOH}{pHconcn(m/l)} \\
& \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,5\times {{10}^{-5}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,7\times {{10}^{-7}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,9\times {{10}^{-5}} \\
\end{align}\]
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D)
\[\begin{align}
& \frac{HCl}{pHconcn(m/l)}\frac{NaCl}{pHconcn(m/l)}\frac{NaOH}{pHconcn(m/l)} \\
& \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,6\times {{10}^{-6}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,7\times {{10}^{-6}}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,8\times {{10}^{-6}} \\
\end{align}\]
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question_answer 100) Methyl bromide and ethyl bromide are mixed in equal proportion and the mixture is treated with sodium, the number of possible organic products is
A)
1
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B)
2
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C)
3
done
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D)
4
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question_answer 101) The smallest known agents of the infection disease are
A)
viruses
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B)
mycoplasma
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C)
viroids
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D)
actinomycetes.
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question_answer 102) The best stage to produce haploid through anther culture is
A)
microspore mother cells
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B)
microspores
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C)
2- celled pollen grains
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D)
all of the above.
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question_answer 103) If a sporangium develops from a group of cell, the development of sporangium is known as
A)
heterosporangiate
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B)
homosporangiate
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C)
eusporangiate
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D)
leptosporangiate.
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question_answer 104) The first stable compound in Hatch Slack pathway is
A)
phosphoglyceric acid
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B)
lactic acid
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C)
oxalo acetic acid
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D)
none of the above.
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question_answer 105) Agar - agar which is extensively used in all microbiological studies and culture media is an important product of sea resources and is obtained from which group of algae?
A)
brown algae
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B)
green algae
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C)
red algae
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D)
diatoms & dinoflagellates.
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question_answer 106) Ribosome is made up of
A)
DNA\[+\]protein
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B)
RNA\[+\]protein
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C)
RNA\[+\]iipid
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D)
RNA\[+\]phosphate.
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question_answer 107) Which one of the following plant is most commonly used as green manure?
A)
Dalbergia sissoo
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B)
Polyaithea
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C)
Sesbania aculeate
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 108) If a fruit is developed from bicarpellary syncarpus inferior ovary with basal placement and with a single ovule, the fruit is termed as
A)
silique
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B)
cypsela
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C)
silicula
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D)
lomentun.
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question_answer 109) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)
during meiosis cytokinesis generally takes place
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B)
during meiosis cytokinesis may not take place
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C)
during meiosis cytokinesis takes place after first phase of meiosis and does not take place after second phase of meiosis
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D)
all of the above.
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question_answer 110) The first step in photosynthesis is
A)
formation of ATP
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B)
ionization of water
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C)
excitation of an electron of chlorophyll
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D)
attachment of\[C{{O}_{2}}\]to carbon sugar.
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question_answer 111) The ovule during its development undergoes \[180{}^\circ \]curvature bringing the micrbpyle and chalaza in a line. The development of ovule conforms to
A)
circinotropous
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B)
atropous
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C)
anatropous
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D)
amphitropous.
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question_answer 112) When the movement of plant or plant body is governed by the external stimulus it is known as
A)
paratonic movement
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B)
automonic movement
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C)
nastic movement
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D)
none of the above.
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question_answer 113) Senescence of plant organs is delayed by the application of
A)
auxin
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B)
gibberellin
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C)
cytokinin
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D)
ethylene.
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question_answer 114) During anther wall development if the middle layer is contributed by the inner secondary parietal layer, the development of anther wall layer conforms to
A)
dicotyledonous
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B)
monocotyledonous
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C)
basic type
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D)
reduced type.
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question_answer 115) Kranz type of leaf anatomy is found in
A)
\[{{C}_{1}}\] plants
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B)
\[{{C}_{4}}\]plants
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C)
\[{{C}_{3}}\]plants
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D)
\[{{C}_{2}}\]plants.
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question_answer 116) Reduction of NADP takes place in
A)
cyclic photophosphorylation
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B)
non - cyclic photophosphorylation
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C)
oxidative photophosphorylation
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D)
none of the above.
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question_answer 117) How many meiotic divisions would be required to produce 101 maize grains?
A)
101
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B)
26
done
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C)
127
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 118) Which one of the following decides cell to divide?
A)
\[{{G}_{1}}\]phase
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B)
\[{{G}_{2}}\]phase
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C)
S phase
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 119) The exact amount of energy available from each ATP (a part of the energy is lost as heat) is approximately
A)
7 K. calories
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B)
10 K. calories
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C)
5 K. calories
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D)
15 K. calories.
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question_answer 120) Which of the following is a source of variation?
A)
mutation
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B)
recombination
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C)
translocation
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D)
all of these.
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question_answer 121) Which one of the following occurs in radioactive fallout and behaves like calcium in biogeochemical cycling of material in ecosystem?
A)
strontium - 30
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B)
cobalt - 60
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C)
cesium-137
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 122) The formula for chlorophyll a is
A)
\[{{C}_{55}}{{H}_{70}}{{O}_{6}}{{N}_{4}}Mg\]
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B)
\[{{C}_{55}}{{H}_{72}}{{O}_{5}}{{N}_{4}}Mg\]
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C)
\[{{C}_{22}}{{H}_{72}}{{O}_{5}}{{N}_{4}}Mg\]
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D)
\[{{C}_{22}}{{H}_{72}}{{O}_{5}}{{N}_{4}}Mg\]
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question_answer 123) Degenerate codes are when
A)
the codons degenerate soon after the synthesis of polypeptide chain
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B)
one codon can code for more than one amino acids
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C)
a codon is non-functional and is also known as non-sense codon
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D)
the same amino acid can be coded by more than one codon.
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question_answer 124) Which one of the following element is responsible for Minamata diseases which is prevalent in industrial area due to pollution?
A)
cadmium
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B)
lead
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C)
mercury
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D)
zinc.
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question_answer 125) In our biosphere, the most important and vast area is covered by hydrosphere. Hydrosphere has
A)
1.4 billion cubic km of water
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B)
1.4 million cubic km of water
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C)
2.5 billion cubic km of water
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D)
1.5 billion cubic km of water.
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question_answer 126) The primary function of the light reaction of photosynthesis is
A)
production of ATP
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B)
production of \[ATP+NADP{{H}_{4}}\]
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C)
absorption of light
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D)
manufacture of food.
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question_answer 127) Myrmecophilly is a beneficial association between some flowering plants such as Cassia etc. and
A)
bacteria
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B)
mycoplasma
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C)
mycorrhiza
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D)
ants.
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question_answer 128) If the number of chromosomes in the pollen grains of Pinus is 12, what would be the number of chromosomes in its endosperm?
A)
12
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B)
36
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C)
6
done
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 129) A class of mutation induced by addition or deletion of a nucleotide is called
A)
missense
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B)
nonsense
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C)
substitution
done
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D)
frameshift.
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question_answer 130) If the cell ca of 2-celled proembryo divides transversely, the embryo development may conform to
A)
chenopodiad and asterad types
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B)
onagrad and solanad types
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C)
caryophyllad and onagrad types
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D)
solanad and chenopodiad types.
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question_answer 131) Monera includes
A)
actinomycetes only
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B)
cyanobacteria only
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C)
actinomycetes and cyanobacteria
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D)
none of the above.
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question_answer 132) Chipko Andolan (movement) which was started in 1970 in Garhwal Himalayas (Gopeshwar) near Alaknand river was for the first time started by
A)
Baba Amte
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B)
Maneka Gandhi
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C)
Chander Prasad Bhat
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D)
Sunder Lal Bahuguna.
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question_answer 133) In a vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf, phloem in the midrib vascular strand
A)
is not distinct
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B)
faces abaxial side
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C)
faces adaxial side
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D)
is surrounded by metaxylem
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question_answer 134) A natural phenomenon is commonly observed in lakes, ponds and ditches that there is a rich growth of algae and other micro-organisms which consume much of the dissolved oxygen, resulting the death of fish at night. The phenomenon is termed as
A)
litterization
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B)
transmigration
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C)
eutrophication
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D)
estuarization.
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question_answer 135) When a fungus completes its life cycle on two hosts, it is called
A)
heterothallic
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B)
monothallic
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C)
heteroecious
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D)
autoecious.
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question_answer 136) In order to reduce expenses over plantation for afforestation programme under the Social Forestry, a system has been developed which include forestry and agriculture. The system is named as
A)
selective harvest system
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B)
taungya system
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C)
jhum cultivation
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D)
block system.
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question_answer 137) The pyramid of biomass would be inverted in
A)
forest ecosystem
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B)
marine ecosystem
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C)
grass land ecosystem
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D)
none of the above.
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question_answer 138) When there is a bunch of flagella on one side, the bacteria are known as
A)
lophotrichous
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B)
amphitrichous
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C)
peritrichous
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 139) Reindeer Moss, a very important product in tundra biome and which constitutes the starting point to food chain in this region belongs to
A)
pteridophyta
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B)
bryophyta
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C)
lichens
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 140) The sequence and kinds of amino acids in a particular protein are determined by a sequence of
A)
two nucleotides
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B)
three nucleotides
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C)
four nucleotides
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D)
five nucleotides.
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question_answer 141) Subabul a fast growing tree and extensively used in social forestry programme to generate cheap fuel for rural population is botanically known as
A)
Acacia nilotica
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B)
Parkinsonia aculeata
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C)
Lezicaena leucocephala
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D)
Simmondsia chinensis.
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question_answer 142) Simmondsia chinensis is an oil yielding plant of Mexico and it has been recently introduced in Indian deserts. What is the common name of this plant?
A)
subabul
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B)
gauynie
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C)
winged bean
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D)
jojoba.
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question_answer 143) If the decomposers from an ecosystem go on strike from functioning as decomposers, the functioning of ecosystem will be adversely affective because
A)
energy flow in an ecosystem will be blocked
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B)
cycling of mineral and material will be stopped
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C)
both [a] and [b]
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D)
adversely affected for a short period and then function normally
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question_answer 144) Which one of the following plants is used in paint and varnish industry?
A)
Abies
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B)
Cedrus deodara
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C)
Pinus roxburghii
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D)
Pinus gerardiana.
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question_answer 145) Which one of the following is M.F.P?
A)
timber
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B)
resin and gums
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C)
plywood
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D)
lumber.
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question_answer 146) A typical foliage leaf comprises
A)
hypopodium
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B)
mesopodium
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C)
epipodium
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D)
all of these.
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question_answer 147) Intergeneric crosses are rarely successful through usual breeding techniques. Which of the following may be used to achieve success in this regard?
A)
embryo culture
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B)
hybridoma technique
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C)
somatic hybridization
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D)
none of the above.
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question_answer 148) The plant cells commonly without nucleus among the following are
A)
sieve tube elements
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B)
roots hairs
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C)
companion cells
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D)
albuminous cells.
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question_answer 149) Prokaryotic flagella are having
A)
unit membrane - enclosed fibre.
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B)
helically arranged protein molecule
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C)
microtubular\[9+2\]membrane enclosed structure
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D)
protein membrane enclosed fibre.
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question_answer 150) Goldfussia is an example of____where the leaves of different size are present in opposite phyllotaxy.
A)
heterophylly
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B)
anisophylly
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C)
opposite decussate
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 151) . The area cribrosa occurs at
A)
base of medullary pyramid
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B)
tip of medullary pyramid
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C)
the major calyx
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D)
the pelvis.
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question_answer 152) One major change accompanying the evolution of homo from australopithecus was
A)
bipedal locomotion
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B)
decrease in body size
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C)
increase in brain size
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D)
uniformity of teeth.
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question_answer 153) Coral reef formation is mainly related to
A)
sponges
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B)
anthozoans
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C)
molluscs
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D)
hydrozoans.
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question_answer 154) Under the wild life protection Act of the Government of India, the Indian elephant is in the category of
A)
protected species
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B)
endangered species
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C)
vulnerable species
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D)
rare species.
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question_answer 155) Edward Jenner was the first person who
A)
tried to develop vaccine
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B)
discovered penicillin
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C)
introduced the term cell
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D)
discovered the life of malaria in mosquito.
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question_answer 156) The organic compound having polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones is
A)
carbohydrate
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B)
lipid
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C)
protein
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D)
vitamin.
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question_answer 157) Animal requiring minimum amount of water to produce urine are
A)
ureotelic
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B)
ammonotelic
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C)
uricotelic
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D)
chemotelic.
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question_answer 158) For X - linkage, males are called as
A)
heterozygous
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B)
hemizygous
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C)
autozygous
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D)
allozygous
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question_answer 159) Which is not related with eukaryotic\[mRNA\]?
A)
intron, exon
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B)
ribosomes binding site
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C)
poly A tail, Gppp Cap
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D)
okazaki piece.
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question_answer 160) The respiratory and cardiac centres are located in
A)
cerebrum
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B)
diencephalons
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C)
crura cerebri
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D)
medulla oblongata.
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question_answer 161) By weight the most abundant element in a cell is
A)
carbon
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B)
hydrogen
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C)
oxygen
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D)
sodium.
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question_answer 162) A child (foetus) may die if
A)
mother is\[R{{h}^{+}}\] and father \[R{{h}^{-}}\]
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B)
father is\[R{{h}^{+}}\]and mother\[R{{h}^{-}}\]
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C)
father is\[R{{h}^{+}}\]and mother\[R{{h}^{-}}\]
done
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D)
father is\[R{{h}^{+}}\]and so is mother.
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question_answer 163) All sensory information to be registered consciously by the forebrain must pass via the
A)
thalamus
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B)
reticular formation
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C)
cerebellum
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D)
pons.
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question_answer 164) A sex-linked disease which is lethal, not connected with blood and changes the sex ratio is
A)
colourblindness
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B)
muscular dystrophy
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C)
G6PD deficiency
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D)
haemophilia A and B.
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question_answer 165) Beer and buttermilk are the products of fermentation brought about by a microscopic organism called
A)
Saccharomyces cerevisae
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B)
Rhizopus stolonifer
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C)
Caedibacter taeniospiralis
done
clear
D)
Bacillus subtilis.
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question_answer 166) Which one of the following forms of RNAs is involved in receiving the message of genetic code from DNA for translation during protein synthesis?
A)
\[rRNA\]
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B)
\[mRNA\]
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C)
\[tRNA\]
done
clear
D)
all of these.
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question_answer 167) Which of the following groups contain both DNA and RNA?
A)
bacteria and higher organisms
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B)
tobacco mosaic virus and poliomyelitis virus
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C)
bacteriophages and adenovirus
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D)
human immuno deficiency virus and papilloma virus.
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question_answer 168) The stage of meiosis where in the centromere divides for the first and the only time, ensuring separation of daughter chromosomes, occur in
A)
anaphase II
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B)
telophase I
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C)
anaphase I
done
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D)
telophase II
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question_answer 169) In which substage ofprophase I, pairing between homologous chromosomes is completed throughout whole length and pairs are referred to as biyalents?
A)
diplotene
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B)
zygotene
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C)
leptotene
done
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D)
pachytene
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question_answer 170) The element particles on mitochondria are concerned with
A)
glycolysis
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B)
breakdown of ATP
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C)
Krebs cycle
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D)
oxidative phosphorylation.
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question_answer 171) Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave/cut at specific site of the molecules of
A)
DNA
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B)
carbohydrates
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C)
fats
done
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D)
vitamins.
done
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question_answer 172) A species with several subspecies is called a
A)
polytypic species
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B)
polytopic species
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C)
superspecies
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D)
monotypic species.
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question_answer 173) An enzyme which has multiple molecular forms in the same organism is termed as
A)
isozyme
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B)
isoenzyme
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C)
holoenzyme
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D)
apoenzyme.
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question_answer 174) Prokaryotes have
A)
large nuclei
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B)
single large nucleus
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C)
large and small nuclei
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D)
no defined nucleus.
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question_answer 175) The reaction between antibodies and soluble antigens is
A)
agglutination
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B)
neutralization
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C)
precipitation
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D)
lysis.
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question_answer 176) Release of neurotransmitter substance at the presynaptic membrane is medicated by
A)
Na ions
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B)
Ca ions
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C)
K ions
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D)
Mg ions.
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question_answer 177) Mammary gland is an example of a compound
A)
tubular gland
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B)
alveolar glands
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C)
tubulo - alveolar gland
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D)
saccular gland.
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question_answer 178) Transmission of signals or impulse through a nerve is
A)
physical phenomenon
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B)
chemical phenomenon
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C)
physico - chemical phenomenon
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D)
mechanical phenomenon.
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question_answer 179) Dopamine is a
A)
hormone
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B)
transmitter hormone
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C)
polysaccharide
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D)
enzyme.
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question_answer 180) Which one of the following will be untenable nucleotide combination?
A)
phosphate - deoxyribose - uracil
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B)
phosphate - ribose-uracil
done
clear
C)
phosphate - ribose-adenine .
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D)
phosphate - deoxyribose - cytosine.
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question_answer 181) The binomial system of nomenclature now followed universally, was first proposed by
A)
Aristotle
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B)
Caroleus Linnaeus
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C)
G. Simpson
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D)
E. Mayr.
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question_answer 182) Which of the following hormone is necessary for the development of secondary sexual characters, in mammals including human beings?
A)
progesterone
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B)
FSH
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C)
testosterone
done
clear
D)
estrogen.
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question_answer 183) Vitamin\[{{B}_{12}}\]is also known as
A)
riboflavin
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B)
pyridoxine
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C)
folic acid
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D)
cdbalamine.
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question_answer 184) The disorders of AIDS is characterized by
A)
decrease in the number of killer T-cells
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B)
decrease in the number of suppressor T-cells
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C)
decrease in the number of helper T-cells
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D)
increase in the number of helper T-cells.
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question_answer 185) Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of
A)
thiamine
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B)
niacin
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C)
folic acid
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D)
biotin.
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question_answer 186) Sucrase hydrolysis sucrose into
A)
glucose and galactose
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B)
glucose and fructose
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C)
galactose and fructose
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clear
D)
glucose and ribose.
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question_answer 187) Which one of the following is not a protein digesting enzyme?
A)
pepsin
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B)
ptyalin
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C)
trypsin
done
clear
D)
chymotrypsin.
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question_answer 188) One method of biotechnology for Animal Breeding Programmes to improve yield of milk/meat/wool in catties, goat, sheep, is to incorporate new/foreign genes into the genome of their fertilized eggs to produce
A)
hybrids
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B)
\[{{F}_{1}}\] generation
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clear
C)
transgenic individuals
done
clear
D)
\[{{F}_{2}}\] generation.
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question_answer 189) Plasmid found in bacteria are used as vectors in molecular biology/biotechnology work. These genetic elements of bacteria are
A)
chromosomal
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B)
extra-chromosomal
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C)
mitochondrial
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D)
none of these.
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question_answer 190) Germplasm preservation at ultra-low temperatures around\[-196{}^\circ C,\] is called as
A)
ultra - preservation
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B)
cryo - preservation
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C)
chemical preservation
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D)
physical preservation.
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question_answer 191) Scorpions belong to the phylum
A)
annelida
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B)
echinodermata
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C)
arthropoda
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D)
porifera.
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question_answer 192) Ommatidia are the units that constitute the compound eyes in
A)
fish
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B)
insects
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C)
mammals
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D)
birds.
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question_answer 193) Annelids like the earthworms, Pheretima posthuma, excrete urine that is
A)
isotonic
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B)
hypertonic
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C)
hypotonic
done
clear
D)
none of these.
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question_answer 194) Animals that tolerate a very narrow range of temperature fluctuation are called as
A)
eurythermal
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B)
stenothermal
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C)
euryhaline
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D)
stenohaline.
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question_answer 195) Which is related to Darwin?
A)
Galapagos island
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B)
Andaman islands
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C)
Hawiian islands
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D)
Mauritius.
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question_answer 196) Competition between individuals of the same species, is called
A)
inter - specific competition
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B)
intra - specific competition
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C)
predation
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D)
population interaction.
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question_answer 197) Population exploiting a resource rapidly, and showing unbounding increase in numbers are
A)
\[k-\]selected
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B)
\[r-\]selected
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C)
growth selected
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D)
unselected.
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question_answer 198) The essential components of ecosystem, without which ecosystems cannot function, are
A)
consumer organisms
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B)
secondary consumer organisms
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C)
sunlight, green plants
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D)
decomposer organisms.
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question_answer 199) Biosphere consists of basic units known as
A)
biomes
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B)
regional ecosystem patterns
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C)
ecosystems
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D)
geographical patterns.
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clear
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question_answer 200) Closely related species living in the same area/ habitat, are called as
A)
allopatric
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B)
sympatric
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C)
allochoronic
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D)
siblings.
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